SG101 Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

How does smoking affect the liver?

A

Increases hepatic enzyme activity

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2
Q

What is the difference between additive and synergistic?

A

Additive: 2 drugs with similar actions increasing the effects
Synergistic: 2 different drugs potentiating different effects

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3
Q

Why should statin drugs be takin with food?

A

To increase absorption

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4
Q

Hair loss and peeling of skin is indicative of too much of what vitamin?

A

Vitamin A

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5
Q

What foods would be high in zinc?

A

Animal products such as meat & eggs

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6
Q

What mineral is thought to help control blood sugar levels for type II diabetes?

A

Chromium

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7
Q

What product would help increase iron absorption?

A

Orange juice

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8
Q

What is an acceptable residual amount in a gastrostomy tube following a feeding?

A

50-100ml

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9
Q

Pumpkin is a great source of which vitamin?

A

Vitamin A

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10
Q

What is a “low residue” diet?

A

Easily digested and absorbed and minimizes bulk.

All eggs, except fried, are low residue.

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11
Q

What is the most common contributing factor to obesity?

A

Excessive caloric intake.

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12
Q

What is serum transferrin?

A

A marker for protein status

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13
Q

Total cholesterol levels should be below ?

A

200

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14
Q

Potatoes are an excellent source of which vitamin?

A

Vitamin C

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15
Q

How do antacids affect medications?

A

They can slow or block drug absorption

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16
Q

Give 2 examples of complete proteins?

A

Eggs, meat

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17
Q

Food pyramid daily recommended servings of:
Veggies:
Fruit:
Grains:

A

Veggies: 3-5
Fruit: 2-4
Grains: 2-4

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18
Q

It is important for school age children to maintain adequate amounts of?

A

Protein, vitamin A, vitamin C

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19
Q

Which of the following is included in a full liquid diet:

Custard or fresh fruit?

A

Custard

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20
Q

Following initial X-ray verification, what is the most accurate way to check NG tube placement?

A

Measure PH of secretions

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21
Q

At what age does infant birth weight typically double?

Triple?

A

Doubles at 4-5 months

Triples at 1 year

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22
Q

Judaism prohibits mixing which 2 things together?

A

Milk/dairy with meat

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23
Q

List 4 things that proteins are important regarding the body?

A

T-cell production
Managing bleeding
Maintaining blood pressure
Transporting drugs systemically

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24
Q

Define “moderate” alcohol consumption

A

1 drink/day for women

2 drinks/day for men

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25
Q

Pre-albumin level below ? Indicates need for nutritional intervention?

A

11

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26
Q

List 3 foods on a vegan diet that would help supplement iron.

A

Tofu
Soybean milk
Orange Juice

27
Q

How is nitrogen balance monitored?

A

Grams of protein ingested vs. urinary nitrogen output for 24hrs

28
Q

What should you instruct a pt. to do while you remove an NG tube?

A

Hold their breath.

29
Q

Compared to refined grains, whole grains have more ?

A

Phytochemicals

30
Q

What is the formula for determining RDA of protein in the diet?

A

Kg X 0.8 = grams of RDA of protein

31
Q

A client who is in a positive nitrogen balance is most likely to be:

A

Pregnant

32
Q

What is the difference between marasmus and kwashiorkor?

A

Marasmus: wasting due to malnutrition

Kwashiorkor: wasting and edema due to inadequate protein intake

33
Q

Name 3 foods high in vitamin K.

A

Brussels sprouts, cauliflower, spinach

34
Q

What vitamin is given in large doses to facilitate wound and bone healing?

A

Vitamin C

35
Q

A client suffering from pernicious anemia is not absorbing what vitamin?

A

B12

36
Q

Can a client with hyperlipidemia obtain enough niacin through diet only?

A

No, the amount of niacin required for a hyperlipidemia patient would require supplementation.

37
Q

A mineral likely to be consumed in inadequate amounts by older adults is?

A

Potassium

38
Q

What is the best dietary advice for the prevention of Alzheimer’s?

A

Consume a high fiber diet.

39
Q

Parenteral nutrition is not recommended when the patient is well nourished and expected to resume oral intake within ? Days.

A

7-14 days

40
Q

What is a major factor contributing to overflow incontinence?

A

Enlarged prostate

41
Q

What is the urine collection container with marking for measurement called?

A

Graduate

42
Q

Which condition is more serious: dysuria or anuria?

A

Anuria

43
Q

How often should a urinary diversion appliance (stoma) be changed?

A

Every 5-7 days

44
Q

Normal WBC count in urine.

A

0-4

45
Q

Normal PH of urine.

A

4.5-8

46
Q

Normal 24hr urine output for an adult.

A

1500-1600ml

47
Q

Normal urine specific gravity.

A

1.010-1.025

48
Q

The desire to void occurs when how much volume is in the bladder?

A

250-450cc

49
Q

Beta blockers sometimes have what effect on the urinary system?

A

Urinary retention.

50
Q

How often should a urine drainage bag be emptied?

A

At least 3 times/day or every 8hrs

51
Q

Are fluids restricted before a scheduled cytoscopy?

A

No

52
Q

Is reflex incontinence accompanied by the urge to urinate?

A

Typically there is no urge associated with reflex incontinence.

53
Q

What type of drug is propantheline?

A

Anti-cholinergic

54
Q

Patients with chronic kidney problems produce insufficient erythropoietin and are susceptible to what?

A

Anemia

55
Q

One of the first signs of organ failure (of a pt. suffering burns, injury, etc.) is a urine output less than ?

A

30ml/hr.

56
Q

How much stool is needed for a stool,test for occult blood?

A

1” of formed stool

57
Q

Post surgery, what type of diet is often recommended for the first couple weeks?

A

Low fiber

58
Q

The stool of a pt. with biliary disease would appear?

A

White or clay colored

59
Q

What is an emollient solution?

A

Stool softener. May increase the amount of water secreted into the bowel.

60
Q

How might hypocalcemia affect bowel movements?

A

Can cause constipation

61
Q

Mineral oil can negatively affect the absorption of which vitamin?

A

Fat soluble vitamins

62
Q

A stool sample for ova and parasites should be kept ….

A

Warm

63
Q

What position is appropriate when receiving an enema?

A

Left lateral

64
Q

Normal hemoglobin for men:

A

14.0-17.4