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RUSVM Small Animal Surgery I COPY > Small Animal Surgery Ear > Flashcards

Small Animal Surgery Ear Flashcards

1
Q

Blood supply for most of the ear

A

Caudal auricular artery. Runs towards apex

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2
Q

Collection of blood within the cartilage plate of the ear. Usually accumulates in the concave surface of the ear.

Predisposing factors:
Otodectes-cats
Bacteria- dogs
Capillary fragility from Cushings disease

A

Aural Hematoma

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3
Q

Goals of aural hematoma correction

A

Remove blood or clot
Prevent reoccurrence
Retain ear appearance

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4
Q

When is non surgical correction of aural hematomas used

A

For recent and fluctuated hematomas, and smaller hematomas

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5
Q

When is surgical correction of aural hematomas recommended

A

Chronic hematomas, harder to remove clots through aspiration, larger hematomas

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6
Q

Non surgical management for aural hematomas

A

Usually done in first 24 hours.

Use 18g needle and drain. Combine aspiration with IV or local Dexamethasone or methylprednisolone infusion for better outcome.

In ears that stand up make hole closer to skull to allow for drainage, in flopped ears make hole near tip of pinna.

Should repeat procedure for better success rates

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7
Q

Surgical treatment for aural hematoma.

Uses Penrose drain (for 5 days) or Teat cannula (for 3-5 days)

A

Passive drainage

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8
Q

Surgical treatment for aural hematoma

Uses butterfly catheter secured into the end of the ear and suction can be applied when needed. Promotes adhesion

A

Active drainage

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9
Q

Surgical treatment for aural hematoma.

Incision types

A

S shaped gap: 2mm space heals by second intention

Dermal punch: use punch, place multiple mattress sutures to close

Laser: 1mm spaces made throughout pinna, allows for adhesions

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10
Q

When suturing the pinna, this is the most appropriate pattern used

A

Vertical mattress.

Runs same direction of blood supply to prevent occlusion accidentally.

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11
Q

Plate secured to ear for surgical treatment of aural hematoma. Used after drainage or aspiration of hematoma. Decreases dead space and creates adhesions. Usually left on for 2 weeks

A

Practice hematoma repair system

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12
Q

If laceration on one skin surface of the pinna…

A

Heals by second intention of suture. Pinna usually maintains normal position

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13
Q

If laceration of two skin surfaces or cartilage of pinna….

A

Must do primary closure (vertical mattress usually)

Deep bites used to align cartilage, and superficially bite aligns skin.

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14
Q

Locally invasive tumor. Caused bleeding and cracked non healing wounds on ear margins. Low metastatic rate.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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15
Q

Indication for subtotal or total pinnectomy

A

Neoplasia, trauma, SCC

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16
Q

Procedure specifics for subtotal or total pinnectomy

A

Take 1-2cm margins from lesions. Pull skin from convex over cartilage. Close with monofilament suture

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17
Q

Which bulla osteotomy is more common in dogs

A

Lateral

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18
Q

Which bulla osteotomy is more common in cats

A

Ventral

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19
Q

Primary causes of otitis externa

A 
Parasites
FB
Hypersensitivities
Keratinization disorders
Autoimmune
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20
Q

Indication for lateral ear canal resection

A

Tumor involving tragus or lateral wall

Disease involving VERTICAL canal only

Improves ventilation, decreased moisture, better access for medicating

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21
Q

When performing a lateral ear canal resection why do you leave the ventral 1/3 of the flap created during surgery?

A

Decreases suture near stoma
Decreases strictures
Shifts hair bearing skin

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22
Q

Closure of a lateral ear canal resection

A

Suture epithelium and cartilage to skin, do deepest area first

Single layer closure using 3/0 monofilament

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23
Q

Complications with lateral ear canal resection

A

Inadequate drainage
Continued otitis externa (underlying disease or concurrent middle ear infection)

DONT DO THIS PROCEDURES IN COCKERS

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24
Q

Indications for a vertical ear canal resection

A

Hyperplastic otitis involving the vertical canal only.
Neoplasia
Trauma

Procedure is rarely done

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25
Q

What separates the vertical and horizontal ear canal?

This is the level at which you transect for a vertical ear canal resection

A

Annular ligament

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26
Q

Indications for a TECA with Lateral Bulla Osteotomy

A

Cercuminous gland adenocarcinoma
Extensive otitis
Failed lateral resection
Middle ear disease

You are a cocker spaniel….

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27
Q

How is a TECA done

A

T-shaped incision
Dissect around cartilage until you reach the bulla
Avoid the facial nerve
Amputate canal close to auditory meatus

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28
Q

How to perform a lateral bulla osteotomy (dog)

A

Remove soft tissue from lateral bulla
Avoid stray dissection (This shit is there: Retroglenoid vein, carotid artery, maxillary artery, facial nerve)
Create keyhole with Rongeurs at osseus prominence
Curettage bulla floor for retained epithelium
Irrigate and close
Submit cytology and C/S

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29
Q

Why do you avoid the rostral aspect inside the tympanic bulla during osteotomy?

A

Sympathetic nerves lie and can initiate horners syndrome

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30
Q

Post op care for TECA Lat. Bulla Osteotomy

A

Ice pack wound
Multimodal analgesia (local, CRI, opioids)
Antibiotics (7-10 days)
Drains and bandages
(No drain if you remove all epithelium, bandage inhibits ability to clean so might not use)

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31
Q

Damage to the post ganglionic sympathetic fibers

A

Horners syndrome

Enopthalmos, miosis, ptosis, 3rd eyelid up

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32
Q

Why cant animals hear after TECA BO

A

Most already have bad hearing from disease

Fibrous tissue fills the bull further diminishing sound transmission through skin

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33
Q

How to correct damage to retroglenoid vein (hemorrhage) during TECA BO

A

Pack bone with bone wax, vein usually retracts when severed and cant be found.

Life threatening issue

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34
Q

How to treat infection or draining tract after TECA BO

A

Long term antibiotics, consider tubes

Draining tracts develop due to incomplete removal of affected epithelium

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35
Q

Destructive keratin in the middle ear

A

Cholesteatoma

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36
Q

How to diagnose otitis media

A

Examine for other derm diseases
Palpate Lymphnodes
TMJ joint palpation
Neuro exam (facial paralysis, Horners)

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37
Q

Diagnostic method for otitis media, Use general anesthesia. Examine tympanic membrane and malleus. Consider cytology and C/S sample by myringotomy if membrane is intact

A

Otoscopy

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38
Q

Radiologic findings of otitis media

A

Loss of air density and thickening of wall

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39
Q

Most sensitive test for detecting otitis media

A

MRI, detects early disease

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40
Q

Medical management for otitis media

A

Myringotomy
Irrigating with saline
Topical and systemic non ototoxic antibiotics for 4-6 weeks

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41
Q

Indications for surgical treatment of otitis media

A

Severe canal stenosis
Tympanic bone infection
Failure of medical management
Significant neurological signs

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42
Q

Surgical management of otitis media in cats

A

Ventral Bulla Osteotomy (when disease confined to middle ear) and inflammatory polyps

Lateral Bulla Osteotomy: combined with TECA, rare in cats

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43
Q

Non neoplasia, made of inflammatory and epithelial cells. Occur in young cats. Signs based on location

A

Middle ear polyps

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44
Q

Sites of origin for middle ear polyps in cats

A

Tympanic bulla, Auditory tube, Nasopharynx

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45
Q

Management of polyps that must be seen through the tympanic membrane. Reoccurrence in 50%

A

Traction extraction

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46
Q

Commonly done to correct polyps in cats. Done in dorsal recumbancy

A

Ventral bulla osteotomy

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47
Q

Why are cats more likely to develop horners syndrome

A

Nerves run superficial in ventromedial area

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48
Q

Usually occurs in the lower lip. can affect either. Caused by shearing trauma.

A

Labial avulsion.

Avulses along mucogingival line

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49
Q

When correcting lip avulsion, remove this to prevent saliva leaking causing pyoderma

A

Lip frenulum

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50
Q

Suture reconstruction is effective for these lip avulsions

A

Maxillary

Mandibular are usually too heavy.

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51
Q

How to correct mandibular lip avulsions

A

Use needle below gingival margin to pass wire through tissue and through lip. Place button outside mouth to reduce tension. Suture the mucogingival junction closed.

Do not place anything around teeth.

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52
Q

Moist dermatitis just caudal to canine teeth. Causes pain and foul odor.

Occurs in pendulous lipped breeds

A

Lip fold pyoderma

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53
Q

Treatment for lip fold pyoderma

A

Wedge resection and tissue moved forward.

Surgical consideration based on breed, lesion size and location (proximity to mucocutaneous junction)

Avoid mucosal inversion. Start suturing at lip margin to avoid step deformity. Figure 8 of suture apposed lip margin well at mucocutaneous junction

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54
Q

Reconstruction option for lip

A

Labial advancement flap: Come up at fornex and make incision through lip and advance lip comminsure forward

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55
Q

When to use labial rotation flap for reconstruction

A

When you need to include a lot of oral mucosa and reconstruct inside and outside of lip

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56
Q

Most common location of salivary mucocele in the dog

A

Sublingual - Monostomatic portion

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57
Q

Salivary glands that share a capsule

A

Sublingual Monostomatic portion and Mandibular gland

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58
Q

Which salivary gland has two portions

A

Sublingual : Monostomatic, and Polystomatic (more rostral)

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59
Q

Additional salivary gland in the cat

A

Molar gland

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60
Q

During physical exam you see fluctuated swelling suspect

A

Mucocele

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61
Q

During physical exam you see swollen/enlarged salivary gland suspect

A

Primary gland disorder

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62
Q

Subcutaneous (submucosal) accumulation of saliva within a nonepithelial, nonsecretory lining.

Most common disease of the salivary system in dogs and cats

Soft and non painful

A

Salivary mucocele

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63
Q

Why would a salivary mucocele become painful?

A

Acute inflammation or secondary infection

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64
Q

Definitive treatment of salivary mucocele

A

Removal of associated glands

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65
Q

Conservative treatment for salivary mucocele in high risk patients

A

Percutaneous aspiration.

Hard to make a difference with this treatment

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66
Q

Treatment for salivary mucocele as a salvage procedure, or in high risk patients

A

Marsupilaization of Ranula.

Doesnt treat the cause and you are suturing the edge to granulation tissue and it will still heal in no matter the hole. Still might have to remove the gland in the future.

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67
Q

During excision of mandibular and sublingual salivary glands…

A

Make sure you remove rostral components or mucocele will re form

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68
Q

Incision orientation for removal of mandibular/sublingual salivary gland

A

Horizontal.

Vertical limits exposure to entire gland. Though it allows access to the parotid gland

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69
Q

Avoid this during salivary gland surgery

A

Digastricus muscle

Will loose ability to open mouth

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70
Q

Attempt to do this during mucocele surgery to improve visualization

A

Aspirate the mucocele

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71
Q

Thought to occur as result of trauma to the parotid duct. Treat by ligating allowing for atrophy

A

Parotid fistula

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72
Q

Most important component of treatment for small animals with solid tumors

A

Surgery

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73
Q

Useful for diagnosing certain round cell tumor malignancies. Be causous because inflammation can resemble malignancy

A

Cytology

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74
Q

Imaging of primary tumors is important for

A

Intracavitary tumors, firm and non-mobile tumors

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75
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of neoplasia

A

Biopsy.

Recommended before any definitive treatment is performed for certain tumors.

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76
Q

When taking a biopsy consider

A

Taking from multiple areas of mass, Sample size, Should contain junction between normal and abnormal tissue

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77
Q

Use when less invasive sampling techniques have not yielded a diagnosis. Does require a second surgical procedure and may contribute to tumor seeding. Should do deep and narrow cut for better closure

A

Incisional biopsy

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78
Q

Removes tumor along with margin of surrounding normal tissue. Allows removal of smaller non invasive masses (<5mm). Dont do if tumor is too large

A

Excisional biopsy

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79
Q

When to consider an excisional biopsy

A

Gingival lesions, lesion known to be benign, lesion too small, treatment would not be altered by tumor type.
Best chance of cure is at first surgery

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80
Q

Use contains the most aggressive of cells within the tumor

A

Capsule

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81
Q

Type of excision used for lipomas and benign masses. Goal is microscopic disease for malignant lesions

A

Marginal/Cytoreductive

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82
Q

Excision with removal of 2-3cm normal tissue and 1 fascial place deep.
Should be based on imaging and histopath report from biopsy including: grade, mitotic index, and degree of differentiation

A

Wide excision

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83
Q

Excision with removal of the entire compartment. Includes amputation and hemipelvectomy

A

Radical excision

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84
Q

Tumors to be removed with wide excision

A

Mast cell tumors (high grade) and soft tissue sarcomas (High grade and vaccine associated sarcomas)

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85
Q

Good for use with Mast cell tumors. Can be done on FNS. Done preoperatively and correlates with histopath grading after surgery allowing for surgical planning

A

Agmor scoring

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86
Q

A debulking surgery but leaves part of tumor behind which can be biologically active. Goal is to enhance efficiency of other treatments

A

Cytoreductive surgery.

Can be done before photodynamic therapy and cryotherapy

87
Q

Injection of a drug and after it accumulates in tumors activate the drug with a light such as a laser as treatment for tumors

A

Photodynamic therapy

88
Q

If tumor is fixed to a structure assume

A

It has invaded that tissue and remove it also

89
Q

Do this to local draining lymphnode prior to surgery on neoplasia

A

Aspirate and perform cytology

90
Q

Local lymphnode excision is prognostic for these tumor types

A

Mammary carcinoma
Mast Cell Tumors
Apocrine Gland Adenocarcinoma of the anal sac

91
Q

Uses radioactive material and nuclear scintigraphy or fluoroscopy to tract lymph nodes that drain a mass

A

Sentinel Lymph Node mapping

92
Q

Will improve quality of life but not extend life or alter course of disease

A

Palliative treatment

93
Q

Examples of palliative therapy

A

Splenectomy for hemagiosarcoma
Amputation for OSA
Partial cystectomy for TCC

94
Q

Surgical margins should be marked by these on tumor excisions

A

Dye covering excised area, sutures, excising additional tissue from surgical bed

95
Q

How to fix tissue for histopathology

A

Allow ink to dry 1 hour before fixing
10% Formalin
Formalin to tissue ratio of 10:1
Bread load cut lesions that are >1cm to allow uniform fixation

96
Q

Why is immunhistochemistry helpful for tumors

A

Can determine the cell of origin as tumors become less differentiated

97
Q

Needs to be requested when submitting histopathology

A

Margin evaluation

98
Q

Most common malignant oral tumor. Occurs more often in males.

If mucocutaneous and nail bed- malignant
If haired skin- benign

A

Melanoma

99
Q

Locally invasive. Metastasizes early to regional lymphnodes and lungs. Gingival most common place

A

Oral melanoma

100
Q

Which three lymphocentrums drain the oral cavity

A

Mandibular, parotid, retropharyngeal

101
Q

Palliative treatment for nonresectable tumors (oral melanoma)

A

Radiation therapy once a week for 4 weeks

102
Q

Second most common malignant oral tumor

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

103
Q

Type of oral squamous cell carcinoma. The further caudal in the mouth the worse the prognosis. Locally invasive and slow to metastasize. Surgical resection recommended. Piroxicam chemo can be used

A

Nontonsillar Squamous cell carcinoma

104
Q

Highly malignant, usually occurs unilateral in oral cavity. Early metastasis to distant sites.

A

Tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma

105
Q

In cats, common on gingiva or under tongue. Can have extensive bone involvement. Often advanced disease at diagnosis. Treat with Piroxicam chemo, radiation doesnt work.

A

Oral squamous cell carcinoma

106
Q

Oral tumor in large breeds. Gingiva is common place, usually on maxilla caudal to the canine tooth. Locally invasive and slow growing in older dogs. Treat with wide surgical resection. Aggressive in young dogs. Local recurrence common

A

Fibrosarcoma

107
Q

Benign oral tumor. Proliferation of fibrous connective tissue containing displaced cells of dental supporting structures. Local excision curative

A

Peripheral odontogenic fibroma

108
Q

Oral tumor that arises from remnants of epithelial cells that produce periodontal ligament. Contains sheets of squamous epithelium in fibrous connective tissue stroma. Benign but locally invasive. Treat with surgical excision and radiation

A

Acanthomatous Ambleoblastoma

109
Q

Odontogenic tumor. Arises from dental laminar epithelium. May be cystic or multiloculated with considerable bone destruction. Mesenchyme not stimulated to produce dental hard tissues.

A

Central Ameloblastoma

110
Q

Odontogenic tumor. Mesenchyme induced to produce hard tissues. Containers tooth structures if compound, dental tissues cant be differentialted if complex

A

Odontoma

111
Q

Oral tumor in young dogs (6-24 months). Very aggressive and early metastasis. Usually on maxilla caudal to canine tooth. Usually external facial swelling and loss of teeth. Often surgvive less than 1 month.

A

Undifferentiated Malignant Oral Tumor

112
Q

When performing a mandibular to my going caudal to this results in interference with the tongue and eating/drinking

A

1st Molar

113
Q

After this mandibulectomy usually need feeding tube

A

3/4 Mandibulectomy

114
Q

When beforming total mandibulectomy (total or subtotal) dissect and remove at least up to the

A

Medullary canal

115
Q

Improves ability to pretend food and drink water and prevents tongue loll on that side after mandibulectomy

A

Shortening of the lip commissure

116
Q

Post op car for mandibulectomy or maxillectomy

A

IV fluids for first 24 hours.
Pain medication including nerve blocks
Possible feeding tube

117
Q

More common complication with rostral mandibulectomies

A

Wound dehiscence

118
Q

Possible mandibulectomy complications

A

Swelling
Wound dehiscence
Mandibular drifting (clicking)
Inability to prehend food.

119
Q

How to reduce nose dropping from bilateral rostral maxillectomy caudal to canines

A

Remove the canines or decrease crown height

120
Q

Long term follow up for malignant oral tumors

A

Recheck every 2 months. Then chest rads every 6 months and yearly exam

121
Q

Vaccine available as treatment for stage 3 or more

A

Malignant oral melanoma

122
Q

Low grade oral tumor. Likes to go to flat bones and vertical ramus of the mandible

A

Multlobularosteochondrosarcoma

123
Q

Indications for exodontics

A

Retained deciduous teeth
Severe periodontal disease
Non-vital teeth or fractured crown with root exposure.
Teeth undergoing resorption

124
Q

Curved root tip

A

Dilaceration

125
Q

Expansion of the apical portion of the tooth root

A

Hypercementation

126
Q

Wider space between teeth

A

Diastema

127
Q

Toward the root or away from the crown

A

Apical

128
Q

Toward the crown

A

Coronal

129
Q

The only visible part of the periodontium int e normal mouth

A

Gingiva

130
Q

Potential space between tooth and gingiva. Where you probe for disease

A

Gingival sulcus

131
Q

Communication between tooth root and the pulp

A

Lateral canal

132
Q

Where the pulp exits the teeth in dogs and cats

A

Apical delta

133
Q

Very common place on tooth for periodontal disease to begin. Spot up between the roots on molars and premolars

A

Furnication

134
Q

Carnasal teeth in the dog

A

Upper P4 and Lower M1.

Transitional teeth

135
Q

Teeth with three roots in canine

A

Upper P4, M1, M2

136
Q

Teeth with two roots in canine

A

Upper P2, P3 Lower P2, P3, P4, M1, M2

137
Q

Functions of the periodontal ligament

A

Attaches tooth to alveolus

Absorbs shock and provides proprioceptive info during mastication (make sure you dont break teeth)

Supplies nutrients to alveolar bone and cementum and drains

138
Q

Isolates the tooth from the surrounding bone and the osteoclasts that remodel the bone.

A

Periodontal ligament

If osteoclasts invade tooth will reabsorb essentially

139
Q

The shelf on the palatal surface of the maxillary incisors where the mandibular incisors occlude or rest

A

Cingulum

140
Q

Releases saliva and makes tartar accumulate faster on Upper P4

A

Parotid Salivary Gland Papilla

141
Q

Form in utero and give rise to permanent buds

A

Deciduous buds

142
Q

Forms dentin throughout the life of the tooth

A

Odontoblasts

143
Q

Formed by ameloblasts on the crown of the tooth prior to eruption

A

Enamel

144
Q

Formed by remnants of the dental sac on the outer dentinal surface of the root when the tooth is almost mature. Produced throughout life

A

Cementum

145
Q

Thickness of enamel in dogs

A

<0.1 mm to 0.6mm

146
Q

Thickness of enamel in cats

A

<0.1 to 0.3 mm

147
Q

Part of the tooth not replaced if damaged

A

Enamel

148
Q

Part of tooth consists of blood vessels, lymphatics, nerves, and connective tissue

A

Pulp

149
Q

Age at which apex of tooth should be closing and dentin thickening occurs

A

1.5 years

150
Q

Dogs erupt permanent incisors and canines at

A

3-6 months

151
Q

Dogs erupt deciduous incisors and canines at

A

3-4 weeks

152
Q

Dogs erupt permanent premolars at

A

4-6 months

153
Q

Dogs erupt permanent molars at

A

5-7 months

No deciduous molars

154
Q

Cats have all permanent teeth by

A

3-6 months

155
Q

Dogs have ____ deciduous teeth

A

28

156
Q

Dogs have ____ adult teeth

A

42

I 3/3 C 1/1 P4/4 M2/3

157
Q

Any carnivore that is missing teeth are considered to be missing

A

Premolars from the front and molars from the back

158
Q

Cats have ____ deciduous teeth

A

26

159
Q

Cats have ___ adult teeth

A

30

I 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1

3 Maxillary premolars are 2, 3, and 4
2 Mandibular premolars are 3 and 4

160
Q

In schnauzers and shelties caused by retained deciduous tooth

A

Lancet tooth

161
Q

Retained deciduous teeth are most commonly

A

Incisors and canines

162
Q

In reference to permanent teeth, deciduous teeth are located

A

Buccal and labial

163
Q

Maxillary canines erupt _____ to deciduous canines

A

Mesial

164
Q

Common issue with tooth position in brachycephalics. Maxillary 3rd premolars most commonly effected

A

Crowding

165
Q

Supernumerary teeth. Usually unilateral, and in maxilla. Often incisors or premolars. Can cause malocclusion, overcrowding, or incomplete eruption. Remove them if concerned

A

Polyodontia

166
Q

Incomplete splitting into two teeth. Two crowns and one root

A

Gemination

167
Q

Genetic defect where teeth never develop. Most common in premolars. If deciduous tooth is missing adult tooth will be also. Radiograph will show if missing or impacted. Common in brachycephalics

A

Anodontia or Oligodontia or Hypodontia (missing teeth)

168
Q

Class 1 Malocclusion

A

Malpositioned teeth, jaw length is normal

Can have cross bite, base narrow canines

169
Q

Class 2 Malocclusion

A

Mandibular brachygnathism.

Parrot mouth, overshot

170
Q

Class 3 Malocclusion

A

Mandibular prognathism

Undershot (mandible sticking out) think bulldogs

171
Q

When maxillary premolars are lingual to mandibular premolars or molars. Type of class 1 malocclusion. Probably inherited but not common

A

Posterior cross bite

172
Q

When incisor crowns meet. Class III Malocclusion. Leads to abnormal wear on incisors commonly repaired by tertiary dentin. Called attrition

A

Level bite

173
Q

Malocclusion with unequal arch development. Caused by trauma or inherited. Maxillary and mandibular midlines dont line up

A

Wry mouth

174
Q

Removal of primary teeth to avoid or correct problem

A

Interceptive Orthodontics

175
Q

Uncommon in the dog and cat. Suggested causes are lack of space in the dental arch or mal-alignment of the tooth bud

A

Impacted teeth

176
Q

Occurs from damage to ameloblasts during enamel development or exposure to corrosive material. Can result from high fevers with infection or endocrine dysfunction.

A

Enamel hypoplasia/hypocalcification

177
Q

How to treat enamel hypoplasia

A

Restore defect with composite if focal or cap teeth

178
Q

Yellowing of teeth from exposure to this in utero or while younger than 6 months. Dentin is the affected layer

A

Tetracycline staining

179
Q

Caused by abnormal contact with crown surface by foreign objects like tennis balls or rocks. Establish if there is endodontic exposure, if so treat with root canal

A

Abrasion

180
Q

Uncommon but could occur on flat surfaces of teeth. Caused by bacteria. Appear brown-yellow and soft spots. Cap, extract, or root canal

A

Dental caries

181
Q

Results from endodontic and periodontal lesions. Signs include fistulas, fractures, and abscesses

A

Periapical infections

182
Q

Parulis

A

Draining tract associated with teeth

183
Q

Caused by issues with roots of maxillary molars 1 and 2 in the zygomatic arch, and apical disease

A

Retrobulbar disease

184
Q

Occurs focally from periodontal disease or generally in boxers. Drugs like cyclosporine, ca channel blockers, and anticonvulsants can result in this. Treat by removing excessive tissue to return sulcus depth to normal. Rinse BID with 0.2% chlorhexidine for 2 weeks after tx

A

Gingival hyperplasia

185
Q

Possibly reversible and causes discoloration of tooth. Check if tooth is viable with translumination and radiographs.

A

Pulpitis

186
Q

Objective is to maintain a viable tooth that will continue to mature. Can only do in young animals usually. Better success if done in less than 48 hours since injury, buys time for tooth to mature. Monitor yearly at least.

A

Vital pulpotomy

187
Q

Perform at greater than 24 months old because pulp chamber might still be too wide. Maintains tooth function but tooth is dead. Completely removes pulp contents. Seals tooth from enviornment

A

Complete root canal

188
Q

Stage 1 tooth resorption

A

Mild hard tissue loss. Basically just small defect in enamel noticed only. No sensitivity yet

189
Q

Stage 2 tooth resorption

A

Moderate tissue loss including enamel and cementum and hasnt reached pulp cavity

190
Q

Stage 3 tooth resorption

A

Loss of cementum, enamel, and dentin and reaches into pulp chamber. Most of the tooth is still viable

191
Q

Stage 4 tooth resorption

A

Extensive loss of hard tissue and tooth has lost its integrity. Sub-stages a-b means crown loss through c which has root loss

192
Q

Stage 5 tooth resorption

A

Only remnant of tooth remain covered by gum tissue leaving raised area

193
Q

Features of type 1 tooth resorption lesions

A

Focal or multifocal. Periodontal ligament is intact. Gingivitis and periodontitis. Treat with extraction

194
Q

Features of type 2 resorption lesions

A

Focal or multifocal. Disappearance of periodontal ligament no evidence of periodontitis. Treat with amputation of crown

195
Q

Might be caused by calicivirus. Signs include pytalism, halitosis, dysphagia. Severe marginal gingivitis. Diagnosis with histopath. Remove entire tooth with steroids, Oravet q48hr, Cyclosporine, antivirals.

A

Gingivostomatitis (lymphocytic plasmacytic gingivostomatits)

196
Q

Starts less than 9 months of age. Severe gingivitis and periodontal disease. Usually outgrow by 2 years old, might need extractions

A

Juvenile onset periodontitis

197
Q

Most common oral disease and number 1 cause of tooth loss

A

Periodontal disease

198
Q

Stages of periodontal disease are based on

A

Gingival appearance, Sulcular depth, percentage of bone loss, and tooth mobility

199
Q

Normal sulcus depth

A

1-3 mm in dogs 0-1mm in cats

200
Q

Stage I gingivitis

A

Erythema, Gingiva bleed when probed, Normal sulcus depth. Reversible with treatment

201
Q

Stage II gingivitis

A

Gingiva bleed, minor pockets, minimal bone loss, no mobility, Periodontis controlled but cant be reversed.

202
Q

Stage III gingivitis

A

Gingival recession, deep pockets, bone loss, mobility of teeth

203
Q

Stage IV gingivitis

A

Deep pockets, recession, bone loss, furcation exposure. Advanced disease and mobility of teeth

204
Q

Objectives in treatment of periodontal disease

A

Remove biofilm
Minimize attachment loss and pocket depth
Maintain adequate attachment gingiva (2-3mm)

205
Q

Number 1 preventative method for periodontal disease

A

Mechanical abrasion and surface active agents. HOMECARE

Start daily tooth brushing prior to professional treatment

206
Q

Rinse used in dental cleanings

A

0.12% chlorohexadine rise

207
Q

Best type of dental power scaler to use

A

Ultrasonic

208
Q

Used for subgingival calculus removal

A

Curette

209
Q

How to check for missed calculus

A

Disclosing solution or air from a 3 way syringe

210
Q

Essential step to dental cleaning

A

Polishing

211
Q

Measures the amount of overall tissue loss. Recession measurement plus the pocket depth equals the amount of attachment loss.

A

Periodontal index

212
Q

When using dental film the dimple is always pointed

A

Coronally and toward the xray tube

213
Q

Most common technique for dental xrays

A

Bisecting angle

214
Q

The SLOB rule is used for this tooth during dental radiographs

A

P4 or 108.

Same Lingual Opposite Buccal

RUSVM Small Animal Surgery I COPY (15 decks)

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