Skin (Exam II) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the largest organ of the body?

A

Skin

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2
Q

What are the 4 main functions of skin?

A
  1. Protection
  2. Sensation
  3. Thermoregulation
  4. Metabolic functions
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3
Q

What are the 3 main layers of skin?

A
  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis
  3. Hypodermis
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4
Q

The hypodermis may also be called:

A

Subcutis

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5
Q

What types of insult does the skin provide protection from? (4)

A

UV, Mechanical, chemical & thermal

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6
Q

Our skin has protective qualities that prevent ______; and provides a physical barrier to ______.

A

Prevents dehydration

Microoganisms

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7
Q

Our skin is the largest _____ organ of the body.

A

Sense

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8
Q

The skin contains receptors for: (4)

A

Touch, pressure, pain & temp

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9
Q

Skin thermoregulation functions via:

A

Insulation via hair & subcutaneous fat

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10
Q

Heat loss in skin occurs by:

A

Sweat glands & dermal capillary network

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11
Q

For metabolic function of skin, energy is stored in:

A

Subcutaneous fat

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12
Q

Energy is stored in subcutaneous fat primarily as:

A

Triglycerides

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13
Q

Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin via:

A

Sunlight waves

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14
Q

What type of cells occupy the epidermis?

A

Keratinized, stratified squamous epithelium

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15
Q

The cells of the epidermis are called:

A

Keratinocytes

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16
Q

The epidermis varies in thickness, and this difference is reflected in terms of:

A

Thick skin and thin skin

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17
Q

Epidermis made of a thick highly keratinized layer

A

Thick skin

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18
Q

Thick skin is restricted to:

A

Volar (soles)
Palmar (palms)

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19
Q

Thick skin lacks _____, so its termed _____.

A

Hair; Glabrous

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20
Q

Most of the body is covered in _____.

A

Thin skin

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21
Q

Epidermis lacks:

A

Blood vessels

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22
Q

Blood vessels do not penetrate the:

A

Basement membrane

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23
Q

Epidermis is supplied and nourished by blood vessels in the:

A

Underlying (sub adjacent) dermis

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24
Q

When epidermis and dermis are combined, where is skin the thickest?

A

Shoulders and back of neck

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25
Q

Composed of dense, irregular, collagen outs connective tissue, interspersed with elastic fibers

A

Dermis

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26
Q

What type of collagen is present in the collagenous connective tissue of the dermis?

A

Type 1 collagen

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27
Q

Progressive damage to the elastic fibers or the dermis from sunlight waves results in:

A

Aging/loss of skin tone

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28
Q

Aging is caused by damage to:

A

Elastic fibers

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29
Q

The dermis is highly ____ and contains many _____.

A

Vascular ; sensory receptors

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30
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis?

A

Papillary layer & reticular layer

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31
Q

The papillary of the dermis is ____ and the reticular layer of the dermis is _____.

A

Papillary= superficial

Reticular= deep

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32
Q

Relatively thin layer of the dermis that interdigitates with the epidermis

A

Papillary layer

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33
Q

______ increase surface area for attachment and prevent shear and mechanical abrasion within the dermis

A

Corrugations

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34
Q

Epidermal projections into the dermis:

A

Epidermal ridges (rate ridges)

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35
Q

Epidermal ridges may also be called:

A

Rete ridges

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36
Q

Dermal projections into the epidermis:

A

Dermal ridges

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37
Q

Dermal ridges may also be called:

A

Dermal papillae

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38
Q

Large dermal ridges in the skin are called:

A

Fingerprinted (dermatoglyphs)

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39
Q

Fingerprints/ dermatoglyphs are:

A

Unique to each individual

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40
Q

What prevents the epidermis from peeling off when you bump into something?

A

Corrugations

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41
Q

Deeper layer of dermis that is thicker and less cellular than papillary layer:

A

Reticular layer

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42
Q

The reticular layer of the dermis contains: (3)

A

Hair follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands

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43
Q

The reticular of the dermis interdigitates with the underlying:

A

Hypodermis (subcutis)

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44
Q

Within the reticular layer of the dermis, thick collagen bundles & elastic fibers form:

A

Lines of tension (langer’s lines)

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45
Q

Skin incisions parallel to langer’s lines heal with:

A

Less scarring

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46
Q

Located below the dermis:

A

Hypodermis

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47
Q

Layer of loose, irregular connective tissue and adipose tissue

A

Hypodermis

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48
Q

What are all the different names for hypodermis? (3)

A

Subcutis, superficial fascia, panniculus adiposus

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49
Q

What are the 3 vascular plexi of the skin?

A

Subpapillary plexus
Cutaneous plexus
Subcutaneous plexus

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50
Q

The Subpapillary plexus is the most:

A

Superficial

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51
Q

The cutaneous plexus is located:

A

In between subpapillary plexus and subcutaneous plexus

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52
Q

The subcutaneous plexus is the most:

A

Deep

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53
Q

Arrange the vascular plexi of the skin in order of superficial to deep:

A
  1. Subpapillary plexus
  2. Cutaneous plexus
  3. Subcutaneous plexus
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54
Q

The subpapillary plexus is located at the junction of:

A

Papillary and reticular layers

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55
Q

Cutaneous plexus is located at the junction of:

A

Reticular layer and hypodermis

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56
Q

The subcutaneous plexus is located deep within:

A

Hypodermis

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57
Q

What vascular plexi is the largest?

A

Subcutaneous plexus

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58
Q

The vascular plexi of the skin are used in:

A

Thermoregulation

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59
Q

The vascular plexi of the skin are used in thermoregulation, especially in fingertips and ears, and are associated with _____ containing _____

A

AV shunts; glomus bodies

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60
Q

Thickened regions of smooth muscle in wall of arterioles, surrounded by connective tissue capsule

A

Glomus bodies

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61
Q

Bypass capillary bed, re-route blood from arterial to venous circulation

A

Glomus bodies

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62
Q

On winter day when outside our hands and feet get cold due to:

A

AV shunts and glomus bodies

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63
Q

Layer of skin that is continuously grown and replaced

A

Epidermis

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64
Q

It takes ~25-50 days for cells to travel from ______, mature, and be sloughed from _____.

A

Deep germinal layer ; superficial epidermis

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65
Q

In _____, keratinocyte maturation takes only ~1 week

A

Psoriasis

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66
Q

In psoriasis there is an absence of a ____ layer

A

Granular layer

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67
Q

In psoriasis we have abnormal: (2)

A

Keratohyaline & tonofibrils

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68
Q

Layers of the epidermis include:

A
  1. Stratum basale
  2. Stratum spinous
  3. Stratum granulosum
  4. Stratum lucidum
  5. Stratum corneum
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69
Q

What is another name for stratum basale:

A

Stratum germinativum

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70
Q

What is the basal layer of the epidermis?

A

Stratum basale

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71
Q

Mitotic layer or cuboidal germinal cells in the epidermis are bound to the basement membrane by:

A

Hemidesmosomes

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72
Q

Hemidesmosomes attach to the underlying dermis via: (2)

A

Anchoring filaments and microfibrils

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73
Q

Prickle cell layer

A

Stratum spinosum

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74
Q

Layer of epidermis where the cells look spiny; and its thickest layer of epidermis in the skin

A

Stratum spinosum

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75
Q

Prominent cells within stratum spinosum

A

Polyhedral cells

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76
Q

Polyhedral cells within the stratum spinosum have prominent: (3)

A

Intercellular bridges (desomosomes), numerous cytoplasmic processes & lateral folding of cell membrane

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77
Q

Predominant cell product of the stratum spinosum:

A

Cytokeratin

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78
Q

Cytokeratin of the stratum spinosum forms ______ that aggregate into larger _____ and anchor onto desmosomes

A

Tonofilaments ; Tonofibrils

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79
Q

Epidermal layer that helps glue the cells of the epidermis together, and prevents sloughing or separating

A

Stratum spinosum

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80
Q

Anchor to desmosomes and provide increased support

A

Tonofibrils

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81
Q

What type of keratin do humans produce?

A

Alpha keratin

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82
Q

What type of keratin do birds and reptiles produce?

A

Beta keratin

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83
Q

What is the difference between alpha and beta keratin:

A

Beta keratin is more robust, thicker and stronger than alpha keratin

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84
Q

Granular cell layer of epidermis

A

Stratum granulosum

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85
Q

The stratum granulosum is characterized by cells containing basophilic, _________.

A

Keratohyaline granules

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86
Q

The keratohyaline granules of the stratum granulosum are:

A

Basophilic

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87
Q

Basophilic, Non-membrane bound, electron-dense granules within the stratum granulosum

A

Keratohyaline granules

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88
Q

In the stratum granulosum, the keratiniziation of cells represents the interaction between:

A

Keratohyaline granules & tonofibrils

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89
Q

The cells of the stratum granulosum have distinctive:

A

Stippled cytoplasmic staining

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90
Q

Keratiniziation is initiated by the release of:

A

Lysosomal enzymes

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91
Q

The release of lysosomal enzymes in keratiniziation, results int he rupture of ________ & polymerization of their contents

A

Keratinohyaline granules

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92
Q

During keratinization process, following the rupture of keratohyaline granules & polymerization of their contents, this forms a:

A

Matrix for tonofibrils of cytokeratin

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93
Q

During the keratinization process, the matrix formed for tonofibrils of cytokeratin leads to an amorphous mass of:

A

Mature keratin

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94
Q

In keratiniziation release of lysosomes causes what to happen to the cell?

A

Cell death

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95
Q

As the keratinocytes mature, the _____ and lose ____.

A

Die and lose nuclei

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96
Q

Cells of the granular layer contain membrane-bound, lamellar structure called:

A

Keratinosomes

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97
Q

_____ contain glycolipids which provide waterproofing coat for skin cells

A

Keratinosomes

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98
Q

Cells of what layer mature to form waterproof layer of keratinized cells, with glycolipid coating on surface of epidermis.

A

Granular layer

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99
Q

Layer of epidermis present only in thick skin:

A

Stratum lucidum

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100
Q

Homogenous compact layer of enucleate cells between stratum granulosum & stratum corneum

A

Stratum lucidum

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101
Q

What type of cells are present in the stratum lucidum?

A

Enucleate cells

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102
Q

Thin skin will not have what layer?

A

Stratum lucidum

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103
Q

Most superficial layer of epidermis:

A

Stratum corneum

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104
Q

What is the thickest layer of epidermis in thick skin?

A

Stratum corneum

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105
Q

Flattened, enucleate, dead cell remnants:

A

Squames

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106
Q

What type of cell is characteristic of stratum corneum:

A

Squames

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107
Q

The stratum corneum is composed primarily of:

A

Soft keratin

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108
Q

The soft keratin of the stratum corneum acts as a:

A

Hydrophobic barriers preventing dedication

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109
Q

The stratum corneum is continuously:

A

Exfoliation

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110
Q

The process of continuous exfoliation:

A

Desquamation

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111
Q

In females, ____ cervical ____ cells are routinely examined in PAP smear, to detect cervical cancer.

A

Exfoliated cervical epithelial cells

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112
Q

Cervical skin cells are prone to _____ which leads to cervical cancer

A

Dysplasia

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113
Q

Three common types of skin tumors:

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Melanoma

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114
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma and basal cell carcinoma are both derived from:

Melanoma is derived from:

A

Epithelial cells

Melanocytes

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115
Q

Healing from a clean (surgical), approximated incision

A

First intention healing

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116
Q

After a clean cut, the incision immediately:

A

Fills with blood & clots

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117
Q

In first intention wound repair, within 3-24hrs, neutrophils infiltrate the clot: (what phase is this)

A

Acute phase

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118
Q

During wound repair, the epithelial cells of the stratum basale being:

A

Mitosis

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119
Q

What cells being mitosis during fist intention healing in wound repair?

A

Epithelial cells of stratum basale

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120
Q

For first intention wound healing to occur, the cut has to reach the:

A

Dermis (not just epidermis)

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121
Q

In first intention healing during wound repair, why do the epithelial cells of the stratum basale undergo mitosis?

A

To reapproximate the edges of the skin

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122
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, within 3-7 days the neutrophils are replaced by:

A

Macrophages

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123
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, when the neutrophils begin to be replaced by the macrophages (~3-7 days) this marks the transition of:

A

Acute to subacute phase

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124
Q

During the subacute phase of first intention healing, what three things start to occur?

A
  1. Neovascularization
  2. Fibroplasia
  3. Re-epithelialization
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125
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, neovascularization causes:

A

Growth of new blood vessels & repair of damage old vessels

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126
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair neovasuclarization, fibroplasia, & re-epithelization all lead to:

A

Production of granulation tissue

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127
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, fibroplasia refers to the production of ____ by ____.

A

Collagen by fibroblasts

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128
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, re-epithelization refers to:

A

Epithelial proliferation

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129
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, around day 5, the incision is filled with:

A

Granulation tissue

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130
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, during week 2, we are continued _____ and ______ leading to mature granulation tissue.

A

Fibroplasia and collagen accumulation

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131
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair during week 2, we have a progressive decrease in:

A

Inflammation

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132
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, the presence of inflammatory cells and inflammatory cell products leads to:

A

Itching

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133
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, around month 2, what should be be formed?

A

Connective tissue scar

134
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, around month 2, there should be no:

A

Inflammation

135
Q

During first intention healing during wound repair, around month 2, the connective tissue scar should be covered by:

A

Intact epithelium

136
Q

With deficiency in ____, collagen breaks down and the old scar can re-open and bleed.

A

Vitamin C

137
Q

During the first 24hrs of second intention healing compared to first intention healing, the scab/ clot:

A

Is much larger

138
Q

In second intention healing, inflammation is more intense because there is more _____, _____, and ______ to remove.

A

Necrotic debris
Exudate
Fibrin

139
Q

In second intention wound healing, during the weeks following the initial injury, the wound requires larger amounts of _____ because of its larger defect

A

Granulation tissue

140
Q

Second intention wound healing involves:

A

Wound contraction

141
Q

Excess fibroplasia resulting in a raised, thickened, connective tissue scar>

A

Keloid

142
Q

Keloid results from too much:

A

Collagen

143
Q

What type of wound healing occurs with more extensive loss of tissue, where the wound edges DO NOT approximate.

A

2nd intention healing

144
Q

An infarct, ulcer, or abscess would require what type of wound healing?

A

2nd intention

145
Q

During second intention wound healing, following the initial clot formation, the epithelial cells of the _____ migrate from the edges of wound at ~0.5mm per day.

A

Stratum basale

146
Q

In 2nd intention healing, around how long does it take to fill a 1 cm wide cut?

A

~3 weeks

147
Q

During second intention wound healing, in haired skin, migration of cells from ______ of hair follicles augments re-epithelialization

A

External root sheath

148
Q

During second intention wound healing simultaneous _____/______ of keratinocytes behind the migrating front slowly restore the multilayered stratified epidermis.

A

Proliferation/maturation

149
Q

During second intention wound healing, as the keratinocytes are migrating to fill in the gap, the cells of the stratum basale mature in a:

A

Vertical process

150
Q

During second intention wound healing, it takes on average ~25 days for cells to mature from the stratum basale to the stratum corneum in the process of:

A

Keratinization

151
Q

During second intention wound healing, the keratinization of new cells = the _____ and _____ of scab from periphery after ~ 3 weeks

A

Desquamation and lifting

152
Q

During second intention wound healing, after the scab falls off (from the edges first), this is followed by _____ due to _____.

A

Wound contraction due to myofibroblasts

153
Q

During second intention wound healing wound contraction is performed by what type of cell?

A

Myofibroblasts

154
Q

During second intention wound healing, in full thickness abrasion, or third degree burns, re-epithelialization is limited by:

A

Size of wound

155
Q

What is so special about myofibroblasts?

A

They produce collagen and have contractile properties

156
Q

A burn that only involves the epidermis:

A

1st degree burn

157
Q

Burn involving both epidermis and dermis

A

2nd degree burn

158
Q

Burn involving epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis (loss of all 3 layers)

A

3rd degree burn

159
Q

Neuroectodermal dendritic cells present in the epidermis

A

Melanocytes

160
Q

What is the origin of melanocytes?

A

Neural crest origin

161
Q

Melanocytes comprise a small # of cells, usually restricted to the:

A

Basal layer

162
Q

melanocytes have extensive ______ that may extend into the _____.

A

Cytoplasmic processes; stratum spinosum

163
Q

Melanin is released in melanocytes from organelles called:

A

Melanosomes

164
Q

Melanin is released by melanosomes & taken up by surrounding:

A

Epidermal cells

165
Q

In determining a melanocyte in an H&E stain, you look for a nucleus with a _____ in the basal layer

A

Halo

166
Q

What are the. Two types of melanin?

A

Eumelanin and pheomelanin

167
Q

Dark brown black pigment that presents in dark haired individuals

A

Eumelanin

168
Q

Red/yellow pigment that presents in individuals with red or blonde hair

A

Pheomelanin

169
Q

There are ___ #’s of melanocytes in all individuals, but ____ rates of melanin production & degradation by lysosomal enzymes

A

Equal #’s ; variable rates

170
Q

Lighter-skinned individuals produces less___ or digest _____ at a faster rate.

A

Pigment

171
Q

Darker skinned individuals ____ & _____ more pigment longer

A

Produce & retain

172
Q

Autoimmune disease leading to the destruction of melanocytes which leads to depigmentation

A

Vitiligo

173
Q

Melanin synthesis is under the control of pituitary hormone:

A

Melanocytes stimulation hormone (MSH)

174
Q

Color due to the arrangement of small structures or particles- seen in iridescent hummingbirds or insects

A

Structural color

175
Q

To produce melanin, ____ precursor is first oxidized to _____ by _______ .

A

Tyrosine ; DOPA; tyrosinase

176
Q

The tyrosine precurser is first oxidized to DOPA by tyrosinase located in organelles called:

A

Premelanosomes

177
Q

The initial steps of melanin production are followed by conversion of DOPA to ____ in _____.

A

Melanin in melanosomes

178
Q

Albinos lack _____, so DOPA and Melanin are NOT formed.

A

Tyrosinase

179
Q

In albinos, ____ form but do not mature.

A

Premelanosomes

180
Q

_____ can be used as a marker, to differentiate melanocytes from keratinocytes continuing phagocytosed melanin

A

Tyrosinase

181
Q

Using tyrosinase as a marker to differentiate melanocytes from keratinocyte containing phagocytosed melanin can by used in distinguishing:

A

Tumor types

182
Q

Melanin is important because it serves as a ____ to protect the nucleus and inhibit ____.

A

UV shield; mutagenesis

183
Q

Exposure to UV stimulates:

A

Melanin synthesis

184
Q

Melanin is necessary for:

A

Normal neural development

185
Q

Fixed tissue macrophage- phagocytic antigen presenting cells:

A

Langerhans cells

186
Q

Langerhans cells contain distinctive ___ visible on EM.

A

Birbeck granules (tennis racket)

187
Q

Where are langerhans cells located?

A

Within stratum spinosum

188
Q

What cells are involved in contact allergic dermatitis?

A

Langerhan’s cells

189
Q

Cells within the stratum spinosum that contain abundant cytoplasmic extensions

A

Langerhans cells

190
Q

Embryological outgrowths of epidermis

A

Skin appendages

191
Q

Hair, nails, sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and horns are all examples of:

A

Skin appendages

192
Q

Coarse hair on scalp, axillae and pubis known as:

A

Terminal hair

193
Q

Hair shaft consists of outer ____ and inner ____

A

Cortex ; medulla

194
Q

Shaft covered by thin ___ of overlapping keratin plates, prevent matting

A

Cuticle

195
Q

Hair shaft is produced by hair ____.

A

Follicles

196
Q

Cylindrical down growths of epithelium surrounded by collagen sheaths

A

Hair follicle

197
Q

Hair growth occurs within deep terminal expansion of follicle:

A

Hair bulb

198
Q

The hair bulb is synonymous with:

A

Hair root

199
Q

The hair bulb is lined with actively dividing ____ cells.

A

Epithelial

200
Q

In a hair bulb, the actively dividing epithelial cells are homologous to:

A

The stratum basale

201
Q

At the base of the hair is a vascular core called the :

A

Dermal papilla

202
Q

The finger-like invagination of dermis contains blood vessels

A

Dermal papilla

203
Q

As the epithelial cells lining the hair bulb mature, they fill with hard _______ arranged in ____ bundles.

A

Keratin filaments ; parallel bundles

204
Q

Melanocytes are located ___ to the hair follicle and produce melanin that becomes incorporated into the _____.

A

Adjacent; cortex

205
Q

The developing hair is surrounded by and protected by:

A

Internal and external root sheath

206
Q

What lines the hair follicle?

A

Internal & external root sheath

207
Q

Modified basement membrane that separates the hair bulb from the surrounding dermis

A

Glassy membrane

208
Q

Hair aids in ____ & ______; and is absent on the skin of palms and soles of feet.

A

Protection and thermoregulation

209
Q

Describe nucleus of arrector pili:

A

Elongated

210
Q

What type of cell s comprise the arrector pili:

A

Smooth muscle cells

211
Q

Arrector pili usually run ____ to hair shaft

A

30 degrees oblique

212
Q

Bundles of smooth muscle cells that attach hair to follicle sheath and insert on epidermal ridges:

A

Arrector pili muscle

213
Q

When arrector pili contract, they:

A

Raise hair

214
Q

What phenomenon are arrector pili associated with:

A

Goosebumps

215
Q

The proper name for goosebumps:

A

Piloerection

216
Q

Piloerection is caused by _____ stimulation due to cold/fear/aggression.

A

Sympathetic

217
Q

Where do arrector pili attach? Insert?

A

Attach: hair follicle sheath
Insert: on epidermal ridge

218
Q

Hair growth is NOT:

A

Continuous

219
Q

Hair: growth phase:

A

Anagen

220
Q

Hair: involuting phase (loss of blood supply) : signals to end active growth

A

Catagen phase

221
Q

Hair: inactive resting phase:

A

Telogen phase

222
Q

Hair: shedding of old hair shaft- cells have stopped dividing:

A

Exogen phase

223
Q

What phase of hair growth do we see baldness occur:

A

Exogen phase

224
Q

Fine body hair in children:

A

Vellus hair

225
Q

At puberty, vellus hair is replaced by:

A

Terminal hairs

226
Q

Most common form of hair loss, affecting 30-40% of adults

A

Androgenic alopecia

227
Q

Androgenic alopecia is both: _____ & _____ dependent

A

Genetic and androgen dependent

228
Q

Individuals affected with Androgenic alopecia have high levels of:

A

5-alpha-reductase

229
Q

5-alpha-reductase is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of:

A

Testosterone to dihydroxy testosterone

230
Q

The conversion of testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone results in:

A

Follicular atrophy

231
Q

Hair length is determined by the ____ phase relative to the _____ phase.

A

Growth phase relative to the resting phase

232
Q

Flattened nails are unique to:

A

Primates

233
Q

Nails consist of a flattened ______

A

Nail plate

234
Q

The nail plate rests on the _____ of the nail bed.

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

235
Q

Another term for nail bed is:

A

Hyponichium

236
Q

Proximal end of the nail=

A

Nail root

237
Q

Nail root extends into dermis, attaches to the periosteum of the:

A

Distal phalanx

238
Q

Nail root extends into the dermis and attaches to the _____ of distal phalanx

A

Periosteum

239
Q

Nail growth occurs by _____ & _____ of epithelium at nail root in ______ zone of nail matrix

A

Proliferation and differentiation ; germinative zone

240
Q

The germinal root of nail matrix is where what occurs:

A

Nail growth

241
Q

______ underlies the white crescent at the base of the nail

A

Nail matrix

242
Q

The white crescent at the base of the nail is called:

A

Lunula

243
Q

The lunula is covered by a superficial cuticle also known as:

A

Eponychium

244
Q

As epithelial cells mature, fill with keratin and die, this forms:

A

Nail plate

245
Q

Consists of densely packed, parallel, ______ filaments embedded in amorphous matrix.

A

Hard keratin

246
Q

The nail plate slides over the underlying nail bed epithelium as it:

A

Grows

247
Q

Alveolar and holocrine glands are classified as what type of glands:

A

Sebaceous glands

248
Q

Glands consisting of branched acini:

A

Sebaceous glands

249
Q

In this type of gland, by definition, the entire cell is secreted:

A

Sebaceous glands

250
Q

One or more ____ glands are associated with each hair follicle, and develop as outgrowths of external root sheath

A

Sebaceous glands

251
Q

Type of gland that looks foamy, almost like adipose tissue:

A

Sebaceous glands

252
Q

Sebaceous gland products are very:

A

Thick and viscous

253
Q

Sebaceous glands secrete oily _____ via _____ canal

A

Oily sebum, via pilosebaceous canal

254
Q

Sebum is high in ____ & cell debris

A

Lipid

255
Q

What is sebum used for?

A

Waterproofing and moisturizing skin and hair

256
Q

Sebaceous glands can also be found on non-haired ______ skin, and they secrete directly onto skin surface here.

A

Transitional skin

257
Q

Excessive secretion of sebum

A

Seborrhea

258
Q

Hair follicle + associated arrector pili + sebaceous gland =

A

Pilosebaceous unit

259
Q

When sebaceous glands are hypertrophic, this results in:

A

Acne

260
Q

Acne occurs when the products of sebaceous glands are so thick and viscous that canal gets blocked with dried products and ____ get trapped in the sebaceous glands

A

Bacteria

261
Q

Simple, coiled, tubular glands, surrounded by myoepithelial cells; assist in secretion

A

Sweat glands

262
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands?

A

Merocrine/eccrine

Apocrine

263
Q

What is another name for follicle mites?

A

Démodéx

264
Q

Sweat glands that by definition secrete only product:

A

Merocrine (eccrine)

265
Q

Merocrine (eccrine) glands can be made of:

A

Columnar or cuboidal epithelium

266
Q

In humans, Merocrine (eccrine) glands are distributed all over most of the body surface except for:

A

Lips and genitalia

267
Q

Unbranched, coiled, tubular glands, with 1-2 layers of cuboidal or columnar epithelium with excretory ducts:

A

Merocrine glands (eccrine)

268
Q

What type of ducts do Merocrine (eccrine) glands have?

A

Excretory

269
Q

Merocrine (eccrine) glands secrete sweat onto skin surface via ____ on _____

A

Sweat pore on epidermal ridge

270
Q

Sweat contains a hypotonic solution of: (4)

A

Salts, ammonia, urea, and uric acid

271
Q

Sweat is important in what functions?

A

Thermoregulation & evaporative cooling

272
Q

Body loses on average around 600ml per day of sweat through:

A

Evaporation from lungs, skin & mucous membranes

273
Q

Thermoregulatory sweating is:

A

Cholinergic

274
Q

Thermoregulatory, cholinergic sweating occurs by:

A

Parasympathetics

275
Q

Thermoregulatory/cholinergic sweating occurs first where and then where?

A

First: axillae, forehead, & scalp

Second: hands & feet

276
Q

Emotional sweating is _______.

A

Adrenergic

277
Q

Emotional, adrenergic sweating is due to:

A

Sympathetics

278
Q

Emotional/adrenergic sweating begins on:

A

The palms & soles

279
Q

Sweat glands that by definition secrete product + some cytoplasm

A

Apocrine sweat glands

280
Q

Coiled, tubular glands with large dilated lumina:

A

Apocrine sweat glands

281
Q

Describe the lumina of apocrine sweat glands

A

Dilated

282
Q

Apocrine sweat glands are located in the _____ & _____ , and develop at puberty.

A

Axillae & groin

283
Q

Sweat glands made of secretory, cuboidal epithelium that are 2-3 cell layers thick & surround large glandular lumen.

A

Apocrine sweat glands

284
Q

Apocrine glands discharge thick, viscid secretions into the:

A

Hair follicle

285
Q

The thick, viscid secretions of Apocrine glands contain: (5)

A
  1. Proteins
  2. Carbs
  3. Ammonia
  4. Lipids
  5. Organic products
286
Q

Originally, the secretions of apocrine glands are ____ when secreted, but bacterial breakdown results in _____.

A

Odorless; acrid odor

287
Q

Body odor is due to bacterial breakdown of:

A

Apocrine sweat gland products

288
Q

In mammals, the acrid odor resulting from bacterial breakdown of apocrine secretions, is used as a:

A

Pheromone

289
Q

Secretions from apocrine glands considered:

A

Adrenergic

290
Q

Modified apocrine glands in the external auditory meatus (ear canal)

A

Ceruminous glands

291
Q

Cerumen =

A

ear wax

292
Q

Glands that develop along paired epidermal ridges & extend from axillae to groin:

A

Mammary glands

293
Q

Mammary ridges and milk lines are also names for:

A

Epidermal ridges

294
Q

In humans, only the ___ pair of gland along milk line develops

A

First

295
Q

Mammary glands are highly modified _____ glands; identical in male & female until puberty

A

Sweat glands

296
Q

In females, mammary glands develop under the influence of ___ & ____ hormones

A

Pituitary & Ovarian

297
Q

In females, when do the pituitary and ovarian hormones influence the mammary glands to produce milk to feed young?

A

Following pregnancy

298
Q

At menopause, the mammary glands:

A

Atrophy & involute

299
Q

Mammary glands composed of mainly dense, irregular, collagenous connective tissue, interspersed with adipose tissue, & occasional smooth muscle

A

Inactive mammary gland

300
Q

A mammary gland is composed of ____ glands organized into ___.

A

Tubulo-acinar glands organized into secretory lobules

301
Q

Mammary glands are drained by:

A

Terminal ducts

302
Q

After the mammary glands drain into the terminal ducts, they further drain into larger:

A

Lactiferous ducts

303
Q

The lactiferous ducts of mammary glands empty into:

A

Lactiferous sinus

304
Q

The lactiferous sinus is located in the region of the:

A

Nipple

305
Q

Pigmented region of epidermis surrounding the nipple

A

Areola

306
Q

What type of epithelium makes up the areola? (What else does it contain as well)

A

Stratified squamous epithelium with deep dermal ridges

307
Q

Mammary glands contain numerous ____ glands, including ______ & ______ glands

A

Areolar glands, merocrine glands sebaceous glands

308
Q

During ____, mammary glands enlarge due to hypertrophy of secretory cells & accumulation of secretory product.

A

Lactation

309
Q

The first few days after birth, mammary glands secrete:

A

Colostrum

310
Q

Alkaline, yellowish secretion, with high protein & salt content, that is low in lipids & carbs

A

Colostrum

311
Q

Colostrum contains large amounts of _____, important in transfer of passive immunity to offspring

A

Antibodies

312
Q

_____ production is both merocrine & apocrine

A

Milk

313
Q

In milk production, ______ secretion is primarily merocrine & the _____ fraction is primarily apocrine

A

Protein; lipid

314
Q

Mechanoreceptors/touch receptors in dermal ridges of papillary layer:

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

315
Q

Where are Meissner’s corpuscles located?

A

Dermal ridges of papillary layer

316
Q

Meissner’s corpuscles are prominent in:

A

Hands, feet, lips, genitalia

317
Q

Shape of Meissner’s corpuscles?

A

Cylindrical

318
Q

In a Meissner’s corpuscle, there are _____ nerve fibers associated with minimally modified ____ cells.

A

Afferent nerve fibers; schwann

319
Q

Large Ovoid mechanoreceptors located in the dermis and hypodermis?

A

Pacinian corpuscles

320
Q

Pacinian corpuscles are prominent in:

A

Fingertips and around joints

321
Q

What type of pressure do Pacinian corpuscles detect?

A

Mechanical and vibratory

322
Q

Pacinian corpuscles consist of what type of nerve fibers surrounded by highly modified ______ cells?

A

Afferent ; schwann

323
Q

The afferent nerve fibers surrounded by highly modified schwann cells form _____ separated by fluid filled spaces.

A

Concentric lamellae

324
Q

Small dermal mechanoreceptors especially common in soles of feet:

A

Ruffini corpuscles

325
Q

Most numerous sensory receptor, present in epidermis and papillary dermis and surround most hair follicles:

A

“Free” N endings

326
Q

“Free” nerve endings lack:

A
  1. Connective tissue capsules
  2. Associated schwann cell
327
Q

“Free” nerve endings serve multiple sensory modalities including:

A

Heat/cold, touch, pain, movement

328
Q

Epidermal cells derived from neural crest

A

Merkel cells

329
Q

Cells that look like melanocytes; located in stratum basale, contain dense core granules, and store serotonin

A

Merkel cells

330
Q

Pressure-sensitive mechanoreceptors, associated with free afferent nerve endings and merkel discs:

A

Merkel cell