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Neuroanatomy > Section 2 > Flashcards

Section 2 Flashcards

1
Q

anterior spinal artery supplies…

A

midline of the medulla

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2
Q

posterior anterior cerebellar artery supplies…

A

the lateral aspect of the medulla and cerebellum

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3
Q

medial medullary syndrome results from…

A

occlusion of the anterior spinal artery

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4
Q

medial medullary syndrome affects…

A

corticospinal tracts (trunk and limbs)
medial lemniscus (contralateral loss of proprioception and discriminating touch)
hypoglossal nerve roots (ipsilateral paralysis of tongue)

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5
Q

lateral medullary syndrome results from…

A

occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

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6
Q

lateral medullary syndrome affects…

A

vestibular nuclei, CN VIII (nystagmus, nausea, vertigo)
nucleus ambiguous, CN IX, X (ipsilateral speech, gag, and swallowing issues)
spinothalamic tracts (contralateral loss of pain and temp)
spinal nucleus tracts of CN V (ipsilateral loss of pain and temp of face)

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7
Q

retina development results from…

A

outgrowth of the prosencephalon

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8
Q

optic vesicles

A

evagination from the prosencephalon at 4 weeks

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9
Q

neural retina

A

inner layer of prosencephalon (optic vesicle)

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10
Q

retinal pigmented epithelium

A

outer layer of prosencephalon (optic vesicle)

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11
Q

lens and cornea form from…

A

surface ectoderm

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12
Q

choroid (vascular) and sclera (protective) derive from…

A

mesenchyme (mesoderm and neural crest, respectively)

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13
Q

sclera

A

continuous with dura mater (meningeal sheath) around the optic nerve

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14
Q

the optic nerve is covered by all three layers of the meninges

A

true

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15
Q

effect of elevated CSF pressure on the eye

A

expansion of the subarachnoid space surrounding the optic nerve (increased pressure behind the eye)

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16
Q

papilledema

A

clinical presentation of increased CSF around the optic nerve (blurred disc margins behind the eye)

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17
Q

why there is a discussion about the optic nerve being a CNS tract

A
  1. retina is part of CNS: it connects two parts of the CNS
  2. it is covered in meninges
  3. the fibres of the optic nerve are myelinated by oligodendrocytes
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18
Q

choroid

A

blood supply source to the retina
internal carotid artery –> ophthalmic artery –> posterior ciliary arteries –> choroid

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19
Q

central retinal artery

A

blood supply source to the retina

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20
Q

cornea

A

continuous with the sclera
transparent window of the eye that forms the anterior border
refraction (focusing light on the retina)

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21
Q

ciliary epithelium

A

produces aqueous humour and vitreous

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22
Q

anterior chamber

A

between the lens and cornea, filled with aqueous humour

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23
Q

vitreous

A

present at birth
fills space between retina and lens

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24
Q

ciliary muscles

A

connect to the lens by the zonules and adjust the refracting power of the lens

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25
Q

iris

A

borders the pupil

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26
Q

how to reduce or increase the diameter of the pupil

A

spincter and dilator muscles contract, respectively

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27
Q

retina is conserved across all vertibrates

A

true

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28
Q

path of information in the eye

A

rods and cones
horizontal cells
bipolar cells
amacrine cells
ganglion cells (form optic nerve)

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29
Q

outer plexiform layer

A

where rods and cones contact the dendrites of horizontal and bipolar cells

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30
Q

inner plexiform layer

A

where bipolar cells contact the dendrites of amacrine and ganglion cells

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31
Q

which segment of rods and cones is light-sensitive?

A

outer segments (has photopigment in the discs composed of opsin and retinaldehyde)

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32
Q

what happens when light hits retinal?

A

it changes conformation from 11-cis to all-trans

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33
Q

fovea

A

region of highest cone density for high acuity vision

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34
Q

macula

A

yellow pigment over the fovea to protect from UV and enhance light by filtering blue light

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35
Q

optic disc

A

where axons of retinal ganglion cells exit through the retina to form the optic nerve (blind spot)

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36
Q

why are foveal cones curved on their axons?

A

the axons must travel laterally to provide synaptic input to bipolar cells and horizontal cells

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37
Q

human rod threshold

A

starlight to sunset

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38
Q

human cone threshold

A

moonlight to sunny

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39
Q

rhodopsin

A

photopigment in human rods
498nm

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40
Q

photopsins

A

photopigment in human cones
420, 534, 564 nm

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41
Q

how is colour vision made possible?

A

differential stimulation of each cone by different wavelengths

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42
Q

ON center cells

A

response increases when the central part of the receptive field is brighter than the background

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43
Q

OFF center cells

A

response increases when the center is dimmer than the background

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44
Q

response of ON center cells to light in the center

A

bipolar cells are depolarized and ganglion cells increase their firing rate

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45
Q

response of OFF center cells to light in the center

A

bipolar cells are hyperpolarized and ganglion cells decrease their firing rate

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46
Q

role of horizontal cells in receptive fields

A

perform lateral inhibition on the synpase between the photoreceptors and bipolar cells
the indirect pathway

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47
Q

when does the retina signal the brain about light?

A

when there is a difference between the center and surround (contrast)

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48
Q

where do ganglion cells project to?

A

the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

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49
Q

parvocellular ganglion cells

A

smaller, numerous, associated with foveal cones, encode colour and form

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50
Q

magnocellular ganglion cells

A

larger, less numerous, present throughout the retina, sensitive to movement

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51
Q

nasal retinal ganglion cells project…

A

contralaterally and cross at the optic chiasma

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52
Q

temporal retina projects…

A

ipsilaterally

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53
Q

the right hemi-field of vision is represented on the ______ side of the brain

A

left

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54
Q

optic tract

A

fibres of ganglion cells axons after the optic chiasma

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55
Q

where do parvocellular and magnocellular ganglion cells project?

A

anatomically discrete layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus in the thalamus (some layers are crossed and some are uncrossed)

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56
Q

Meyer’s loop

A

fibres carrying the representation of the superior visual filed pass through the temporal lobe, looping around the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle

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57
Q

optic radiations

A

projects of the marvocellular and parvocellular ganglion cells to the primary visual cortex from the LGN

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58
Q

where do fibres of the inferior visual field project?

A

posteriorly through the parietal lobe
foveal goes most posterior

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59
Q

calcarine sulcus

A

separates lingual and cuenus gyri

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60
Q

lingual gyrus

A

inferior to calcarine sulcus
superior visual field

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61
Q

cuenus gyrus

A

superior to the calcarine sulcus
inferior visual field

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62
Q

striate cortex

A

primary visual cortex
the geniculocortical projections appear as thin white line (line of Gennari)

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63
Q

visual areas concerned with motion and locations (“where pathway”)

A

originates from magnocellular cells
dorsal pathway located in the parietal lobe

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64
Q

visual areas concerned with form and colour (“what pathway”)

A

originates from parvocellular cells
ventral pathway located in the temporal lobe

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65
Q

roles of retinal ganglion cells

A

pupillary light reflex
entrainment of daily rhythms
reflexive visually-guided eye and head movements

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66
Q

describe pupillary reflex

A

retinal ganglion cells project to pretectal area
pretectal area provided crossed and uncrossed projections to the nucleus of Edinger-Wesphal

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67
Q

damage to the right optic nerve effect on pupillary reflex

A

illumination of left eye still produces pupil constriction in both eyes
illumination of right eye has no effect on constriction

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68
Q

damage to right CN III effect on pupillary reflex

A

illumination of left eye produces constriction only in left eye
illumination of right eye produces constriction only in left eye

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69
Q

sympathetic innervation of iris

A

dilation
preganglionic (spinal cord)
postganglionic (superior cervical ganglia)
they then travel to iris along the ciliary nerves

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70
Q

parasympathetic innervation of the iris

A

constriction
preganglionic (nucleus of edinger westphal in midbrain)
contact postganglionic in ciliary ganglia by the CN III
then travel to iris along ciliary nerves

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71
Q

suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

A

in the hypothalamus, received input from retinal ganglion cells
contains a clock that is set by the daily light period

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72
Q

melanopsin

A

photopigment in unique retinal ganglion cells involved in the pupillary light reflex and inputs to the SCN
intrinsically photosensitive

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73
Q

superior colliculus and retinal ganglion cells

A

receives input from retinal ganglion cells that are sensitive to movement
about 10% of retinal ganglion cells
reflexive movements of eye and head in response to visual
output to motor neurons via the tectospinal tract

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74
Q

stapes is connected to…

A

the oval window

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75
Q

movement of the stapes causes…

A

propogation of waves down the cochlea

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76
Q

function of the middle ear

A

prevents loss of energy

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77
Q

bony labyrinth contains…

A

perilymph
membranous labyrinth
collection of endolymph-filled tubes and chambers

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78
Q

function of round window

A

allows movement of fluid within the cavity

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79
Q

basilar membrane

A

divides the middle ear cavity into the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani
forms an endolymph compartment called the scala media (cochlear duct)

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80
Q

organ of Corti

A

hair cells (on basilar membrane) that detect movement of the membrane and release glutamate onto dendrites of CN VIII neurons

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81
Q

tectorial membrane

A

where the outer hair cells attach

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82
Q

where do the inner hair cells attach?

A

they do not
are only part of basilar membrane

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83
Q

function of inner hair cells

A

sense movement of the basilar membrane which then activates transduction channel

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84
Q

lower sound frequencies resonate near the ____

A

apex of the basilar membrane

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85
Q

higher sound frequencies resonate near the ____

A

base of the basilar membrane

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86
Q

afferent projection from the cochlear arise from _____ and project to ______

A

inner hair cells
dendrites of the cochlear nerves

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87
Q

efferent projections to the cochlea are on the _____ and project from the _____

A

outer hair cells
superior olivary nucleus (pons)

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88
Q

cochlear amplification

A

outer hair cells are motile and add to the movement of the BM via the TM

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89
Q

describe the output from the cochlea

A

inner hair cells release glutamate that acts on cochlear ganglion dendrites which then project axons to the cochlear nuclei in the medulla

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90
Q

cochlear nuclei project to ….

A

inferior colliculus (midbrain) via the lateral lemniscus (ipsilateral and contralateral)
cross via the trapezoid body (pons)

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91
Q

auditory pathway in the brain

A

inferior colliculus
medial geniculate nucleus (thalamus)
primary auditory cortex in superior temporal gyrus

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92
Q

tonotopic organization

A

maintained through higher auditory areas in the cortex
high frequency medial auditory cortex
low frequency lateral auditory corytex

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93
Q

saccule and utricle

A

vestibular sacs filled with endolymph

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94
Q

maculae

A

patch of hair cells in the wall of the utricle and saccule

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95
Q

utricle

A

respond to horizontal movement
linear acceleration
not vertical acceleration

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96
Q

saccule

A

respond to movement in sagittal plane
not side to side movement

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97
Q

otolithic membrane

A

where hair cells in the utricle and saccule sit
moves when head changes position
these hair cells release glutatmate onto the dendrites of neurons

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98
Q

vestibular (Scarpa’s) ganglia

A

neurons that receive glutamate from vestibular hair cells in the otolithic membrane project here

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99
Q

anterior semicircular duct

A

rotation of the head around anterior-posterior axis (y)

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100
Q

posterior semicircular duct

A

rotation of the head in the sagittal plane (x)

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101
Q

lateral semicircular duct

A

rotation of the head around the vertical axis (z), neck rotation, spinning

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102
Q

cupula

A

within the ampulla
when endolymph moves, it moves which causes deformation of the hair cells

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103
Q

primary sensory neurons for the vestibular system are in ______ and project to the _____

A

vestibular (Scarpa’s) ganglia

vestibular nuclei

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104
Q

vestibular nuclei

A

superior (pons)
lateral (pons/medulla)
medial (medulla)
inferior (medulla)

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105
Q

conscious vestibular system pathway

A
  1. vestibular ganglion cells project to vestibular nuclei
  2. vestibular nuclei neurons project to the ventral posterior inferior nucleus (VPI) of thalamus
  3. thalamic neurons project to the vestibular cortex (posterior parietal, post-central gyrus)
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106
Q

vestibular pathway for coordination of eye movements

A

from superior and medial vestibular nuclei to CN III, IV and VI nuclei via the medial longitudinal fasciculus

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107
Q

vestibular pathway for body posture and balance

A

from lateral and medial vestibular nuclei spinal motor neurons via the lateral vestibulospinal tract

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108
Q

vestibular pathway for coordinating head movements with eye movement

A

from lateral and medial vestibular nucleus to cervical spinal cord via the medial longitudinal fasciculus

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109
Q

fungiform papillae

A

250 (3-5 taste buds each)
anterior 2/3 of tongue

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110
Q

foliate papillae

A

20 (100-150 taste buds each)
entire tongue

111
Q

circumvallate papillae

A

8-10 (250 taste buds each)
posterior 1/3 of tongue

112
Q

cranial nerve associated with the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

CN VII (facial)

113
Q

cranial nerve associated with posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

CN IX (glossopharyngeal)

114
Q

signals from taste buds in the epiglottis are carried to the brain via _____

A

CN X (vagus)

115
Q

signals from taste buds on the soft palate are carried to the brain via ____

A

CN VII (facial)

116
Q

filiform papillae

A

does not contain taste buds
somatosensation
anterior: CN V
posterior: CN IX
epiglottis: CN X

117
Q

how many taste cells per taste bud?

A

50-100

118
Q

taste receptors

A

each cell has a single type
located on apical microvilli
sensitive to one of the taste modalities
activation by taste leads to depolarization leading to ATP release

119
Q

soft palate and anterior tongue taste output

A

CN VII
geniculate ganglion

120
Q

posterior tongue taste output

A

CN IX
inferior ganglion of CN IX

121
Q

epiglottis taste output

A

CN X
inferior ganglion of CN X

122
Q

solitary nucleus in taste

A

all the taste output terminate here and travel in the solitary tract to reach the nucleus

123
Q

cortical projections of taste

A

superior solitary nucleus (2nd order) to the VPM of thalamus (3rd order) via the central tegmental
thalamic neurons project to the primary gustatory cortex

124
Q

location of the primary gustatory cortex

A

the insula and the frontal lobe operculum

125
Q

carotid body

A

chemoreceptors monitoring blood O2

126
Q

carotid sinus

A

mechanoreceptor monitoring blood pressure

127
Q

carotid body and sinus pathway

A

receptors are innervated by CN IX fibres with primary sensory neurons in the inferior ganglia of CN IX then to inferior solitary nucleus

128
Q

pathway of aortic bodies

A

receptors innervated by CN X fibres with primary sensory neurons in the inferior ganglia of CN X then to inferior solitary nucleus

129
Q

hypothalamus and the solitary nucleus

A

connections are made from solitary nucleus to the hypothalamus to mediate cardio and respiratory reflex responses

130
Q

olfactory receptor neurons

A

cilia are embedded in mucus where they collect the odorants
convert signals into action potentials

131
Q

how many different active odour receptors?

A

300

132
Q

single odorants can differentially activate multiple receptors

A

true

133
Q

olfactory receptor neuron projections

A

ORNs project axons through the cribriform plate of skull
ORN of same type converge on one glomerulus
synpase on mitral cells
projections from the olfactory bulb form the olfactory tract

134
Q

principal central projection pathway

A

lateral olfactory tract from the olfactory bulb to the primary olfactory cortex (temporal lobe)

135
Q

does the olfactory tract pass through the thalamus?

A

no
only sensory system that does not use the thalamus

136
Q

primary olfactory (piriform) cortex

A

part of the medial temporal lobe:
- anterior parhippocampal gyrus
-uncus
-periamygdaloi cortex

137
Q

pariamygdaloid cortex

A

a nucleus of the amygdaloid complex

138
Q

anterior olfactory nucleus

A

within olfactory tract. posterior to olfactory bulb
specific role uncertain

139
Q

targets of the olfactory area

A

orbital portions of the frontal lobe
(sometimes to thalamus first)

140
Q

orbital cortex

A

multiple modalities converge here as it is an integration area for all aspects of the gustatory experience (smell, taste, texture, appearance)

141
Q

motor system is modulated extensively by…

A

cerebellum and basal nuclei

142
Q

vermis

A

medial flank between cerebellar hemispheres

143
Q

primary fissure

A

divides anterior and posterior lobes of cerebellum
only visible from superior side

144
Q

white matter connecting cerebellum with the brainstem

A

superior, middle and inferior cerebellar peduncles

145
Q

nodulus

A

part of flocculonodular lobe that is visible at the midline of the vermis

146
Q

flocculus

A

part of flocculonodular lobe that emerges from the the posterolateral fissure

147
Q

area of CNS with most neurons

A

cerebellum (more than the rest of the CNS combined)

148
Q

cerebellar cortex

A

gray matter region of the cerebellum
molecular, Purkinje cell, granule cell, and white matter layers

149
Q

deep cerebellar nuclei

A

second gray matter region of the cerebellum
dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial nuclei
“don’t eat greasy foods”

150
Q

input to cerebellar cortex and nuclei

A

mostly mossy fibers

151
Q

cerebellar output pathway

A

cerebellar cortex –> Purkinje cells –> deep cerebellar nuclei and vestibular nuclei –> outputs

152
Q

vestibulocerebellum system

A

using direction of gravity and movement to participate in balance and eye movements

153
Q

spinocerebellum system

A

using proprioceptive information, modulates body and limb movements (posture and gait)

154
Q

pontocerebellum system

A

using information from the cerebral cortex, assist with planning and coordinating learned, complex, voluntary movements

155
Q

vestibulocerebellum pathway

A

-mossy fibers input from vestibular nuclei to flocculonodular lobe
-sometimes involvement of fastigial nucleus
-inferior cerebellar peduncle to vestibular nuclei
-output to eye muscles via medial longitudinal fasciculus
-or output to spinal cord via vestibulospinal tract

156
Q

spinocerebellum pathway

A

-mossy fibers input from spinal cord via spinocerebellar pathways to vermis
either
1. involvement of globose and emboliform nucleus via red nucleus and output to rubrospinal tract via SCP
2. involvement of fastigial nucleus via ICP to vestibular nucleus and output to vestibulospinal tract

157
Q

red nucleus

A

large nuclei in midbrain that is highly vascularized

158
Q

function of posterior spinocerebellar tract

A

lower limb muscle and tendon proprioceptors

159
Q

pathway of posterior spinocerebellar tract

A
  • primary sensory neurons in DRG
  • ascend in fasciculus gracilis and synapse in Clarke’s nucleus
  • ascend to caudal pons
  • enter cerebellum via ICP
160
Q

function of anterior spinocerebellar tract

A

tendon and cutaneous proprioception of lower limb

161
Q

pathway of anterior spinocerebellar tract

A
  • primary sensory neuron in DRG
  • synapse with spinal border cells in anterior horn fo spinal cord
  • axons cross via anterior white commissure
  • ascend to rostral pons
    enter cerebellum via SCP
  • cross back in cerebellum
162
Q

function of cuneocerebellar tract

A

upper limb muscle and tendon proprioception

163
Q

pathway of cuneocerebellar tract

A
  • primary sensory neuron in DRG
  • ascend in fasciculus cuneatus
  • synapse in lateral cuneate nucleus (medulla)
  • ascend to caudal pons
  • enter cerebellum via ICP
164
Q

pontocerebellum pathway

A
  • mossy fiber input from pontine nuclei to lateral hemisphere of cerebellum (MCP)
  • involvement of dentate nucleus
    output to either…
    1. inferior olive via SCP through red nucleus
    2. cerebral cortex via SCP through thalamus
165
Q

pathway of corticopontine fibers

A
  • arise in cerebrum and exit via internal capsule
  • enter brainstem via crus cerebri
  • innervate pontine nuclei
  • enter cerebellum via the MCP
166
Q

does cerebellum influence upper or motor neurons?

A

both

167
Q

climbing fibers

A
  • originate in inferior olivary nucleus in the medulla
  • olivocerebellar fibres cross and then enter the cerebellum via the ICP
  • project to entire cerebellar cortex
    diverse sources: spinal cord, red nucleus, cerebral cortex
168
Q

mossy fibers vs climbing fibers

A

mossy: immediate control of movements
climbing: error signals in motor performance for learning

169
Q

ataxia

A

lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements
lesion in cerebellum or inputs to cerebellum

170
Q

damage to vestibulocerebellum

A
  • damage to flocculonodular lobe
  • impairs balance and control of eye movement
  • cannot stay stable with eyes closed
171
Q

damage to spinocerebellum

A
  • damage to vermis
  • wide-based “drunken sailor” gait
  • uncertain starts and stops, unequal steps
172
Q

damage to pontocerebellum

A
  • damage to lateral hemispheres
  • impaired voluntary, planned movements by extremities
  • trembling in execution of voluntary movement
173
Q

primary function of basal ganglia

A

provide feedback mechanism to the cerebral cortex for initiation and control of motor responses

174
Q

increased output from the basal ganglia results in…

A

bradykinesia and akinesia
abnormal slowing and lack of movements

175
Q

decreased output from the basal ganglia results in…

A

dyskinesia
abnormal voluntary movements

176
Q

basal ganglia consists of…

A

caudate nucleus
putamen
globus pallidus
subthalamic nuclei
substantia nigra

177
Q

substantia nigra is made up of _________ neurons

A

dopaminergic

178
Q

cerebral cortex ______ basal ganglia which ______ thalamus which _______ cerebral cortex

A

activates/ inhibits/ activates

179
Q

excitatory neurotransmitters

A

glutamate
acetylcholine
dopamine
serotonin

180
Q

inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

GABA
glycine
dopamine
serotonin

181
Q

direct pathway of basal ganglia

A

activation increases cortical motor output, no subthalamus
- cortex (excite to) striatum (excite to) globus pallidus interna (inhibit to) thalamus (excite to) cortex

182
Q

indirect pathway of basal ganglia

A

activation decreases cortical motor output, uses subthalamus
cortex (excite to) striatum (inhibit to) globus pallidus externa (inhibit to) subthalamus (excite to) globus pallidus interna (inhibit to) thalamus (excite to) cortex

183
Q

D1 receptor of striatum

A

sends excitatory signals in response to dopamine

184
Q

D2 receptor of striatum

A

sends inhibitory signals in response to dopamine

185
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A
  • loss of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra
  • akinesia, bradykinesia, shuffling gait, loss of facial expression, increased muscle tone
186
Q

L-DOPA

A

treatment for Parkinson’s
systemic increase in dopamine which results in reduced appetite and decreased control of blood pressure

187
Q

deep brain stimulation

A

treatment for Parkinson’s
electrical stimulation of the subthalamic nucleus

188
Q

Huntington’s disease

A

wild, uncontrolled movements
autosomal dominant
degeneration of neostriatum

189
Q

diencephalon consists of…

A

thalamus
hypothalamus
pineal gland
subthalamus

190
Q

thalamus and hypothalamus are separated by the….

A

third ventricle

191
Q

pineal gland

A

endocrine gland that produces and releases melatonin during the night
influenced by the retina via the sympathetic nervous system

192
Q

interthalamic adhesion

A

connects two hemispheres of the thalamus
function unknown

193
Q

thalamus is divided into…

A

internal medullary lamina:
anterior
medial
lateral
intralaminar

194
Q

lateral group of the thalamus

A

dorsal and ventral tiers
all relay nuclei

195
Q

specific inputs of the thalamus

A

conveying information that a given thalamic nucleus may pass on to the cerebral cortex

196
Q

regulatory inputs of the thalamus

A

contribute to the decision about whether information will leave the thalamus and reach the cerebral cortex
(90-95% of the inputs to the thalamus)

197
Q

relay nuclei

A

receive input from defined sources and project to restricted areas of cerebral cortex (sensory, motor, or limbic)

198
Q

association nuclei

A

receive input from many sources, including other thalamic nuclei, project to multiple areas
integration and correlation

199
Q

non-specific nuclei

A

receive input from the brainstem reticular formation, output directed to widespread regions of the cerebral cortex

200
Q

VPL

A

sensory relay nuclei
from spinal cord

201
Q

VPM

A

sensory relay nucleus
from trigeminal and solitary nucleus

202
Q

LGN

A

sensory relay nucleus
from retina

203
Q

MGN

A

sensory relay nucleus
from inferior colliculus (auditory)

204
Q

VPI

A

sensory relay nucleus
from vestibular nuclei

205
Q

lateral geniculate body

A

within LGN
receives input from retina via optic tract
projects to primary visual cortex in calcarine sulcus

206
Q

medial geniculate body

A

within MGN
received input from auditory pathway from inferior colliculus
projects to primary auditory cortex in the superior temporal gyrus

207
Q

pathway of taste information

A

from solitary nucleus
central tegmental tract
thalamus (VPM)
primary gustatory area in the insula and inferior frontal gyrus

208
Q

ventral lateral nucleus is associated with….

A

cerebellum
relay nuclei

209
Q

ventral anterior nucleus is associated with…

A

basal ganglia
relay nuclei

210
Q

functions of hypothalamus

A

homeostatic mechanisms (hunger, thirst)
endocrine control
autonomic control
limbic mechanisms (emotions)

211
Q

4 regions of the hypothalamus

A

pre-optic
anterior (supraoptic)
middle (tuberal)
posterior (mammillary)

212
Q

suprachiasmic nucleus (SCN) function and location

A
  • in the hypothalamus
  • located in supraoptic and medial zone
  • master circadian clock
  • received input from retina and LGN
213
Q

output of SCN

A

other parts of the hypothalamus including the dorsomedial nucleus

214
Q

supraoptic nucleus produces…

A

vasopressin

215
Q

paraventricular nucleus produces…

A

oxytocin

216
Q

vasopressin

A

ADH
increases water absorption in the kidney

217
Q

oxytocin

A

peptide hormone that causes uterine and mammary gland contractions

218
Q

arcuate nucleus

A

produces growth hormone release hormone that stimulates the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary

219
Q

function of paraventricular, dorsomedial and posterior nuclei

A

involved in control of pre-ganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons

220
Q

hypothalamospinal tract

A

white matter that carries fibres from the hypothalamus to the spinal cord

221
Q

hypothalamonuclear tract

A

white matter that carries fibres from the hypothalamus to pre-ganglionic nuclei associated with CN III, VII, IX, X

222
Q

Horner’s syndrom

A
  • damage to the spinal cord that damages hypothalomospinal fibres
  • miosis (loss of sympathetics, constricted pupils)
  • ptosis (droopy eyelids)
  • anhidrosis (failure to sweat)
223
Q

mammillary nuclei

A

associated with the limbic system

224
Q

the limbic lobe contains…

A

cingulate gyrus and parahippocampal gyrus

225
Q

types of cells in neocortex

A

pyramidal (projection neurons)
non-pyramidal (local, interlaminar, projections)

226
Q

how many layers in neocortex?

A

6

227
Q

principal projections to neocortex

A
  • thalamus –> layer 4
  • other layers –> layers 1,2,4,5
  • brainstem —> all layers
228
Q

principal projections from the neocortex

A

layer 2 –> other layers
layer 3 –> opposite hemisphere
layer 5 –> subcortical structures
layer 6 –> thalamus

229
Q

agranular cortex

A

dominated by pyramidal cells
motor areas

230
Q

granular cortex

A

fewer pyramidal cells
sensory areas

231
Q

differences in cortical cytoarchitecture suggested anatomically distinct regions

A

Brodmann areas, but not functionally distinct

232
Q

4 types of regions in cerebral cortex

A
  1. primary motor or sensory cortex
  2. unimodal association cortex
  3. heteromodal association cortex
  4. limbic cortex
233
Q

primary motor cortex

A

pre-central gyrus

234
Q

primary somatosensory cortex

A

post-central gyrus

235
Q

primary visual cortex

A

calcarine sulcus

236
Q

primary auditory cortex

A

superior temporal gyrus

237
Q

primary gustatory cortex

A

insula and operculum

238
Q

premotor cortex

A

anterior to primary motor cortex
posterior portions of frontal gyri
prepare movement of the trunk

239
Q

supplementary motor cortex

A

located in medial surface of longitudinal fissure
involved in body postural stabilization and coordination

240
Q

somatosensory association cortex

A

in parietal lobe
posterior to primary somatosensory area
involved in further processing of information

241
Q

unimodal association cortex function

A

associated with language

242
Q

location of Broca’s area

A

the dominant side of brain
opercular and triangular parts of the inferior frontal gyrus

243
Q

function of Broca’s area

A

important for production of written and spoken language

244
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

language production deficits

245
Q

location of Wernicke’s area

A

posterior section of the superior temporal gyrus

246
Q

function of Wernicke’s area

A

language comprehension

247
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

impairment in language comprehension

248
Q

fluent aphasia

A

language is meaningless but follows natural rhythm

249
Q

herteromodal association cortex

A

higher order processing for multiple sensory/ motor modalities

250
Q

prefrontal association cortex

A

in frontal gyri
involved with attention, working memory, self control, ordering events, planning motor activities

251
Q

damage to prefrontal association cortex

A

ex: Phineas Gage
his behaviour was drastically altered permanently

252
Q

white matter of cerebrum

A

centrum semiovale
corpus callosum
anterior commissure
internal capsule

253
Q

centrum semiovale function

A

contains projection, commissural, and association fibres

254
Q

centrum semiovale location

A

superior to the lateral ventricles in both hemispheres

255
Q

association fibres

A

axons that connect cortical areas within the same cerebral hemisphere

256
Q

corpus callosum function

A

connects the left and right cerebral hemisphere
enables communication between hemispheres

257
Q

anterior commissure function

A

connects temporal lobes (olfactory structures)

258
Q

corona radiata

A

continuation of projection fibres from centrum semiovale and connects with internal capsule

259
Q

internal capsule

A

bundle of white matter that connects the cerebral cortex with lower CNS regions
both ascending and descending axons

260
Q

location of internal capsule

A

in between basal nuclei and thalamus

261
Q

internal capsule is supplied by ______ artery

A

middle cerebral

262
Q

archicortex

A

hippocampal formation
hippocampus, dentate nucleus, subiculum, parahippocampal gyrus

263
Q

the _______ is an inward fold of the medial temporal lobe

A

hippocampus

264
Q

alveus

A

associated with the hippocampus
formed by pyramidal cell axons

265
Q

the _____ begins the efferent pathway of the hippocampal formation

A

fimbria

266
Q

fornix

A

white matter that passes superiorly and then anteriorly over the thalamus
continuation of the fimbria

267
Q

mammillary bodies

A

continuation of the fornix

268
Q

circuit of papez

A

hippocampus
fornix
mammillary bodies
mammillothalamic tract
anterior thalamic nucleus
cingulate gyrus
entorhinal cortex

269
Q

damage to hippocampus, fornix, or mammillary bodies results in…

A

memory loss and inability to consolidate short term to long term memory

270
Q

case of HM

A

had a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy (hippocampus removed) that resulted in the inability to form new memories

271
Q

location of amygdala

A

medial temporal lobe
anterior to the tail of the caudate nucleus
imbedded in white matter

272
Q

function of amygdala

A

processing memory, decision-making, emotional reactions

273
Q
A

Neuroanatomy (2 decks)

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