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CMA - Spr 24 > Section 3 Anatomy And Physiology > Flashcards

Section 3 Anatomy And Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

____ or involuntary muscle tissue is found in the viscera (walls of hallow organs).

A

Smooth

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2
Q

The ________ system stimulates the body’s immune response to protect the body.

A

Lymphatic

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3
Q

________ muscles allow movement by being attached to bones in the body

A

Skeletal

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4
Q

Small, hair-like projections called ________ increase the surface area of a cell and propel substances along the cell’s surface, increasing the cell’s absorption ability.

A

Cilia

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5
Q

The ________ separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity, and its contraction causes the process of inspiration

A

Diaphragm

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6
Q

What is one of the most common places for basal cell carcinoma

A

The nose

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7
Q

________ is the study of the function of an organism.

A

Physiology

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8
Q

________, also known as “swayback,” is a condition in which the abdomen and buttocks protrude because of an exaggerated lumbar curvature.

A

Lordosis

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9
Q

Muscles are composed of about ________ percent water and 20 percent protein.

A

75%

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10
Q

What are the three types of motor units?

A

Synergist, Antagonist, Prime mover

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11
Q

As children grow, bones become harder as more ________ are deposited into the bone.

A

Minerals

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12
Q

Cystic lesions are ________ that are large and deep.

A

Pimples

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13
Q

The ________ is one of the most basic units of life and is often described as the basic building block of the human body.

A

Cell

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14
Q

Temperature regulation is a main function of the ________ system

A

Integumentary

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15
Q

What type of treatment to refresh the skin and make it look younger is the least aggressive and invasive

A

Microdermabrasion

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16
Q

By what age do approximately half of adults have some grey hair?

A

Age 50

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17
Q

According to the National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel, which stage of decubitus ulcers is described as a reddened area on the skin that does not blanch (turn white) when pressed?

A

Stage 1

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18
Q

The ________ is the middle layer of skin.

A

Dermis

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19
Q

The nose, mouth, and pharynx are part of which system?

A

Respiratory

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20
Q

________ fractures are spread along the length of a bone and are produced by twisting stresses.

A

Spiral

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21
Q

________ are the most common injuries in the United States and are common among athletes.

A

Ankle Sprains

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22
Q

The ________ allows passage of substances into and out of the cell.

A

Cell Membrane

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23
Q

________ muscles are composed of elongated, spindle-shaped cells, and are commonly involved in involuntary motions

A

Smooth

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24
Q

The most basic level of the body’s organization is the ________.

A

Atom

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25
Q

The metatarsals and phalanges can be identified as which section(s) of the appendicular skeleton?

A

Upper and lower extrimeties

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26
Q

The medical term for “jock itch” is ________.

A

Tinea cruris

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27
Q

________ is characterized by oozing and honey-color crusted blisters that grow larger day by day.

A

Impretigo

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28
Q

Lunula is defined as ________.

A

The crescent-shaped white area at the base of the nail

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29
Q

The chemical process that creates molecules out of smaller components with the help of energy is ________.

A

Anabolism

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30
Q

The ________ is the tough, connective tissue membrane lining the medullary canal and containing the bone marrow.

A

Endosteum

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31
Q

What is a chemical combination of two or more atoms that forms a specific compound called

A

A molecule

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32
Q

In the human body, each cell contains 23 pairs of____?

A

Chromosomes

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33
Q

Which mechanism is responsible for reducing the chromosomal number

A

Meiosis

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34
Q

Genetic disease characterized by gradual atrophy and weakening of the muscle

A

Muscular dystrophy

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35
Q

What cellular organelle is responsible for the production of adenosine triphosphate​ (ATP), a form of cellular​ energy

A

The mitochondria

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36
Q

Which tissue is sheetlike in appearance and arranged in a flat​ formation, sometimes several layers​ thick?

A

Epithelial

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37
Q

What are the two properties of nerve tissue

A

Conductivity and excitability

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38
Q

Cardiac muscle​ tissue, which forms the heart​ muscles, is a specialized form of what type of​ muscle?

A

Striated

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39
Q

Which molecules conduct electricity

A

Electrolytes

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40
Q

Which organ works to keep electrolyte concentrations in the blood constant​ despite, changes in the​ body?

A

Kidneys

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41
Q

Which organ forms the outermost structure of the integumentary​ system?

A

The skin

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42
Q

Which of the following organ systems transports oxygen and carbon​ dioxide, delivers nutrients and​ hormones, and removes waste​ products?

A

Cardiovascular

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43
Q

The glands of which system produce hormones and chemical​ messengers?

A

Endocrine

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44
Q

Which mechanism is responsible for breaking large molecules into small​ molecules?

A

Catabolism

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45
Q

Which of the following is the movement of dissolved particles from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration until the particles are evenly​ distributed?

A

Diffusion

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46
Q

Filtration requires some form of​ _______ to diffuse dissolved particles through membranes.

A

Pressure

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47
Q

DNA controls the structure and function of the entire​ body, and each​ person’s DNA and genetic makeup​ are:

A

Hereditary

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48
Q

What is achieved by obtaining a small amount of a persons DNA?

A

DNA fingerprinting

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49
Q

Individuals carry two​ ________ for each​ trait: one from the​ mother’s egg and one from the​ father’s sperm.

A

Genes

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50
Q

A mother who gives birth after the age of 40 has a higher risk of delivering an infant with​ ________.

A

Down syndrome

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51
Q

Symptoms of photophobia​ (excessive sensitivity to​ light) and being prone to sunburn are characteristics of what genetic​ disorder?

A

Albinism

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52
Q

Talipes is a congenital deformity of​ the:

A

Foot

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53
Q

Which disorder is characterized by a genetic mutation that targets the nervous​ system?

A

Tay-Sachs Disease (TSD)

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54
Q

What is the term for the protein that is a key element of the outermost layer of​ skin?

A

Keratin

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55
Q

What is the medical term for the small blisters sometimes present with contact​ dermatitis?

A

Vesicles

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56
Q

What is the defining characteristic of the condition known as​ hirsutism?

A

Abnormal hair growth

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57
Q

One of the protective functions of the skin is the production of which​ vitamin?

A

Vitamin D

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58
Q

The sudoriferous and sebaceous glands perform which function of the​ skin?

A

Secretion

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59
Q

The dilation of blood vessels in the​ skin:

A

Allows heat from the blood to be released

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60
Q

When performing the function of sensory​ reception, the integumentary system works with which other body​ system?

A

Nervous

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61
Q

Which layer of the skin is sometimes absent in thinner​ skin?

A

Stratum germinativum

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62
Q

Which layer of the epidermis contains living cells that are still capable of​ mitosis?

A

Stratum getminativum

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63
Q

Which layer of the dermis has fingerlike projections that form the ridges known as​ fingerprints?

A

Papillary layer

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64
Q

What is the inner most layer of the​ skin?

A

Subcutaneous layer

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65
Q

Which layer of the epidermis contains cells that are actively becoming keratinized after losing their​ nuclei?

A

Stratum garnulosum

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66
Q

What is a function of the reticular​ layer?

A

It supports the hair roots, sebaceous and sudoriferous glands, and nails

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67
Q

Which type of epidermis contains different layers of living cells that are still capable of​ mitosis?

A

Stratum germinativum

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68
Q

The fingernails are composed of which material

A

Keratin

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69
Q

What is the matrix of a nail

A

The nail bed

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70
Q

What structure encloses the root of the hair?

A

The follicle

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71
Q

What function does sebum serve?

A

It protects and waterproofs hair and skin

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72
Q

In which skin structures does malignant melanoma originate?

A

Melanocytes

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73
Q

Which feature is included in genetic predisposition to squamous cell​ carcinoma?

A

Light color skin, blue or green eyes

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74
Q

What is the most common cause of basal cell​ carcinoma?

A

Overexposure to the sun and ultra violet rays

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75
Q

Which​ age-related skin condition affects​ newborns?

A

Milia

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76
Q

Which changes occur in the skin as a person​ ages?

A

There are fewer elastic fibers in the upper dermis.

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77
Q

Where on the body are premalignant and malignant skin lesions most likely to appear in older​ adults?

A

Nose, eyelids, and cheeks

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78
Q

Which microbe is usually involved in the formation of furuncles and​ carbuncles?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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79
Q

What is the​ time-tested treatment for​ scabies?

A

Sulfer

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80
Q

In which stage is a decubitus ulcer that appears as a blister or open​ sore, with the surrounding skin red and​ irritated?

A

Stage II

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81
Q

Which skin care treatment involves the use of the toxin Clostridium botulinum​?

A

Botox

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82
Q

Pigmentation​ disorders, precancerous​ lesions, and other skin conditions can be removed using which​ procedure?

A

Deep chemical peel

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83
Q

In laser​ resurfacing, short, pulsated laser​ beams:

A

Vaporize damages areas of the skin

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84
Q

What is the study of diseases and disorders within the body called?

A

Pathophysiology

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85
Q

What is Homeostasis

A

The body and its systems work together to maintain a constant state of balance in which all systems of the body work together and function cohesively

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86
Q

What is the Flagella

A

Similar structure to cilia, Taillike structures that enable a cell to move through
a medium, such as the sperm cell

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87
Q

What are the five stages of mitosis

A

(In order)
Prophase
Prometaphase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

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88
Q

What are the four types of tissues in the body

A

Epithelial, connective, muscle, nerve

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89
Q

What tissue is found on outer layer of skin, covering surface of organs
and lining walls of body cavities

A

Epithelial Tissue

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90
Q

What tissue forms ducts, tubes, parts of certain glands

A

Epithelial Tissue

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91
Q

What are the functions of Epithelial tissue

A

Functions include absorption, secretion, excretion, protection

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92
Q

What tissue is the most abundant of all body tissues

A

Connective tissue

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93
Q

What tissue can be liquid or gel-like and fills spaces between cells

A

Connective tissue

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94
Q

What is nerve tissue composed of

A

Neurons (nerve cells)

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95
Q

What do similarly functioning tissues form?

A

Organs

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96
Q

Major organs and structures within integumentary system

A

Skin, sweat glands, fat glands, hair follicles, other connective structures

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97
Q

Major organs and structures within skeletal system

A

Bones, joints

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98
Q

Major organs and structures within the muscular system

A

Muscles, ligaments, tendons

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99
Q

Major organs and structures within the nervous system

A

Brain, spinal cord, nerves

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100
Q

What body system is the thyroid gland in

A

The endocrine system

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101
Q

What body system is the parathyroid gland a part of

A

Endocrine system

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102
Q

What body system are the adrenal glands a part of?

A

The endocrine system

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103
Q

What body system is the pituitary gland a part of?

A

The endocrine system

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104
Q

What body system is the pineal gland a part of?

A

Endocrine system

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105
Q

What body system(s) are the ovaries a part of?

A

The endocrine/reproductive system

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106
Q

What body system(s) are the testes a part of

A

The endocrin/reproductive system

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107
Q

What body system are blood cells a part of?

A

The blood and lymphatic system

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108
Q

What body system is plasma a part of?

A

The blood and lymphatic system

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109
Q

What body system is blood marrow a part of?

A

The blood and lymphatic system

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110
Q

What body system is the spleen a part of?

A

The blood and lymphatic system

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111
Q

What body system is the thymus a part of?

A

The blood and lymphatic system

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112
Q

What body system are lymph notes and lymph (fluid) a part of?

A

The blood and lymphatic system

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113
Q

What body system is the nose a part of

A

The respiratory system

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114
Q

What body system(s) is the mouth a part of?

A

The respiratory/digestive systems

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115
Q

What body system is the pharynx a part of?

A

The respiratory system

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116
Q

What body system is the larynx a part of?

A

The respiratory system

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117
Q

What body system is the trachea a part of?

A

The respiratory system

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118
Q

What body system is the bronchi a part of?

A

The respiratory system

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119
Q

What body system are the lungs a part of?

A

The respiratory system

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120
Q

What body system is the esophagus a part of?

A

The digestive system

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121
Q

What body system is the stomach a part of?

A

The digestive system

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122
Q

What body system are the small and large intestine a part of?

A

The digestive system

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123
Q

What body system is the rectum a part of?

A

The digestive system

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124
Q

What body system is the anus a part of?

A

The digestive system

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125
Q

What body system is the liver a part of?

A

The digestive system

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126
Q

What body system is the gallbladder a part of?

A

The digestive system

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127
Q

What body system is the pancreas a part of?

A

The digestive system

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128
Q

What body system is the appendix a part of?

A

The digestive system

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129
Q

What body system are the kidneys a part of?

A

The urinary system

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130
Q

What body system are the ureters a part of?

A

The urinary system

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131
Q

What body system is the bladder a part of?

A

The urinary system

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132
Q

What body system is the urethra a part of?

A

The urinary system

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133
Q

What body system is the vagina a part of?

A

The reproductive system

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134
Q

What body system is the cervix a part of?

A

The reproductive system

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135
Q

What body system is the uterus a part of?

A

The reproductive system

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136
Q

What body system are the fallopian tubes a part of?

A

The reproductive system

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137
Q

What body system is the penis a part of?

A

The reproductive system

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138
Q

What body system is the prostate gland a part of?

A

The reproductive system

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139
Q

What body system are the seminal vesicles a part of?

A

The reproductive system

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140
Q

What body system is the vas deferens a part of?

A

The reproductive system

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141
Q

What is Anabolism?

A

a process of chemical reactions that work together to build things up, such as creating molecules from smaller components
(requires energy to complete task)

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142
Q

What is catabolism?

A

a chemical process that works to break
down larger units into smaller units, such as digestion
(Releases energy during its process)

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143
Q

What is the study of hereditary makeup of animals or plants called?

A

Genetics

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144
Q

What are changes that occur to an organisms existing DNA a result of?

A

Genetic Engineering

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145
Q

A congenital defect in roof of mouth that occurs when palatine bones of skull do not close properly

A

Cleft palate

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146
Q

What tissue has function of forming a support network for the organs of the body?

A

The connective tissue

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147
Q

What tissue covers muscles

A

Connective tissues

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148
Q

What tissue connects muscles to bones and bones to joints?

A

Connective tissue

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149
Q

What tissue forms voluntary muscles such as skeletal muscle?

A

Voluntary (striated) muscle tissue

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150
Q

What tissue is striated or striped in appearance?

A

Voluntary (striated) muscle tissue

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151
Q

What tissues are controlled by a persons will?

A

Voluntary (striated) muscle tissue

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152
Q

What tissue is controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

A

Involuntary (smooth) muscle tissue

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153
Q

What tissue is not consciously controlled by someone

A

Involuntary (smooth) muscle tissue

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154
Q

What tissue forms heart muscles

A

Cardiac tissue

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155
Q

What does cardiac muscle tissue look like?

A

Striated

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156
Q

What is cardiac muscle tissue under controlled by?

A

The autonomic nervous system

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157
Q

disorder caused by an extra chromosome at the 21st chromosomal pair characterized by growth delays, sloping forehead and other physical characteristics, and mild to moderate intellectual disability; also called trisomy 20

A

Down syndrome

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158
Q

most frequently occurring, permanently disabling birth defect, resulting from the failure of the spine to close properly during the first month of pregnancy

A

Spina bifida

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159
Q

form of diffusion whereby water is pulled through a semipermeable membrane, moving from areas of greater to lesser concentration

A

Osmosis

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160
Q

change in the DNA sequence of a gene

A

Mutation

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161
Q

(RNA) single chain of chemical bases

A

Ribonucleic acid

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162
Q

inherited, sex-linked disorder characterized by difficulty distinguishing colors, especially between reds and greens; formerly called color blindness

A

Color deficiency

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163
Q

congenital endocrine disorder affecting males with symptoms including small testes and penis, tall stature, weak bones, low energy levels, and excessive breast tissue

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

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164
Q

hereditary deficiency of clotting factors

A

Hemophilia

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165
Q

inherited chronic form of anemia in which red blood cells become sickle-shaped and pile up instead of flowing freely through the blood vessels, most common in people of African or Mediterranean descent; also called hemoglobin SS disease

A

Sickle cell anemia

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166
Q

(PKU) congenital disease caused by a defect in the metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine

A

Phenylketimonuria

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167
Q

a form of inherited mental retardation associated with developmental delays, behavioral and emotional difficulties, and physical traits such as an elongated, narrow face, large ears, and protruding forehead and jaw; also called Martin Bell syndrome, Marker X syndrome, or FRAXA syndrome

A

Fragile X syndrome

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168
Q

also called biotransformation; most of this process occurs in the liver, using the same biochemical reactions and pathways that affect minerals, nutrients, and vitamins

A

Metabolism

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169
Q

inherited disorder of excessive body accumulation of iron causing poor function of various body organs

A

Hemochromatosis

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170
Q

body structure; study of the structure of an organism

A

Anatomy

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171
Q

congenital disorder caused by failure of the ovaries to respond to pituitary hormone stimulation; possible effects may include impaired intelligence, amenorrhea, and shortness of stature

A

Turner’s syndrome

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172
Q

chronic, progressive disease in which mucus becomes thick, dry, and sticky and builds up and clogs passages in body organs, primarily the lungs and pancreas

A

Cystic fibrosis

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173
Q

genetic disorder that is present at birth

A

Congenital disorder

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174
Q

one-celled forms of life, such as bacteria

A

Microbes

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175
Q

a fungal infection of the skin commonly found on the trunk and extremities; also called ringworm

A

Tinea corporis

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176
Q

an area of skin and tissue that breaks down when constant pressure is maintained on it; also called pressure sore or bedsore

A

Decubitus ulcer

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177
Q

skin lesion that results from excessive scarring

A

Keloid

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178
Q

a severe itching because of acute hypersensitivity to medications or environmental stimuli; also called hives

A

Uticaria

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179
Q

redness of the skin

A

Erythema

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180
Q

viral infection that primarily affects the mouth or the genital areas

A

Herpes simplex

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181
Q

acute, spreading bacterial infection below the surface of the skin, characterized by erythema, warmth, swelling, and pain that can also cause fever, chills, and enlarged lymph nodes

A

Cellulitis

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182
Q

an abnormal mole

A

Dysplastic nevus

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183
Q

common skin condition that occurs when oil and dead skin cells clog the skin’s pores; also called acne

A

Acne vulgaris

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184
Q

baldness or loss of hair

A

Alopecia

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185
Q

a fungal infection of the skin commonly located on the scalp

A

Tinea capitis

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186
Q

thickened skin that does not have an identifiable border

A

Callus

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187
Q

Boil

A

Furuncle

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188
Q

A collection of furuncles

A

Carbuncle

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189
Q

a chronic skin condition characterized by scaling, itching, and rashes; caused by an allergic-type reaction on the skin; also called atopic dermatitis

A

Eczema

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190
Q

malignant tumor that affects the middle layer of the skin

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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191
Q

thickened area of the skin that has a distinct border with various textures

A

Corn

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192
Q

chronic disorder, primarily of the facial skin, causing redness on the cheeks, nose, chin, or forehead, often characterized by flare-ups and remissions

A

Rosacea

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193
Q

fungal infection of the skin, commonly found on the foot; also called athlete’s foot

A

Tinea pedis

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194
Q

Noncancerous

A

Benign

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195
Q

a tubular device with a plunger at one end and a needle at the other; used for drawing blood, removing fluid, or administering medications

A

Syringe

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196
Q

Verrucae

A

Warts

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197
Q

Malignant

A

Cancerous

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198
Q

common skin condition characterized by frequent episodes of redness, itching, and thick, dry scales that results from a buildup of dead skin cells that, rather than shed off, pile up and form scaly patches

A

Psoriasis

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199
Q

is a condition of thick abnormal hair growth. Women are more commonly affected by and diagnosed with the disorder. Often with this skin disorder, women have a pattern of hair growth that is typically found on men

A

Hirsutism

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200
Q

inflammation or infection of hair follicles that most often appears in areas that become irritated by shaving or the rubbing of clothes, or where follicles and pores are blocked by oils and dirt

A

Folliculitis

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201
Q

type of skin cancer, originating in the melanocyte cells of the skin, that develops when the melanocytes do not respond to normal control mechanisms of cellular growth

A

Malignant melanoma

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202
Q

contagious disorder of the skin caused by the human or scabies itch mite; causes intense itching and a red rash

A

Scabies

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203
Q

an infection caused by the varicella zoster virus that causes a painful rash; also called shingles

A

Herpes zoster

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204
Q

glands that occur in nearly all regions of the skin but are most numerous on the palms and soles; also called sweat glands

A

Sudoriferous glands

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205
Q

pertaining to bacteria in the bloodstream

A

Bacteremic

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206
Q

disconnection of the bones that meet at a joint, usually caused by a sudden impact, such that the bones are no longer in their normal positions

A

Dislocation

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207
Q

disease caused by the formation of urate crystals in a joint, leading to inflammation

A

Gouty arthritis

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208
Q

ends of a developing long bone

A

Epiphysis

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209
Q

a condition in which the toe bends upward like a claw because of the abnormal flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint

A

Hammertoe

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210
Q

narrow space or cavity throughout the length of the diaphysis in a long bone, which contains yellow bone marrow, made of fat cells

A

Medullary canal

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211
Q

formation of blood cells

A

Hemopoiesis

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212
Q

articulation, or joint, that produces no movement

A

Synarthrotic joint

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213
Q

sac of fluid that cushions and lubricates an area where joint-related tissues rub against one another

A

Bursa

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214
Q

first cervical vertebra that connects the spine to the occipital bone at the base of the skull

A

Atlas

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215
Q

abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

A

Scoliosis

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216
Q

childhood bone disorder that causes bone deformity; caused by lack of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphate

A

Rickets

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217
Q

adult onset of rickets, literally meaning “softening of the bone”

A

Osteomalacia

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218
Q

progressive loss of bone density and thinning of bone tissue, seen most commonly in older adults, especially postmenopausal women, and in individuals who do not consume enough calcium

A

Osteoporosis

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219
Q

abnormal curvature of the thoracic spine; also called humpback

A

Kyphosis

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220
Q

(RA) autoimmune disorder causing joints to be deformed because of inflammation

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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221
Q

the place where two bones connect, with the positioning of the bones determining the type of movement the joint performs; also called joint

A

Articulation

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222
Q

(spongy) reticular tissue that makes up most of the volume of a long bone; includes red bone marrow, which manufactures most red blood cells

A

Cancellous

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223
Q

procedure used to align and reposition a dislocated joint

A

Reduction

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224
Q

an enlargement of the inner portion of the metatarsophalangeal joint at the base of the big toe; also called bunion

A

Hallux valgus

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225
Q

inflammation of one or more joints caused by various disease processes

A

Arthritis

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226
Q

one of the two divisions of the skeletal system, consisting of the 126 bones, including the shoulder and pelvic girdles, as well as the extremities, that are not part of the axial skeleton

A

Appendicular skeleton

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227
Q

shaft of a long bone

A

Diaphysis

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228
Q

membrane that forms the covering of long bones, except at their articular surfaces

A

Periosteum

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229
Q

cells that form cartilage

A

Chondrocytes

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230
Q

one of the two divisions of the skeletal system, consisting of 80 bones, including the skull, vertebral system, and rib cage

A

Axial skeleton

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231
Q

articulation or joint that permits very slight movement

A

Amphiarthrotic joint

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232
Q

second cervical vertebra that has a pivoting characteristic, allowing the head to turn from side-to-side

A

Axis

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233
Q

most common type of arthritis, resulting from years of wear and tear on joints and occurring most frequently in the hips, knees, and finger joints

A

Osteoarthritis

234
Q

articulation, or joint, that allows for free movement in multiple directions

A

Diarthrotic joint

235
Q

physician who specializes in the treatment of diseases and disorders of the musculoskeletal system; also called an orthopedist

A

Orthopedic physician

236
Q

dense, hard layer of bone tissue in a long bone

A

Compact bone

237
Q

inflammation of the bursa

A

Bursitis

238
Q

removal by suction of fluid from within a cyst

A

Aspiration

239
Q

ability of the body to maintain posture through a continuous partial contraction of skeletal muscles

A

Tonicity

240
Q

inflammation and irritation of the tendon, caused by microscopic tearing

A

Tendonitis

241
Q

stretching or tearing injury to a ligament

A

Sprain

242
Q

muscle that acts with another muscle to produce movement

A

Synergist

243
Q

characterized as pain that affects different parts of the body at different times; patients will describe the pain as a “moving” pain

A

Migratory pain

244
Q

tough fibrous connective tissue that connects bones or connects cartilage to a joint

A

Ligament

245
Q

inability of the body to absorb enough oxygen to supply the energy required to sustain a high level of activity, resulting in utilization of the anaerobic energy system and in the buildup of lactic acid in the muscles

A

Oxygen debt

246
Q

band of connective tissue that attaches muscles to bones

A

Tendon

247
Q

stretching or tearing injury to a muscle or tendon

A

Strain

248
Q

muscle that is the primary actor in a given movement—that is, the muscle that produces the movement in muscle contraction; also called agonist

A

Prime mover

249
Q

(MG) chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease characterized by varying degrees of weakness of the skeletal, or voluntary, muscles of the body

A

Myasthenia gravis

250
Q

in locations where skeletal muscles attach, the attachment point on the bone that is more fixed or still

A

Origin

251
Q

in locations where skeletal muscles attach, the attachment point on the bone that moves

A

Insertion

252
Q

loss of muscle mass and strength that occurs with the disuse of muscles over time

A

Atrophy

253
Q

caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick and results in the telltale round bull’s-eye rash

A

Lyme disease

254
Q

fibrous sheath that holds together the connective tissue and muscle fibers that make up muscles

A

Fascia

255
Q

muscle that counteracts, or opposes, the action of another muscle

A

Antagonist

256
Q

benign saclike swelling that typically develops over a joint or tendon

A

Ganglion cyst

257
Q

musculoskeletal pain and fatigue disorder with no known cause but with evidence pointing to a genetic predisposition to a neuromuscular or neuroendocrine abnormality that disturbs the usual sensory perception, especially of pain signals

A

Fibromyalgia

258
Q

a disease of the nervous system that is caused by a bacterium that enters the body through a break in the skin, such as a puncture, cut, or open wound; also called lockjaw

A

Tetanus

259
Q

temporary interference with muscle control, movement, speech, vision, or awareness caused by intense bursts of electrical activity produced within the brain; often associated with epilepsy

A

Seizures

260
Q

paralysis from approximately the shoulders down

A

Quadriplegia

261
Q

a stroke that is caused by a hemorrhage

A

Hemorrhagic Stroke

262
Q

largest nerve tract that connects the right and left hemispheres of the brain

A

Corpus callosum

263
Q

(CSF) fluid produced by the choroid plexus in the ventricles of the brain that moves through the spinal canal and the subarachnoid space and surrounds the brain; cushions the brain and spinal cord and nourishes them with oxygen and glucose

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

264
Q

attached to the sensory receptors, transmit impulses directly to the central nervous system

A

Sensory neurons

265
Q

nerve cell projection that receives information from other cells

A

Dendrites

266
Q

nerve cell projection that sends information from that cell to other cells

A

Axon

267
Q

insulating material that forms a protective covering or sheath around a nerve cell

A

Myelin

268
Q

nerves that transmit impulse from neural cell body to stimulate target muscle or organ

A

Efferent nerves

269
Q

destruction of the myelin, the protective covering around a nerve cell

A

Demyelination

270
Q

infection of the meninges that surround and protect the brain and spinal cord, typically caused by a bacterial or viral infection

A

Meningitis

271
Q

general nerve pain

A

Neuralgia

272
Q

result of a clot or hemorrhage in the brain blocking the blood supply and causing brain cells to die from a lack of oxygen

A

Stroke

273
Q

bruising of the brain

A

Contusion

274
Q

(MS) chronic, debilitating autoimmune disease in which the body directs the antibodies and white blood cells to attack the myelin sheath surrounding nerves in the brain and spinal cord, which causes inflammation and injury and, eventually, scarring, resulting in difficulty with movement, vision, and/or sensation

A

Multiple sclerosis

275
Q

the site at which an impulse is transmitted from the axon of one nerve to the dendrite of another

A

Synapse

276
Q

(SNS) part of the peripheral nervous system that is made of 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 30 pairs of spinal nerves

A

Somatic nervous system

277
Q

neurons that control most of the body’s movement, causing muscles to contract, glands to secrete, and organs to function properly

A

Motor neurons

278
Q

progressive, degenerative disease of the brain characterized by loss of memory and other cognitive functions

A

Alzheimers disease

279
Q

membranes that encompass the brain and spinal cord

A

Meninges

280
Q

a stroke caused by a blood clot

A

Ischemic stroke

281
Q

injury caused by sharp jarring or a blow to the head that may result in a loss of consciousness

A

Concussion

282
Q

the space between the axon of one nerve and the dendrite or another

A

Synaptic space

283
Q

inflammation in the brain, most often caused by a viral infection

A

Encephalitis

284
Q

outer sheath of the nerve composed of Schwann cells, the cells that regenerate damaged nerve fiber

A

Neurilemma

285
Q

pain along the sciatic nerve that runs from the lower back down the back of each leg, often caused by inflammation because of a pinched nerve

A

Sciatica

286
Q

nerves that carry impulses from the sensory receptor to the central nervous system

A

Afferent nerves

287
Q

(ALS) a disease of unknown cause that breaks down the nerves in the nervous system that are responsible for movement; also called motor neuron disease and Lou Gehrig’s disease

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

288
Q

(ANS) part of the peripheral nervous system that is responsible for controlling involuntary bodily functions such as sweating, secretion of glands, arterial blood pressure, and activity of smooth and cardiac muscle

A

Autonomic nervous system

289
Q

shallow groove of the brain

A

Sulcus

290
Q

group of nerve fibers within the central nervous system

A

Tract

291
Q

protective membranes that wrap nerve fibers in the peripheral nervous system

A

Sheaths

292
Q

disorder associated with misfiring or interference of electrical impulses within the brain, which can lead to seizures

A

Epilepsy

293
Q

paralysis of one side of the body, usually caused by stroke

A

Hemiplegia

294
Q

(PNS) made up of nerves that connect the CNS to other parts of the body

A

Peripheral nervous system

295
Q

tissue that surrounds and supports nerve cells; also called glia

A

Neuroglia

296
Q

progressive disorder caused by degeneration of the nerve cells in the parts of the brain that control movement, resulting in a shortage of the neurotransmitter dopamine, which impairs movement

A

Parkinson’s disease

297
Q

paralysis from approximately the waist down

A

Paraplegia

298
Q

(CNS) composed of the brain and spinal cord

A

Central nervous system

299
Q

nerve cells

A

Neurons

300
Q

a deep groove in the brain

A

Fissure

301
Q

weakness or paralysis of the muscles that control expression on one side of the face

A

Bells palsy

302
Q

grooves or convolutions on the surface of the cerebrum

A

Gyri

303
Q

nerve cells that are located entirely within the central nervous system and work as liaisons between sensory and motor neurons by mediating their impulses

A

Interneurons

304
Q

double vision

A

Diplopia

305
Q

auditory tube that extends from the middle ear to the nasopharynx

A

Eustachian tube

306
Q

“hole” in the center of the iris that controls the amount of light entering the eye

A

Pupil

307
Q

disease of the retina secondary to diabetes mellitus

A

Diabetic retinopathy

308
Q

an inflammation of the conjunctiva frequently caused by a virus, bacteria, sexually transmitted infections (STIs), allergens, and irritants; also called pinkeye

A

Conjunctivitis

309
Q

middle part of the inner ear; also in the vagina, the space between the lines of attachment of the labia minora

A

Vestibule

310
Q

thick fluid that fills the posterior cavity of the eyeball

A

Vitreous humor

311
Q

earwax that becomes hardened and can impair hearing

A

Impacted cerumen

312
Q

the surgical insertion of a drainage tube through the tympanic membrane to allow fluid to drain and the reduction of inner ear pressure

A

Tympanostomy

313
Q

a ringing in one or both ears that is associated with many forms of hearing loss

A

Tinnitus

314
Q

farsightedness

A

Hyperopia

315
Q

hearing loss from gradual deterioration of the sensory receptors located in the cochlea, associated with aging

A

Presbycusis

316
Q

refractive eye disorder in which irregularities in the curvature of the cornea cause light not to focus on the retina but to spread out over an area and cause overall blurring of vision

A

Astigmatism

317
Q

condition in which the tissue surrounding the bone of the stapes grows abnormally around it, preventing it from transmitting sound vibrations to the inner ear and resulting in profound hearing loss

A

Otosclerosis

318
Q

inflamed glands of the eyelid, often caused by a bacterial infection that appears as a pus-filled swelling at the base of the eyelash; also called sties

A

Hordeolums

319
Q

ducts at the inner corner of each eye that collect and drain tears into the lacrimal sac

A

Lacrimal canaliculi

320
Q

duct that drains lacrimal fluid into the nasal cavity

A

Nasolacrimal duct

321
Q

photosensitive cells in the retina that respond to dim light and are used in night vision

A

Rods

322
Q

clouding over the lens of the eye; prevents light from entering

A

Cataract

323
Q

eardrum, which separates the outer and middle ears

A

Tympanic membrane

324
Q

nearsightedness

A

Myopia

325
Q

located in the inner ear, these bony and membranous structures contain receptors for hearing and equilibrium

A

Labyrinth

326
Q

introduction of gas, vapor, or powder into a cavity introduction of gas, vapor, or powder into a cavity

A

Insufflation

327
Q

area of the retina where the optic nerve enters

A

Optic disk

328
Q

bony spiral-shaped structure that forms a portion of the inner ear

A

Cochlea

329
Q

the loss of elasticity in the eye’s lens, usually as a result of aging, that causes an inability to focus on objects at close range

A

Presbyopia

330
Q

a disorder caused by weakness in the external eye muscles, resulting in the eyes looking in different directions; also called crossed eyes or wall eyes

A

Strabismus

331
Q

watery fluid that fills the anterior cavity of the eyeball

A

Aqueous humor

332
Q

part of the middle layer of the surface of the eyeball that holds and moves the lens

A

Ciliary body

333
Q

inflammation of the eyelid

A

Blepharitis

334
Q

small bones, such as the incus, malleus, and stapes in the ear

A

Ossicles

335
Q

a disorder in children caused by the eye muscles being weaker in one eye; also called lazy eye

A

Amblyopia

336
Q

inflammation of the middle ear caused by viral or bacterial infections

A

Otitis media

337
Q

study of hearing disorders

A

Audiology

338
Q

deterioration of the central portion of the retina

A

Macular degeneration

339
Q

process of light rays changing direction when they pass through the eye

A

Refraction

340
Q

innermost layer of the eye containing rods and cones, which translate light into nerve impulses

A

Retina

341
Q

condition caused by an increase in the amount of pressure in the eye, leading to an excessive amount of aqueous humor that can lead to damage of the optic nerve and eventually blindness

A

Glaucoma

342
Q

posterior cavity of the eyeball located behind the lens

A

Vitreous chamber

343
Q

eye’s ability to adjust its optical powers to maintain a clear image of objects at various distances

A

Accommodation

344
Q

area of the eye where the cornea and sclera meet

A

Limbus

345
Q

condition of the inner ear characterized by vertigo, tinnitus, fluctuating hearing loss, and pressure or pain in the affected ear

A

Ménière’s disease

346
Q

eyelids

A

Palpebrae

347
Q

auditory canal; tube that carries sound waves from the outer ear to the tympanic membrane

A

Auditory meatus

348
Q

separation of the retina from the underlying choroid layer

A

Retinal detachment

349
Q

yellow spot on the back of the eye

A

Macula lutea

350
Q

protective mucous membrane lining the underside of the eyelid and the anterior part of the eyeball

A

Conjunctiva

351
Q

bone in the middle ear that is shaped like a hammer

A

Malleus

352
Q

colorless structure suspended behind the iris that sharpens the focus of light rays onto the retina

A

Lens

353
Q

floor of the tympanic cavity; top of the uterus

A

Fundus

354
Q

photosensitive cells in the retina that respond to bright light and are used in color vision

A

Cones

355
Q

cavity in the skull that houses each eyeball

A

Orbit

356
Q

earwax

A

Cerumen

357
Q

nerve that carries information from the eye to the brain

A

Optic nerve

358
Q

visible portion of the ear outside the head; also called auricle visible portion of the ear outside the head; also called auricle

A

Pinna

359
Q

lesion or abrasion on the cornea that results from injury or infection

A

Corneal abrasion

360
Q

inflammation of sebaceous or oil glands of the skin, caused by an increase in sebum; also called cradle cap

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

361
Q

opening between the eyelids

A

Palpebral fissure

362
Q

part of the middle layer of the eyeball containing the pigment (color) and a “hole” in the center (pupil), which controls the amount of light entering the eye

A

Iris

363
Q

gland above the outer corner of the eye that secretes tears onto the surface of the conjunctiva of the upper lid

A

Lacrimal gland

364
Q

membrane that lines the sclera and absorbs extra light entering the eye

A

Choroid

365
Q

part of the outer layer of the eyeball; also called white of the eye

A

Sclera

366
Q

(nystaxis) involuntary, repetitive, rhythmic movements of the eye; also called nystaxis

A

Nystagmus

367
Q

either of the two corners of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet

A

Canthus

368
Q

incision into the myringa or eardrum to drain fluid

A

Myringotomy

369
Q

inflammation of the optic nerve

A

Papilledema

370
Q

part of the lacrimal duct that collects tears and empties into the nasolacrimal duct

A

Lacrimal sac

371
Q

stirrup-shaped ear bone

A

Stapes

372
Q

pit in the middle of the macula lutea of the retina of the eye that contains only cones

A

Fovea centralis retinae

373
Q

clear, transparent covering of the eye; frequently referred to as the “window” of the eye because it allows light to enter

A

Cornea

374
Q

structures that produce, store, and remove tears

A

Lacrimal apparatus

375
Q

retinal disease caused by high blood pressure

A

Hypertensive retinopathy

376
Q

bone in the middle ear shaped like an anvil

A

Incus

377
Q

tiny broken blood vessels on the surface of the skin

A

Pentechiae

378
Q

reduced blood flow to the heart

A

Ischemia

379
Q

difficulty breathing

A

Dyspnea

380
Q

congestion of the heart muscle and restriction of heart movement caused by blood or fluid trapped in the pericardial sac

A

Cardiac tamponade

381
Q

smallest cells in blood, formed in the red bone marrow; main function is to assist in the clotting of blood for wound healing; also called thrombocytes

A

Platelets

382
Q

biconcave cells produced in the red bone marrow that are small enough to pass through capillaries and carry oxygen to the tissues and organs; also called red blood cells (RBCs)

A

Eythrocytes

383
Q

artery that transports blood from the right ventricle to the lungs

A

Pulmonary artery

384
Q

blood cells responsible for carrying hemoglobin, to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide; erythrocytes

A

Red cells

385
Q

heart valve from the right atrium to the right ventricle

A

Tricuspid valve

386
Q

bluish discoloration of the skin and nail beds because of lack of oxygen in the tissues

A

Cyanosis

387
Q

the process of cutting into or puncturing a vein, typically for the purpose of collecting blood samples for testing; also called phlebotomy

A

Venipuncture

388
Q

crown of arteries that supply the heart with freshly oxygenated blood

A

Coronary arteries

389
Q

four-chambered muscular pump that circulates blood throughout the cardiovascular system

A

Heart

390
Q

sound made by a heart murmur

A

Bruit

391
Q

largest artery of the body into which blood enters after it leaves the left ventricle

A

Aorta

392
Q

in adults over 17 years old, blood pressure ranging from 120/80 to 139/89 mmHg, considered a precursor to hypertension

A

Prehypertension

393
Q

(MI) condition that occurs when the blood supply to a part of the myocardium is severely reduced or stopped; also called heart attack

A

Myocardial infarction

394
Q

wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart; cartilaginous wall that separates the internal portion of the nose into the right and left cavities

A

Septum

395
Q

force exerted by the blood on the walls of the arteries

A

Blood pressure

396
Q

instrument used to measure blood pressure

A

Sphygmomanometer

397
Q

condition in which blood pressure is consistently lower than 90/59 mmHg; also called low blood pressure

A

Hypotension

398
Q

artery found on each side of the neck

A

Carotid artery

399
Q

the valve through which blood leaves the left atrium of the heart; also called bicuspid valve

A

Mitral valve

400
Q

mechanisms within the blood that balance the pH level, thus preventing blood from becoming too acidic or too alkaline

A

Buffers

401
Q

result of a clot or hemorrhage in the brain blocking the blood supply and causing brain cells to die from a lack of oxygen

A

Stroke

402
Q

two types (phagocytes and lymphocytes) of larger blood cells that fight infection and thus contribute to homeostasis; also called white blood cells

A

Leukocytes

403
Q

(CHF) condition in which the heart cannot pump sufficient blood to the other organs; also called heart failure

A

Congestive heart failure

404
Q

condition in which levels of hemoglobin in the red blood cells are insufficient; caused by decreased healthy red cell production by the bone marrow, increased erythrocyte destruction, or blood loss from heavy menstrual periods or internal bleeding

A

Anemia

405
Q

middle muscular layer of the heart

A

Myocardium

406
Q

fluid portion of the blood; watery portion of the blood that contains blood cells

A

Plasma

407
Q

inflammation of the heart

A

Carditis

408
Q

lowest cuff pressure at which the Korotkoff sounds disappear, when the left ventricle of the heart relaxes

A

Diastolic blood pressure

409
Q

collapse of the cardiovascular system characterized by vasodilation and fluid shifting away from the heart

A

Cardiogenic shock

410
Q

narrowing and hardening of the vessel lumen of the arteries because of a buildup of fatty material and plaque

A

Atherosclerosis

411
Q

(Hgb) iron-containing pigment of red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs throughout the body

A

Hemoglobin

412
Q

abnormally slow heart rate of below 60 beats per minute

A

Bradycardia

413
Q

upper number of blood pressure measurement indicative of the left ventricle of the heart contracting

A

Systolic blood pressure

414
Q

the valve through which the blood leaves the left atrium of the heart; also called mitral valve

A

Bicuspid valve

415
Q

smallest cells in blood, formed in the red bone marrow; main function is to assist in the clotting of blood for wound healing; also called __________ ?

A

Thrombocytes

416
Q

(CAD) blockage of the arteries that supply the heart muscle; also called coronary heart disease (CHD)

A

Coronary artery disease

417
Q

abnormally rapid heart rate

A

Tachycardia

418
Q

clumping together

A

Agglutination

419
Q

blockage (cardiovascular)

A

Occlusion

420
Q

a thickening and loss of elasticity of the arteries; also called hardening of the arteries

A

Arteriosclerosis

421
Q

one of the three areas of specialized neuromuscular tissue that initiate the heartbeat; located under the endocardium of the right atrium

A

Atrioventricular (AV) node

422
Q

(HTN) condition in which blood pressure is consistently higher than 140/90 mmHg; also called high blood pressure

A

Hypertension

423
Q

drug administered to a pregnant woman to inhibit the production of antibodies against the Rh antigen

A

RhoGAM

424
Q

vein that transports freshly oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium

A

Pulmonary vein

425
Q

large vein that brings blood from below the heart to the atrium

A

Inferior vena cava

426
Q

outer lining of the heart wall

A

Pericardium

427
Q

prevents blood loss through clotting functions when the vessels are injured. This is the body’s method of maintaining blood in the liquid state as it moves and functions throughout the body, but kicks into action when vessels are injured so bleeding can stop

A

Hemostasis

428
Q

condition in which a damaged or diseased valve allows blood to escape and move backward through the valve

A

Heart murmur

429
Q

abnormal widening or ballooning of a portion of an artery, related to weakness in the vessel wall

A

Aneurysm

430
Q

heart disease that causes the right ventricle to enlarge as a result of primary lung disease; also called right-sided heart disease

A

Cor pulmonale

431
Q

large vein that transports blood from the head and upper chest to the heart

A

Superior vena cava

432
Q

death of heart muscle

A

Infarction

433
Q

difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressures

A

Pulse pressure

434
Q

stoppage of the beating of the heart; also called sudden death

A

Cardiac arrest

435
Q

one of the three areas of specialized neuromuscular tissue that initiate the heartbeat; also called atrioventricular (AV) bundle

A

Bundle of His

436
Q

specialized conductive fibers located within the walls of the ventricles, responsible for relaying cardiac impulses to the cells of the ventricles, which then contract

A

Purkinje fibers

437
Q

hereditary deficiency of clotting factors

A

Hemophilia

438
Q

irregular heartbeat caused by a disturbance of normal electrical activity of the heart; pulse with an irregular rhythm

A

Arrhythmia

439
Q

the process of entering a vein by incision or puncture, to collect blood for testing; also called venipuncture

A

Phlebotomy

440
Q

surgical vessel repair procedure frequently used to reopen a blocked coronary artery

A

Angioplasty

441
Q

malignant cancer of the bone marrow and blood, affecting the white blood cells

A

Leukemia

442
Q

condition that occurs when a blood clot causes inflammation in one or more veins, typically those of the lower extremities

A

Thrombophlebitis

443
Q

innermost lining of the heart wall

A

Endocardium

444
Q

two lower pumping chambers of the heart

A

Ventricles

445
Q

the two upper chambers of the heart

A

Atria

446
Q

lack of adequate oxygen in the body tissues

A

Hypoxia

447
Q

one of three areas of specialized neuromuscular tissue that initiate the heartbeat, located in the upper wall of the right atrium; also called pacemaker of the heart

A

Sinoatrial (SA) node

448
Q

white blood cells created in the bone marrow that allow the body to recognize organisms that have invaded it previously

A

Lymphocytes

449
Q

vessels that carry lymph from the body to the lymph nodes

A

Afferent vessels

450
Q

immune response in which B lymphocytes produce antibodies that seek out and destroy foreign antigens; also called humoral immunity

A

Antibody-mediated response

451
Q

group of proteins activated by antibodies that assist in destroying bacteria, viruses, and infected cells

A

Complement

452
Q

a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, part of the herpes family, characterized by an increase in white blood cells that contain a single nucleus, and commonly found in young adults; also called mononucleosis, mono, or kissing disease

A

Infectious mononucleosis

453
Q

inflammatory reactions caused when the immune system produces antibodies that stick to the body’s own cells, resulting in damage to the body’s own cells and in the body attacking itself

A

Autoimmune disease

454
Q

two types (phagocytes and lymphocytes) of larger blood cells that fight infection and thus contribute to homeostasis; also called white blood cells

A

Leukocytes

455
Q

any substance that causes an allergic reaction

A

Allergen

456
Q

(CFS) immune system disorder of unknown origin that causes depression, sleep disorders, and lack of energy

A

Chronic fatigue syndrome

457
Q

primary locations where B lymphocytes reproduce and proliferate

A

Germinal centers

458
Q

lymphoid tissues in the pharynx, consisting of the pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids), palatine tonsils, and lingual tonsils

A

Tonsils

459
Q

immunity that is induced by a vaccine

A

Artificially acquired active immunity

460
Q

hypersensitivity to a normally harmless substance

A

Allergy

461
Q

series of immune system attacks on organisms and substances that invade the body systems and cause disease

A

Immune response

462
Q

(SLE) systemic immune system disorder in which the body produces abnormal antibodies that attack its own tissues rather than foreign organisms

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

463
Q

genes controlling cell growth and multiplication that are transformed into cancer cells by cancer-causing agents

A

Oncogenes

464
Q

medications that suppress the immune system

A

Immunosuppressants

465
Q

cells responsible for production of circulating antibodies that attack and destroy foreign antigens

A

B lymphocytes

466
Q

(RA) autoimmune disorder causing joints to be deformed because of inflammation

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

467
Q

in the lymph nodes, portion of node that is mainly populated by lymphocytes; in the thymus gland, the area where immature lymph cells reproduce and mature; in the kidney, outer layer, in which the arteries, veins, convoluted tubules, and glomerular capsules are found

A

Cortex

468
Q

clear fluid that travels through the body’s arteries, circulating through the tissues to cleanse them and keep them firm, and then draining away through the lymphatic system

A

Lymph

469
Q

immunity acquired from an outside source, such as breast milk, that lasts for a short time

A

Passive immunity

470
Q

occurs when the person is exposed to a live pathogen, develops the disease, and becomes immune as a result of the primary immune response

A

Acquired active immunity

471
Q

foreign substance that invades the body

A

Antigens

472
Q

cells that promote immunity by binding to antigens on the cells of a foreign substance

A

T lymphocytes

473
Q

condition resulting from an interruption of the normal lymphatic flow

A

Lymphedema

474
Q

immune response in which T lymphocytes directly bind with and destroy foreign antigens

A

Cell-mediated response

475
Q

process in which cancer cells break away from the original tumor and travel to other areas of the body where they form new tumors

A

Metastasis

476
Q

in the lymph node, the portion that is primarily made up of macrophages attached to reticular fibers; in the thymus gland, the area from which mature lymph cells reenter the circulation; in the kidney, the middle portion, in which the renal pyramids are found

A

Medulla

477
Q

without symptoms

A

Asymptomatic

478
Q

network of vessels, nodes, and ducts through which lymph is carried from the tissues and returned to the bloodstream; its functions include maintaining the body’s fluid balance, removing cellular wastes, transporting fatty acids from the digestive tract, and, as part of the immune system, defending the body from harmful foreign substances

A

Lymphatic system

479
Q

substance that contains the antigen and stimulates a primary response against the antigen without causing symptoms of the disease; substance that decreases the susceptibility to disease; also called immunization

A

Vaccine

480
Q

pharyngeal tonsils

A

Adenoids

481
Q

lymphoid tissue located in the chest, in the anterior mediastinum, that manufactures infection-fighting T cells

A

Thymus gland

482
Q

introduction of immunity by infection or with a vaccine

A

Active immunity

483
Q

use of chemicals, including drugs, to treat or control infections and diseases such as cancer

A

Chemotherapy

484
Q

a contagious viral infection frequently spread through oral contact; also known as infectious mononucleosis, mono, or kissing disease

A

Mononucleosis

485
Q

tissues, organs, and physiological processes that identify abnormal cells and foreign substances and defend against those that might be harmful

A

Immune system

486
Q

vessels that carry lymph from the lymph nodes to the rest of the body

A

Efferent vessels

487
Q

immunity you are born with; also called natural immunity

A

Innate immunity

488
Q

use of high-energy waves, such as X-rays, to damage and destroy cancer cells

A

Radiation therapy

489
Q

cells of the immune system that circulate in the blood; leukocytes

A

White cells

490
Q

specialized proteins that lock onto and have the ability to neutralize specific antigens

A

Antibodies

491
Q

extreme, often life-threatening response to an antigen or allergen; also called anaphylactic shock

A

Anaphylaxis

492
Q

several types of white blood cells that attack invading organisms

A

Phagocytes

493
Q

most common type of phagocyte; primarily attack bacteria

A

Neutrophils

494
Q

coughing up of blood

A

Hemoptysis

495
Q

inhalation; breathing in

A

Inspiration

496
Q

cartilaginous tube between the larynx and the main bronchi; also called windpipe

A

Trachea

497
Q

inflammation of the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or chemical irritants, often following influenza in the older adult and debilitated persons, and most commonly caused in the United States by Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Pneumonia

498
Q

bluish discoloration of the skin and nail beds because of lack of oxygen in the tissues

A

Cyanosis

499
Q

(TB) highly contagious disease caused by the bacillus Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which can grow anywhere in the body but is most commonly found in the lungs, where granular tumors are produced in the infected tissues

A

Tuberculosis

500
Q

condition in which fluid accumulates in the lungs, usually caused by failure of the heart’s left ventricle but also caused by lung problems such as pneumonia, an excess of intravenous fluids, some types of kidney disease, severe burns, liver disease, nutritional problems, and Hodgkin’s disease

A

Pulmonary edema

501
Q

bases of the lungs; the notch in the concave border of each kidney

A

Hilum

502
Q

small air sacs at the end of the bronchioles with a network of capillaries that perform the exchange of gases

A

Alveoli

503
Q

the chest

A

Thorax

504
Q

medications that open the bronchial passages

A

Bronchodilators

505
Q

fatty substance produced by the alveoli that reduces surface tension of fluid in the air-filled sacs

A

Surfactant

506
Q

condition in which the patient has trouble breathing unless a certain position is maintained, such as with head elevated

A

Orthopnea

507
Q

four pairs of cavities in the bones of the face that connect with the nasal passages: the maxillary sinuses, frontal sinuses, ethmoid sinuses, and sphenoid sinuses

A

Paranasal sinuses

508
Q

cancer of the lung tissue

A

Lung cancer

509
Q

abnormally slow respiration rate below 12 cycles per minute

A

Bradypnea

510
Q

nostrils

A

Nares

511
Q

wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart; cartilaginous wall that separates the internal portion of the nose into the right and left cavities

A

Septum

512
Q

musculomembranous tube about 5 inches long that extends from the base of the skull to the cervical spine and connects to the trachea and esophagus that serves as a passageway to the lungs for air and food to reach the stomach

A

Pharynx

513
Q

(COPD) progressive, chronic, usually irreversible respiratory system condition in which the lungs have diminished capacity for inhalation and exhalation

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

514
Q

(ABGs) measurement of oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood

A

Arterial blood gases

515
Q

the two main branches of the trachea extending into the lungs that are a passageway for air into the lungs

A

Bronchi

516
Q

flap of tissue that covers the trachea during swallowing

A

Epiglottis

517
Q

exhalation; breathing out

A

Expiration

518
Q

progressive respiratory system disease in which the tissues necessary to support the physical shape and function of the lung are destroyed, causing shortness of breath and other symptoms

A

Emphysema

519
Q

chronic inflammatory condition that typically develops when allergens or other irritating substances cause swelling in the lining of the trachea and bronchial tubes, which creates mucus that can cause coughing or difficulty breathing

A

Asthma

520
Q

conical, lobed, spongy, elastic organs in the chest that bring air into contact with the blood and facilitate the exchange of gases in the alveoli and interact with the circulatory system to deliver oxygen and remove carbon dioxide

A

Lungs

521
Q

type of pneumonia or lung infection caused by the Legionella bacteria

A

Legionnaires’ disease

522
Q

absence of breathing for more than 19 seconds

A

Apnea

523
Q

an inflammation of the pleura, the membrane surrounding the lungs, generally stemming from an existing respiratory infection, disease, or injury; also called pleuritis

A

Pleurisy

524
Q

infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by any one of a number of viruses and differing from other viral infections in its lack of producing high fever or significant fatigue

A

Common cold

525
Q

lack of adequate oxygen in the body tissues

A

Hypoxia

526
Q

infection or inflammation of the mucous membranes that line the inside of the nose and sinuses, causing them to swell and block the drainage of fluid from the sinuses into the nose and throat

A

Sinusitis

527
Q

(PE) blood clot in the lung, usually originating in smaller vessels in the leg, pelvis, arms, or heart and traveling to the lung, where it ultimately becomes wedged in a vessel too small to allow it to pass, causing that portion of the lung to die from lack of oxygen

A

Pulmonary embolism

528
Q

mandates at least 6 feet of separation between individuals when out in public settings

A

Social distancing

529
Q

difficulty breathing

A

Dyspnea

530
Q

thin sheets of epithelium that cover the outer surface of the lungs and the inside of the thoracic cavity

A

Pleura

531
Q

dome-shaped muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen and helps pump air into, and carbon dioxide out of, the lungs

A

Diaphragm

532
Q

respiratory system disorder in which the mucous membranes in the bronchial passages become inflamed, resulting in mucus production, coughing, and breathlessness

A

Bronchitis

533
Q

suffocation

A

Asphyxia

534
Q

an illness caused by a viral infection of the respiratory tract; also called flu

A

Influenza

535
Q

muscular, cartilaginous structure lined with mucous membrane at the lower end of the pharynx; also called voicebox

A

Larynx

536
Q

small, hair-like projections that cover the surface of some cells; in the nose, they trap dust, pollen, and other foreign matter to prevent them from entering the nasal cavity

A

Cilia

537
Q

small appendage attached to the cecum, which has no known function in humans

A

Appendix

538
Q

largest glandular organ that plays an essential role in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

A

Liver

539
Q

tube about 20 feet long extending from the pyloric sphincter of the stomach to the large intestine, made up of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum, that functions in digestion and absorption of nutrients

A

Small intestine

540
Q

membranous sac in which bile is stored and concentrated

A

Gallbladder

541
Q

chewing

A

Mastication

542
Q

collapsible tube about 10 inches long along which food is carried from the pharynx to the stomach

A

Esophagus

543
Q

condition in which a baby’s pylorus (the connection between the stomach and the duodenum) gradually swells and thickens, which interferes with food entering the intestine

A

Pyloric stenosis

544
Q

small pouch that forms the beginning of the large intestine

A

Cecum

545
Q

potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when the liver is damaged, usually after years of inflammation, scarring, or fibrosis that replaces healthy tissue and prevents the liver from working normally

A

Cirrhosis

546
Q

calcified, largely mineral tissue that forms the bulk of teeth

A

Dentin

547
Q

thin layer of bone that covers the dentin of the root of a tooth; provides protection and anchors the periodontal ligament

A

Cementum

548
Q

involuntary, wavelike, muscular contractions that move the bolus of food through the entire digestive system

A

Peristalsis

549
Q

condition in which the upper portion of the stomach protrudes into the chest cavity through a weakened or enlarged esophageal hiatus (an opening in the diaphragm normally large enough to accommodate only the esophagus)

A

Hiatal hernia

550
Q

collective term for colon and rectal cancer

A

Colorectal cancer

551
Q

formation of gallstones

A

Cholelithiasis

552
Q

elongated gland behind the stomach that secretes pancreatic juice into the small intestine as well as the hormones insulin and glucagon, which raise and lower blood glucose levels

A

Pancreas

553
Q

abnormal protrusion of an organ, or part of an organ, through the wall of the body cavity that contains it; the most common types of abdominal hernias are hiatal and inguinal

A

Hernia

554
Q

folds that allow the inner surface of the stomach to expand as food is ingested; also called gastric folds

A

Rugae

555
Q

final portion of the large intestine that stores solid waste until it is expelled from the body through the anus

A

Rectum

556
Q

a ring of muscle at the upper part of the stomach that opens and closes, allowing food and liquid to enter the stomach from the esophagus

A

Cardiac sphincter

557
Q

juices produced by cells and glands in the mouth, stomach, small intestine, and pancreas that help digest food

A

Digestive enzymes

558
Q

condition of having diverticula (small outpouchings in the large intestine), most typically in the sigmoid colon; increases with age because of the weakening of the colon walls

A

Diverticulosis

559
Q

chronic inflammatory condition of the colon

A

Ulcerative colitis

560
Q

glands in or near the mouth that produce saliva, which contains amylase, an enzyme that helps in the breakdown of carbohydrates

A

Salivary glands

561
Q

musculomembranous tube about 5 inches long that extends from the base of the skull to the cervical spine and connects to the trachea and esophagus that serves as a passageway to the lungs for air and food to reach the stomach

A

Pharynx

562
Q

inflammation or infection of a diverticulum (a small pouch or sac in the wall of the colon) generally caused by stool lodging in diverticula, which can lead to swelling or rupture

A

Diverticulitis

563
Q

a ring of muscle at the lower art of the stomach that opens and closes to allow food liquid to pass into the small intestine

A

Pyloric sphincter

564
Q

ball of food produced by chewing and saliva that can be swallowed

A

Bolus

565
Q

(IBS) common intestinal condition characterized by abdominal pain and cramps, diarrhea or constipation or both, gas, bloating, nausea, and other symptoms

A

Irritable bowel syndrome

566
Q

develops in the exocrine glands with vague symptoms that include pain in the abdomen or back, weight loss, bloating, diarrhea, and jaundice

A

Pancreatic cancer

567
Q

condition in which tissue or part of the intestine pushes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall in the groin area, causing a bulge in the groin or scrotum

A

Inguinal hernia

568
Q

inflammation of the appendix caused by a blockage of the inside of the appendix (the lumen), which leads to increased pressure, impaired blood flow, and potentially gangrene and rupture

A

Appendicitis

569
Q

large, muscular, saclike organ that secretes hydrochloric acid and gastric juices that convert food into chyme

A

Stomach

570
Q

semiliquid form of food that is passed from the stomach to the small intestine

A

Chyme

571
Q

a chronic disease of the intestines that primarily causes ulcerations in the lining of the small and large intestines but can affect the digestive system anywhere from the mouth to the anus; also called inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

A

Crohn’s disease

572
Q

(PUD) condition in which a disruption occurs in the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum

A

Peptic ulcer disease

573
Q

(GERD) condition in which the muscle at the superior portion of the stomach (the cardiac sphincter) does not close tightly or relaxes inappropriately, allowing gastric fluids and stomach contents into the esophagus and the throat

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

574
Q

Gums of the mouth

A

Gingivae

575
Q

tube about 5 feet long extending from the ileocecal valve at the small intestine to the anus; made up of the cecum, appendix, colon, and rectum, which function to complete digestion and absorption

A

Large intestine

576
Q

makes up the bulk of the large intestine and can be divided into the ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon

A

Colon

577
Q

dilated vein in the anus wall and sometimes around the rectum, usually caused by untreated constipation but occasionally associated with chronic diarrhea

A

Hemorrhoid

578
Q

inflammation of the large intestine caused by many different disease processes, including infections, primary inflammatory disorders, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s colitis, lymphocytic and collagenous colitis, lack of blood flow, and history of radiation to the large bowel

A

Colitis

579
Q

an inflammation of the gallbladder

A

Cholecystitis

580
Q

hardest and most compact part of the tooth, made up almost entirely of mineral; covers the exposed part of the crown

A

Enamel

CMA - Spr 24 (10 decks)

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