Section 2 Administrative Medical Assisting Flashcards

1
Q

What is any condition that could affect the health or safety of an employee, either immediately or through long-term exposure called?

A

Workplace hazard

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2
Q

What is any event that can cause injury or damage to a group of people called?

A

Disaster

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3
Q

What type of waste material has the potential to carry disease?

A

Biological

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4
Q

What type of waste contains substances such as germicides, cleaning solvents, and pharmaceuticals?

A

Chemical

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5
Q

What type of waste contains or is contaminated with liquid or solid radioactive material

A

Radioactive

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6
Q

What applies scientific information and data regarding human body mechanics to the design of objects and overall environments for human use.

A

Ergonomics

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7
Q

What is coordination of body alignment, balance, and movement called

A

Proper body mechanics

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8
Q

What is any accident, medical error, or unusual occurrence called?

A

An incident

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9
Q

What is a preventable negative effect of care called?

A

A medical error

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10
Q

What is the process of gathering and evaluating information about the services provided and comparing this information with an accepted standard referred to as a benchmark called?

A

Quality assurance (QA)

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11
Q

What is illegally obtaining and using another persons personal identifiying information, usually for financial gain, called?

A

Identity theft

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12
Q

What is using stolen personal information to obtain medical goods and services called?

A

Medical Identity Theft

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13
Q

What are patients who do not keep their appointment and do not call to reschedule called?

A

No-shows

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14
Q

What codes are services provided?

A

CPT codes

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15
Q

What codes are for diagnoses?

A

ICD-10-CM codes

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16
Q

What are the purposes of closing procedures?

A

Ensure security of premises and to prepare in advance for the next day

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17
Q

What is the time span each day that a medical office is open for business called?

A

Office hours

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18
Q

What is the length in time the average patient spends in the medical office called?

A

Cycle time

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19
Q

What is a benefit of specified time scheduling?

A

It helps prevent a large backlog of waiting patients

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20
Q

What is the drawback of specified time scheduling?

A

Some patients might not provide enough information about their medical problems to schedule an appropriate appointment length

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21
Q

What scheduling type has all patients told to come in at the beginning of the hour and are seen in the order in which they arrive?

A

Wave scheduling

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22
Q

What is the grid that shows the availability of each physician, as well as periods if time that are not available for appointments called?

A

The appointment matrix

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23
Q

What are illnesses or injuries patients suddenly experience and require treatment but may not be life threatening called?

A

Acute conditions

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24
Q

What is sorting or grouping patients according to seriousness or their condition called?

A

Triage

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25
Q

What is the EHR?

A

The electronic health record

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26
Q

What is the AHRQ

A

The agency for healthcare research and quality

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27
Q

What is the ONC

A

The office for the national coordination for health information technology

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28
Q

When was HITECH passed?

A

2009

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29
Q

What is HITECH

A

The health information technology for economic and clinical health

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30
Q

What does the EHR do?

A

It manages medical records of patients and can network with offices of other providers to share information

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31
Q

What does practice management system (PMS) do?

A

It manages administrative functions

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32
Q

What does “if it wasn’t documented it, wasnt done” refer to?

A

The medical record

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33
Q

What does SOAP mean

A

Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan

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34
Q

What does SOMR mean

A

Source-Oriented Medical Record

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35
Q

What record pertains to patients who have been seem within the past three years and are currently being treated?

A

Active records

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36
Q

What record pertains to patients who have not been seen within the past three years or time period determined by office policy?

A

Inactive records

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37
Q

What record pertains to patients who have actively terminated their contract with the physician

A

Closed records

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38
Q

What are the three file storage types

A

Vertical, Lateral, Movable

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39
Q

What is designed to meet special needs and may be color coded

A

File folders

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40
Q

What is used to separate files in drawers or shelves?

A

Divider guides

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41
Q

What are placards that indicate a file has been removed called?

A

Out-guides

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42
Q

What identifies what is in the file and are used as special alerts?

A

Labels

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43
Q

What are commonly used filing systems?

A

Alphabetic, Numeric, and Subject matter

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44
Q

What is the process of gathering and organizing information called?

A

Collating

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45
Q

When did hospital insurance coverage begin and what was it known as?

A

1929, Blue cross plan

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46
Q

When did insurance begin as disability income insurance?

A

In the mid-1800s

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47
Q

When did insurance companies issue first individual disability and illness policies?

A

Around 1890

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48
Q

Who was the first group policy giving comprehensive benefits offered by and when

A

Massachusetts health insurance of Boston, 1847

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49
Q

When did employee benefit plans become popular?

A

In the 1940s and 1950s

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50
Q

When did government programs begin to cover healthcare costs?

A

The 1950s and 1960s

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51
Q

When did the federal government enact medicare and medicaid?

A

1965

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52
Q

What federal program is designed for older adults?

A

Medicare

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53
Q

What federal program is targeted to low-income families

A

Medicaid

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54
Q

What allowed the use of federal funds and policy to promote health maintenance organizations, which provide managed care to patients?

A

HMO act of 1973

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55
Q

When were diagnosis related groups implemented by medicare to help control spending

A

1980s

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56
Q

When were most Americans with health insurance in managed care plans?

A

The mid-1990s

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57
Q

When was it when individuals and companies paid for about half the health care received in United States; government paid for other half through Medicare, Medicaid, other programs

A

1995

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58
Q

Estimated how many americans have no health insurance?

A

31 million

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59
Q

About what percent of americans have health insurance through employee-sponsored plans?

A

About 60%

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60
Q

When did congress pass the patient protection and affordable care act?

A

2010

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61
Q

What is the person who owns the insurance policy known as?

A

Member, subscriber, insured, or policyholder

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62
Q

What is the process to determine patients eligibility called?

A

Verification of benefits

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63
Q

What does, patient is qualified to recieved benefits under policy provisions, called?

A

Eligibility

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64
Q

What are family members covered under an insurance policy called?

A

Dependants

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65
Q

What is the amount the policyholder pays to the insurance carrier to purchase a commercial health insurance policy called?

A

Premium

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66
Q

What is the health care providers list of charges for each service they provide called?

A

The fee schedule

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67
Q

What are fee schedules currently organized by?

A

Type of service and current procedural terminology CPT code

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68
Q

What is the charge on providers fee schedule called?

A

Usual charge

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69
Q

What is the amount that insurance companies consider to be appropriate fee?

A

Allowed amount

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70
Q

What is the amount patients must pay to provider for health care services before health insurance benefits begin to pay?

A

Deductible

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71
Q

What are the fixed dollar amounts that patients pay at time of service called?

A

Copayments

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72
Q

What is the fixed percentage of charges that patients pay called?

A

Coinsurance

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73
Q

What is a form that patients sign when medical offices bill their insurance that authorized insurance companies to pay benefits directly to provider called?

A

The assignment of benifits

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74
Q

What does any condition a patient was diagnosed with or treated for before beginning coverage with a new insurance plan refer to?

A

Preexisting conditions

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75
Q

What does a claim that was processed and found to be ineligible for payment refer to?

A

A denied claim

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76
Q

What type of HMO has providers that treat both HMO patients and non-HMO patients?

A

Open-panel HMO

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77
Q

What type of HMO has physicians who see only patients of a specific HMO?

A

Closed-panel HMO

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78
Q

What is a HMO?

A

A health maintenance organization

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79
Q

What are PPOs

A

Preferred provider organizations

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80
Q

Three major sources of private health insurance

A

Group health plans, self insured, individual insurance

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81
Q

What is coverage for employees who have been covered under group insurance and leave emplyment called

A

COBRA coverage

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82
Q

When did the Health Insurance Exchange start?

A

2014

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83
Q

What government insurance is for active duty and retired service personnel and their families?

A

TRICARE

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84
Q

What government insurance is for veterans with service-related disabilities?

A

CHAMPVA

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85
Q

What is coverage for employees for job-related injuries called?

A

Workers compensation

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86
Q

What payes for injuries sustained because of an automobile accident?

A

Automobile personal injury protection (PIP)

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87
Q

What is part A of medicare coverage

A

Part A : hospital insurance

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88
Q

What is part B of medicare coverage

A

Part B : Provider coverage

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89
Q

What is part C of medicare coverage?

A

Part C : medicare advantage

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90
Q

What is part D of medicare coverage?

A

Part D : prescription drug

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91
Q

What suppliments medicare coverage to fill “gaps” in part A and part B coverage?

A

Medigap (MG) plans

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92
Q

What does “Locum Tenes” mean?

A

Latin for place holder

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93
Q

What type of workers compensation claim is because a worker was injured and treated by physician, but no time was lost from work?

A

A nondisability (ND) claim

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94
Q

What type of workers compensation claim is because a worker is able to return to previous or modified work at a later time?

A

Temporary disability (TD) claim

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95
Q

What workers compensation claim is because no further improvement is expected and worker is unable to return to work?

A

Permanent disability (PD) claim

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96
Q

What entitles eligible employees of covered employers to take unpaid leave for specified family and medical reasons?

A

Family medical leave act (FMLA)

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97
Q

In the situation where spouses or partners are covered by eachothers policy, who is the primary and who is the secondary policy?

A

Primary: patients policy
Secondary: spouse or partners policy

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98
Q

In the situation where children are covered by policies of both parents, married, who is the primary and who is the secondary policy?

A

Primary: policy of older parent
Secondary: policy of younger parent

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99
Q

In the situation where children are covered by policies of both parents, married, who share the same birthday, which policy is primary and which is secondary?

A

Primary: policy in force longer
Secondary: policy in force for less time

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100
Q

In the situation where children are covered by policies of two biological parents and one stepparent, who is the primary and secondary policy?

A

Primary: custodial parent
Secondary: stepparents policy
Tertiary: noncustodial parents policy

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101
Q

What is a NPI

A

National Provider Identifier

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102
Q

What is the uniform billing format used for medical claims?

A

CMS-1500 claim form

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103
Q

What is the standard form for dental claims?

A

The American dental association standard form (ADA)

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104
Q

What are the two major sections of the CMS-1500 claim form

A

Patient and insured information
(Items 1-13)
Physician or supplier information
(Items 14-33)

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105
Q

What are items 1-13 on the CMS-1500 claim form

A

Patient and insured information

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106
Q

What are items 14-33 on the CMS-1500 claim form

A

Physician or supplier information

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107
Q

Who maintains and updates the CMA-1500 form?

A

The national uniform claim committee (NUCC)

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108
Q

When was the most recent form of the CMS-1500 claim form effective?

A

April 2014

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109
Q

What is the standard format for electronic claims?

A

837P

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110
Q

What form is used by inpatient hospitals?

A

UB-04 claim form (837I)

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111
Q

What are boxes 1-41 for in a UB-04 claim form?

A

Patient information

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112
Q

What are boxes 42-49 for in a UB-04 claim form?

A

Billing information

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113
Q

What are boxes 50-65 for in a UB-04 claim form?

A

Payer information

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114
Q

What are boxes 66-81 for in a UB-04 claim form?

A

Diagnosis and procedure information

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115
Q

Under ________, all routine and sick care is paid out-of-pocket.

A

Catastrophic care

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116
Q

________ is a real-time, moving X-ray image, usually viewed on a monitor.

A

Fluoroscopy

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117
Q

________ codes identify billable services provided to patients.

A

Procedure

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118
Q

When coding a patient’s diagnosis, medical assistants should use the version of ICD-10-CM that ________.

A

Was in affect on the patients date of service

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119
Q

Historically, diagnosis coding was used to track the ________.

A

Study of disease and cause of death

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120
Q

ICDA-8 was published for clinicians in ________?

A

1965

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121
Q

Everything that is done during a patient’s medical visit, ordered over the telephone, or discussed with a patient over the phone or e-mail must be ________?

A

Documented

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122
Q

Which factor prevents diagnosis coding from being performed at the highest level of certainty?

A

The medical record is incomplete or inaccurate

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123
Q

Coding of procedures and diagnoses must be supported by the ________ in the patient record.

A

Documentation

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124
Q

Category ________ codes help in collecting data and tracking performance.

A

II

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125
Q

Health care providers must establish a fee schedule, which lists their charge for each service they provide and is usually organized by ________.

A

CPT code

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126
Q

The ICD-10-CM coding manual contains over ________ codes.

A

70,000

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127
Q

Which is the most restrictive type of health care plan?

A

HMO

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128
Q

The ________ plan should include the physician’s statement of what is wrong with the patient, the plan to care for the problem, and options presented to the patient, as well as any instructions given to the patient.

A

Diagnosis and treatment

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129
Q

Supplemental insurance for an Alzheimer’s patient would be which type of coverage?

A

Disease-specific

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130
Q

In the Tabular List, the ________ code, or parent code, has a description written on the left and starts with a capital letter.

A

Standalone

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131
Q

Non-fraudulent billing practices are called ________.

A

Abuse

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132
Q

CPT codes do not have a decimal point, and the description is found ________.

A

To the right

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133
Q

The ________ mandates the approved code sets for all covered entities, such as a medical office, which handle claims related to health care services.

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

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134
Q

________ is illegal and can cause denial of claims and fines.

A

Unbundling

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135
Q

CPT codes are divided into three categories under the _______?

A

Tabular list

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136
Q

________ are organizations that pay for health care services on behalf of the patient.

A

Third party payers

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137
Q

The ________ section of the POMR contains information about physical examinations, the patient history, and the results of baseline laboratory or diagnostic procedures.

A

Database

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138
Q

In ________, Congress passed legislation that made financial incentives available for EHR implementation.

A

2009

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139
Q

________ cabinets are used to file documents such as patient records, tax records, insurance policies, and canceled checks.

A

Fireproof

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140
Q

The main reason for the services provided is known as the ________ diagnosis.

A

First-listed

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141
Q

Disease-specific assessments can be found in which category?

A

Category II

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142
Q

How are foreign names indexed in alphabetic filing?

A

Indexed as one unit

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143
Q

________ coding refers to reporting several codes to fully describe a condition.

A

Multiple

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144
Q

To obtain precertification for a patient to receive a prescribed procedure, the medical assistant contacts the ________.

A

Patients insurance carrier

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145
Q

________ codes describe services performed for patients.

A

Procedure

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146
Q

Process of assigning alphanumeric characters to represent diagnoses, procedures, and services a physician provides to patients

A

Medical coding

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147
Q

a diagnosis accompanied by a term such as possible, probable, suspected, rule out, or working diagnosis; also called a qualified diagnosis

A

Uncertain diagnosis

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148
Q

Within an ICD-10-CL manual, a level of code numbers having a three-character entry ________

A

Category

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149
Q

In an ICD-10-CM manual, a table within the index listing external causes of diseases and injuries; follows the table of drugs and chemicals in most manuals

A

Index to external causes

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150
Q

Within an ICD-10-CM manual, a level of code numbers having a four- or five- character entry

A

Subcategory

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151
Q

Internal classification of diseases, tenth revision, clinical modification

A

ICD-10-CM

152
Q

Process of assigning alphanumeric characters to the procedures and services a physician provides to patients

A

Procedure coding

153
Q

Cause or source of a disease or disorder

A

Etiology

154
Q

Process of assigning alphanumeric characters to the reasons for the procedures and services a physician provides to a patient

A

Diagnosis coding

155
Q

To _____ a code by consulting the tabular list to read detailed code descriptions, conventions, and instructional notes and assign additional specificity

A

Verify

156
Q

An index of poisonings, adverse effects, and underdosing located at the end of the index in most manuals

A

Table of drugs and chemicals

157
Q

Numeric list of diseases and injuries, reasons for encounters, and external causes; provides additional instructors on how to use, assign, and sequence codes

A

Tabular list

158
Q

Specialized rules, abbreviations, formatting, and symbols that alert users to important information

A

Conventions

159
Q

Terms listed under an alphabetically listed main term in the index to diseases and injuries

A

Subterms

160
Q

Following the rules established by government agencies

A

Compliance

161
Q

A division having a boldfaced or highlighted heading within one of the 21 chapters in the tabular list

A

Sections

162
Q

The reason chiefly responsible for the services provided; formerly known as the primary diagnosis

A

First-listed diagnosis

163
Q

One of the 21 sublistings in the tabular list, based on etiology or body system

A

Chapters

164
Q

Alphabetical list of conditions, diseases and reasons for seeking medical care

A

Index to diseases and injuries

165
Q

A term listed alphabetically in the index to diseases and injuries

A

Main term

166
Q

Office in the US department of health that is responsible for investigating medicare fraud

A

Office of the inspector geneal

167
Q

In diagnosis coding, reporting several codes to fully describe a condition

A

Multiple coding

168
Q

Mistakenly accepting payment for items that should not be paid as a result of improper codin and billing practices

A

Abuse

169
Q

A code that identifies various manifestations of a condition such as diabetes or two conditions that commonly occur together

A

Combination code

170
Q

A list of neoplasms located under “N” in the alphabetic index

A

Table of neoplasms

171
Q

Knowingly billing for services that were never given or billing for a service that has a higher reimbursement than the service actually provided

A

Fraud

172
Q

Rules for how to code selected conditions and rules for how to identify which diagnoses should be reported on a claim for any given patient

A

Official guidelines for coding and reporting

173
Q

The most specific level of code, requiring no additional characters

A

Code

174
Q

When did french physician Jacques Bertillon creates the Bertillon Classification of Causes of Death

A

1893

175
Q

When did the American public health association adopt the Bertillon classification

A

1898

176
Q

When did APHA publishe the first coding manual, called the International Classification of Diseases (ICD), Volume I

A

1901

177
Q

When did the APHA start publishing updates to ICD approximately every 10 years

A

1910

178
Q

When did the world health organization (WHO) take responsibility for maintaining and publishing updates to what has become ICD-6

A

1948

179
Q

When did WHO publish ICD-9 and the US publish an adapted version (ICD-9-CM), US required clinicians to report ICD-9-CM to receive reimbursement for medicare and madicade

A

1979

180
Q

When did WHO publish ICD-10

A

1994

181
Q

When did the US implement ICD-10-CM/PCS

A

October 1, 2015

182
Q

When did ICD-11 come into effect? (Not in the United States)

A

2022

183
Q

What is the number of codes in
ICD-11–CM

A

55000

184
Q

What is the code length of ICD-11-CM?

A

Minimum of 4 characters in length

185
Q

What is the code length of ICD-10-CM?

A

3 to 7 characters

186
Q

What ICD has a code structure where chapter numbering is Arabic numbers not roman numerals?

A

ICD-11-CM

187
Q

Which ICD has a code structures that is a 3 character category 4th, 5th, 6th characters for etiology, anatomic site, severity 7th character used for additional information

A

ICD-10-CM

188
Q

What is the first character in ICD-11-CM

A

Always relates to the chapter number
1-Z

189
Q

What is the first character in ICD-10-CM?

A

Always alphabetic

190
Q

What are the subsequent characters in ICD-11-CM?

A

2nd character is always a letter to distinguish from ICD-10 codes

191
Q

What are the subsequent characters in ICD-10-CM?

A

2nd character is always numeric; all others can be alphanumeric

192
Q

Where is there the decimal point in ICD-11-CM?

A

Mandatory after the 4th character

193
Q

Where is there a decimal point in
ICD-10-CM?

A

Mandatory after 3rd character on all codes

194
Q

What are the placeholders in ICD-11-CM?

A

There are none

195
Q

What are the placeholders in ICD-10-CM?

A

Character “X” is used as a placeholder in certain 6- and 7- character codes

196
Q

What are indications of a condition that a physician can observe or measure?

A

Signs

197
Q

What are indicators reported by patients that physician cannot observe or measure?

A

Symptoms

198
Q

Designation of a patient as a new patient or an established patient

A

Patient status

199
Q

(H, Hx) in procedure coding a key component that describes the background, onset, and progression of the patients current condition

A

History

200
Q

A division having a boldfaced or highlighted heading within one of the 21 chapter in the tabular list

A

Sections

201
Q

In procedure coding, Indication of the amount of time the physician typically spends with the patient or family

A

Face-to-face time

202
Q

Actions directed at, or performed on, and individual to improve health or treat a disease or injury

A

Procedures

203
Q

Billing service at a higher level than was actually provided

A

Upcoding

204
Q

The process of establishing the medical need for medical services

A

Medical necessity

205
Q

In a coding manual, because of the expanding nature of the code set, some codes are not in strict numerical order; such codes are considered ___________ and are highlighted with the symbol # as an aid to identification

A

Resequenced codes

206
Q

In procedure coding, specific coding and billing criteria that are checked for accuracy based on predetermined rules

A

Edits

207
Q

in the hierarchy of a coding manual, the Tabular list is divided into sections, then subsections, then __________ under the subsections; categories and subcategories are grouped under the _________

A

Subheadings

208
Q

(CPT) code book for procedures and services performed by providers
What does CPT stand for?

A

Current procedural terminology

209
Q

in procedure coding, notes that appear in parentheses and direct the user to alternative codes for closely related procedures or to codes that must or must not be used together

A

Instructional notes

210
Q

in procedure coding, a contributing factor that involves the provider’s discussion with the patient and family regarding the patient’s diagnosis, test results, impressions, prognosis, treatment options, and management of the condition

A

Counseling

211
Q

——> (E&M) <——
codes for services such as office visits, consultations, the physician’s component for emergency services, and inpatient care

A

Evaluation and management

212
Q

in a coding manual, the code whose description is left-justified and begins with the capital letter; also called parent code

A

Standalone code

213
Q

services provided to patients on a walk-in basis when no overnight stay is required

A

Outpatient

214
Q

in procedure coding conventions, the description indented three spaces that is the unique descriptor for a code number

A

Indented code

215
Q

in procedure coding, a code added to a primary procedure code to indicate a related procedure; only the few codes listed in the instructional codes may be use as add-on codes

A

Add-on codes

216
Q

two-digit code preceded by a hyphen that clarifies the procedure (e.g., a procedure that was done on both arms instead of only one)

A

Modifiers

217
Q

Reexamine for accuracy

A

Audit

218
Q

in procedure coding, a contributing factor, the primary reason the patient is seeing the provider

A

Presenting problem

219
Q

directions within each section of a coding manual describing specific rules and definitions for codes within a particular category or subcategory

A

Special instructions

220
Q

in procedure coding, a single code that indicates multiple services that are listed as included or not separately reportable

A

Bundling

221
Q

(RVU) measure of value used in determining Medicare reimbursement formulas, including the difficulty level of the work involved, office overhead expenses, and malpractice risk for the given service or procedure

A

Relative value unit

222
Q

in coding for radiology, the performance of the imaging is the technical component, the review and analysis of the results by a qualified physician is the ____________

A

Professional component

223
Q

(CMS) the federal agency that administers the Medicare program and works with state governments to administer Medicaid programs

A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid services

224
Q

(MDM) in procedure coding, a key component that describes the complexity of establishing a diagnosis and/or selecting a management option

A

Medical decision making

225
Q

in the Current Procedure Terminology (CPT®) manual, the instructions that appear at the beginning of each section and apply to all codes in that section

A

Guidelines

226
Q

in coding for radiology, the performance of the imaging is the ___________, the review and analysis of the results by a qualified physician is the professional component

A

Technical component

227
Q

in procedure coding, coding for a lower level of service that was actually provided

A

Downcoding

228
Q

in a coding manual, the code whose description is left-justified and begins with the capital letter

A

Parent code

229
Q

(E, Ex) in procedure coding, describes the complexity of the physical assessment of the patient

A

Examination

230
Q

in the ICD-10-CM manual, alphabetical list of diseases and injuries; in the CPT manual a list of procedures and services alphabetically by Main Term and modifying terms

A

Index

231
Q

in the hierarchy of a coding manual, the Tabular list is divided into sections, then ___________; subheadings, categories, and subcategories are grouped under the ___________

A

Subsections

232
Q

(;) the portion of a procedure description that is shared by more than one indented code appears before a semicolon, followed by the indented codes that would include the portion before the semicolon

A

Semicolon

233
Q

in procedure coding a contributing factor that involves working with other providers or agencies to provide the patient needed care, such as referral to home health care

A

Coordination of care

234
Q

(HCPCS) a set of codes developed and maintained by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) for the reporting of professional services, nonphysician services, supplies, durable medical equipment, and injectable drugs

A

Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System

235
Q

all Current Procedure Terminology (CPT00) codes include the ___________ that includes specific services in addition to the surgery itself that cannot be billed separately, such as preparing the patient for surgery and evaluating the patient in the recovery area and any typical postoperative follow-up; also called global surgical concept

A

Surgical package

236
Q

in Common Procedure Terminology (CPT®), the portion of the code before the semicolon that is shared by the subsequent indented codes

A

Common descriptor

237
Q

in Current Procedural Terminology (CPT®), factors that may contribute to the Evaluation and Management key components: counseling, coordination of care, and presenting problem

A

Contributing factors

238
Q

billing separately for related procedures that were performed together and, by law, must be billed as one charge; unbundling is considered fraud

A

Unbundling

239
Q

in the Current Procedure Terminology (CPT®) manual, descriptive words indented under a Main Term in the Index to further describe the service or procedure

A

Modifying terms

240
Q

in procedure coding one of the three categories of criteria used for code selection: history (H/HX), examination (E), and medical decision making (MDM)

A

Key components

241
Q

What do level one codes cover

A

Professional services

242
Q

in procedure coding the number of days surrounding a surgical procedure during which all services relating to that procedure were performed

A

Global period

243
Q

When did the AMA develop and publish the first edition of CPT

A

1966

244
Q

When was the second edition of CPT published

A

1970

245
Q

When was the fourth edition adopted

A

1977 (still in use today)

246
Q

When did the federal government adopt CPT as part of its healthcare common procedure coding system (HCPCS)

A

1983

247
Q

When were state medicaid agencies required to use HCPCS

A

1986

248
Q

When did HFCA mandate that CPT be used to report outpatient hospital surgical procedures?

A

1987

249
Q

When did the passage of HIPAA required uniform standards be established for electronic transactions

A

1996

250
Q

When was CPT mandated procedure code set for covered entities for physician services and most other types of outpatient claims

A

2003

251
Q

What claim form must CPT codes be used on?

A

CMS-1500, (837P)

252
Q

What is the electronic equivalent to the CMS-1500 claim form?

A

837P

253
Q

How many procedure codes does CPT list?

A

Over 9000

254
Q

What are category 3 codes in the CPT manual?

A

Emerging technology, services, procedures

255
Q

What is appendix a in the CPT manual?

A

Modifiers

256
Q

What is appendix B in the CPT manual?

A

Summary of additions deletions, and revisions

257
Q

What is appendix C in the CPT manual?

A

Clinical examples

258
Q

What does minimal diagnoses, minimal complexity, minimal risk of complications mean in medical decision making?

A

Straightforward

259
Q

What does Limited diagnoses, limited complexity, low risk ofcomplications mean in medical decision making?

A

Low complexity

260
Q

What does Multiple diagnoses, moderate complexity, moderate risk of complications mean in medical decision making

A

Moderate complexity

261
Q

What does Extensive diagnoses, extensive complexity, high risk of complications mean in medical decision making?

A

High complexity

262
Q

Quantitative tests for the amount of a substance contained in a specimen

A

Chemistry

263
Q

Tests that identify the presence and type of microorganisms in a specimen

A

Microbiology

264
Q

Blood tests to determine cell counts of various types of blood cells

A

Hematology

265
Q

Who does tests on antigens, allergens, or antibodies

A

Immunology

266
Q

The microscopic examination of cells from anywhere in the body to detect conditions and determine if neoplasms are benign or malignant

A

Cytopathology

267
Q

The visual examination of body structures or tissue, with or without a microscope

A

Pathology

268
Q

not in arrears; accounts receivable that are less than 30 days old

A

Current

269
Q

the average number of days that money has been owed to the practice, calculated by dividing the total accounts receivable (AR) dollar amount by the average daily revenue of the practice

A

Days in AR

270
Q

receipt of money that decreases the account balance; in accounting referred to as credit

A

Payment

271
Q

a procedure that helps ensure all financial matters are handled properly and that discourages unethical workers from stealing, for example numbered receipts

A

Internal control

272
Q

system in which approximately 25 percent of patient accounts are billed each week

A

Cycle billing

273
Q

used to list or post each day’s financial transactions: charges, payments, adjustments, and credits

A

Day sheet

274
Q

functions of the accounting department related to recording charges and payments for services provided to patients

A

Patient accounting

275
Q

maximum time period set by federal and state governments during which certain legal actions, such as a patient filing a lawsuit, can be brought forward

A

Statute of limitations

276
Q

a chronological record of the charges, adjustments, payments, and current balance for a specific patient

A

Ledger card

277
Q

investigate the reason for denial of payment by an insurance carrier

A

Trace

278
Q

amount of a charge that is above the maximum allowable fee

A

Disallowance

279
Q

statements on an insurance carrier’s explanation of benefits identifying reasons for payment adjustments and denials

A

Reason codes

280
Q

in a practice management system, computer identification of who accessed the system, what information was accessed, and when it was accessed

A

User log

281
Q

an outside company that specializes in collection payment for unpaid bills

A

Collection agency

282
Q

the monetary cost for services or supplies that increases the account balance; also called a charge; charge against an account

A

Debit

283
Q

form that must clearly state the amount financed, the finance charge, and the total of the payments and that protects the consumer from loan-related fraud or deceit

A

Truth in lending form

284
Q

(PC) consideration extended by a physician not to charge other physicians, staff, family members, or clergy

A

Professional courtesy

285
Q

amount of money a patient owes

A

Account balance

286
Q

a charge made to a customer who does not pay bills on time

A

Late fee

287
Q

inability of a patient to pay

A

Financial hardship

288
Q

amount owed and not collectable

A

Bad debt

289
Q

(RA) statement from an insurance carrier that accompanies a check sent to a health care provider listing the name of the patient, the name of the insured, the date of service, the amount billed, the amount allowed, the amount paid, and the amount the provider may bill the patient

A

Remittance advice

290
Q

a free-form note that some computer systems allow in which more detailed information can be entered than can be entered in the description field; may be used, for example, when posting adjustments to an account

A

Account note

291
Q

(PMS) comprehensive software program that manages administrative and business functions of a medical practice, such as patient registration, billing and coding, and insurance payment postings

A

Practice management system

292
Q

bill sent to a patient

A

Patient statements

293
Q

for patients without health insurance, a discount offered to those who pay in full at the time of service

A

Cash discount

294
Q

(AR) money owed to a business by customers in exchange for goods or services that have already been provided

A

Accounts receivable

295
Q

posting of an insurance check with money properly allocated among all patients included in the check and to each specific charge for each date of service

A

Line item posting

296
Q

record of the charges and payments for a specific patient

A

Patient account

297
Q

claim submitted to an insurance carrier that awaits additional information

A

Pending

298
Q

to compare financial activity with financial statements, for example, comparing an explanation of benefits (EOB) from an insurer to the original bill to verify that each service billed was paid in the amount expected

A

Reconcile

299
Q

a payment; payments are sometimes entered with the abbreviation ROA

A

Received on account

300
Q

system in which statements for all patients are generated once a month

A

Monthly billing

301
Q

an adjustment that affects a patient’s balance that is not a new charge or payment, for example a reduction of fee by the physician

A

Contractual allowance

302
Q

positive or negative change to a patient’s account balance that does not involve the exchange of money or the addition of a charge for services

A

Adjustment

303
Q

(EOB) statement from an insurance carrier that accompanies a check sent to a health care provider listing the name of the patient, the name of the insured, the date of service, the amount billed, the amount allowed, the amount paid, and the amount the provider may bill the patient; also called remittance advice (RA)

A

Explanation of benefits

304
Q

receipt of money that decreases the account balance; also called a payment; funds added to an account

A

Credit

305
Q

(ERA) for claims submitted to an insurance carrier electronically, an electronic explanation of benefits (EOB) returned by the carrier

A

Electronic remittance advice

306
Q

report that categorizes a company’s accounts receivable (AR) according to the length of time since they have been billed to determine what action, if any, should be taken on a given account; for example, accounts less than 30 days old are considered current; Medicare accounts over 30 days old should be investigated

A

AR aging analysis

307
Q

a payment from an insurance company covering several patients

A

Bulk remittance

308
Q

formal submission to an insurance carrier to question a denied claim that includes additional and detailed information beyond that which was submitted with the original claim

A

Appeal

309
Q

claim that is never accepted into the insurance carrier’s system because of invalid information

A

Rejected claim

310
Q

a chronological record of the charges, adjustments, payments, and current balance for a specific patient; also called a ledger card

A

Patient ledger

311
Q

In patient billing what is another word for recorded

A

Posted

312
Q

individual who had a balance due and has moved without leaving a forwarding address

A

Skip

313
Q

the monetary cost for services or supplies that increases the account balance; in accounting, referred to as a debit

A

Charge

314
Q

billing a patient for the difference between the billed amount and the amount allowed by the insurance carrier

A

Balance billing

315
Q

written as payment of another payee but presented to you (the third payee) as payment

A

Third-party check

316
Q

resource; property of value

A

Asset

317
Q

a small amount of cash kept in an office to use for incidental purchases or payments such as postage due on certified mail

A

Petty cash

318
Q

payment of certain employees a specified amount for each hour worked

A

Hourly

319
Q

is a form of payment that lets a consumer pay for things online with a bank account instead of a credit card, keeping the payment information hidden from merchants

A

PayPal

320
Q

the deduction of federal, state, and city taxes from gross wages

A

Withholding

321
Q

document listing items in a package

A

Packing slip

322
Q

deposited checks that have been processed by the bank

A

Cancelled checks

323
Q

(ABA) code numbers that identify the bank; found on the right upper corner of a printed check

A

American bankers association

324
Q

a service provided by a bank in which a customer has access to his or her bank account at all times using a secure website

A

Online banking

325
Q

a component of business insurance that is coverage for employee dishonesty

A

Fidelity bond

326
Q

_________ is a health care credit card that once a patient is approved for can help pay for out-of-pocket health care expenses and wellness care

A

Care Credit

327
Q

form completed by an employee when hired to determine the amount to be withheld from each paycheck for taxes

A

W-4 form

328
Q

the utilization of a radio frequency to exchange data between two devices, such as a digital payment between two parties

A

Near field communication

329
Q

the payee’s written or rubberstamped signature placed on the back of a check

A

Endorsement

330
Q

(FLSA) federal law that regulates work conditions and pay

A

Fair labor standards act

331
Q

total amount earned in one year before taxes and other debits are deducted

A

Gross wage

332
Q

payment made to a creditor

A

Cash dispersment

333
Q

process of comparing banking records to a bank statement to ensure that both are in agreement

A

Reconciliation

334
Q

(FUTA) law mandating that every employer contribute to unemployment taxes

A

Federal unemployment tax act

335
Q

a federally required tax report that lists the employee’s annual gross income; federal (income, Medicare, and Social Security), state, and local taxes withheld; taxable fringe benefits, such as tips; and the employee’s net income for the year

A

W-2 form

336
Q

a bookkeeping method in which every transaction affects two accounts by increasing one and decreasing the other

A

Double-entry bookkeeping

337
Q

(MICR) characters and letters printed on the bottom of the check used as routing information to identify the bank and the number of the individual account

A

Magnetic ink character recognition

338
Q

(NSF) situation in which the payer’s account does not have enough money to cover the amount of the check

A

Nonsufficent funds

339
Q

(FICA) Social Security; employers may make FICA deductions from paychecks as the employee’s contribution to Social Security savings

A

Federal insurance contributions act

340
Q

unauthorized taking of funds that involves breach of trust

A

Embezzlement

341
Q

a paycheck printed on a full-page voucher

A

Voucher checks

342
Q

person or company named as the receiving party to whom the amount on the check is payable

A

Payee

343
Q

an accounting entry that increases a liability

A

Credits

344
Q

pay for hours worked in excess of 40 hours per week

A

Overtime

345
Q

insurance sometimes required to be purchased personally by employees who handle cash

A

Surety bond

346
Q

an employee paid a predetermined amount of money every pay period regardless of the number of hours worked

A

Salaried

347
Q

eligible, or not ineligible, such as an employee who is _______ from earning overtime pay

A

Nonexempt

348
Q

procedure in which the writer of the check instructs the bank (in writing) not to honor the payment of a check

A

Stop-payment order

349
Q

process of managing the accounts for a business

A

Bookkeeping

350
Q

bank account used for paying out funds

A

Disbursement account

351
Q

a bill presented for an amount due

A

Invoice

352
Q

check that has not been presented for payment within the time frame suggested on the check

A

Stale check

353
Q

money withheld from an employee’s paycheck for taxes, health and life insurance premiums, and other benefits

A

Deductions

354
Q

unused check; a check that contains only the preprinted account information but no payment information

A

Blank check

355
Q

(AP) amounts of money the physician owes to others for supplies, equipment, and services

A

Accounts payable

356
Q

(SUTA) a state unemployment compensation law governing whether the employer or both employer and employee make payments to the unemployment fund and how funds may be withheld from an employee’s paycheck

A

State unemployment tax act

357
Q

the amount an employee receives after deductions from gross pay; also called take-home pay

A

Net pay

358
Q

actualizes or permits the transfer of money to another person, such as a check

A

Negotiate instrument

359
Q

(PTO) payment of wages for a specific number of hours when the employee is not at work such as sick time, vacation time, or holidays

A

Payed time off

360
Q

an accounting entry that decreases a liability

A

Debits

361
Q

system of reporting the financial results of a business

A

Accounting

362
Q

(AR) money owed to a business by customers in exchange for goods or services that have already been provided

A

Accounts receivable

363
Q

not eligible, as an employee who is exempt from earning overtime pay

A

Exempt

364
Q

money (cash, checks) placed in a bank account

A

Deposits

365
Q

Debt

A

Liability

366
Q

an internal control to reduce risk of fraud and embezzlement by dividing financial responsibilities and assigning the separate tasks to different individuals

A

Separation of duties

367
Q

person signing a check to release money

A

Payer

368
Q

Prejudicial

A

Discriminatory

369
Q

fellow members of the profession

A

Colleagues

370
Q

Complaint

A

Grievance

371
Q

usually the first three months (90 days) of employment during which the new employee can be terminated without cause

A

Probationary period

372
Q

status gained by being the individual who has worked for the physician the longest

A

Seniority

373
Q

employment with no explicit contractual relationship between employer and employee in which the employer is free to terminate the employment relationship without just cause

A

At-will employment

374
Q

describes a medical practice that is capable of paying bills and salaries

A

Solvent

375
Q

unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical harassment of a sexual nature

A

Sexual harassment

376
Q

Travel plan

A

Itinerary

377
Q

repeated mistreatment that may involve verbal abuse, humiliation, intimidation, threatening behavior, or sabotage of work duties; workplace bullying can be carried out by supervisors, peers, or subordinates

A

Bullying