STC Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Does SIPC protect separate customers or separate accounts?

A

Separate customers. A customer with both a cash and margin account with a BD would be covered once.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False: Jim’s joint account with his wife is considered a separate customer by SIPC.

A

True. E.g. Jim’s cash and margin account are combined for coverage, but Jim’s joint account with his spouse is separate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a BD goes bankrupt, what happens to securities registered in the customer’s name?

A

They are returned to the customer without regard to SIPC limitations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The Securities Act of 1933 regulates _____________.

A

The Securities Act of 1933 regulates new issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Securities Act of 1933?

A

Provide investors with full and fair disclosure regarding new issues (prospectus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False: The SEC judges an offering’s investment merit and provides approval.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the securities that are exempt from registration.

A

Government/municipal bonds, commercial paper, bankers’ acceptances, bank issues, non-profit and small business issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Though some securities are exempt from registration, nothing is exempt from the ____________ provisions of the Act.

A

Though some securities are exempt from registration, nothing is exempt from the anti-fraud provisions of the Act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the justifiable reasons for denying an individual’s registration?

A

Conviction for any felony or securities-related misdemeanor within the last 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or False: An American Depositary Receipt (ADR) is a security.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Is an option on a commodity futures contract a security?

A

Yes. The futures contract is not, but the option is a security. Options could be based on an equity, index, or currency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Would an interest in a real estate condominium development be considered a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False: Precious metals are not considered securities.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is a voting trust certificate a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is a Keogh plan considered a security?

A

No, but Keogh plan participation is considered a security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is an investment interest in livestock considered a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is a certificate of interest in a mining lease a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is a fixed annuity a security?

A

No, but variable contracts (e.g., variable annuities or variable life insurance) are considered securities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Is an endowment life insurance policy a security?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is a variable life insurance policy a security?

A

Yes, but a term or universal life insurance policy is not considered a security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Is a universal life insurance policy considered a security?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is Keogh plan participation considered a security?

A

Yes, but the Keogh plan itself is not a security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is a 401(k) plan considered a security?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Is treasury stock considered a security?

A

Yes. Treasury stock is stock that was issued and subsequently repurchased by the company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Is a debenture considered a security?

A

Yes. A debenture is an unsecured corporate bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Is a preemptive right considered a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Is a warrant a security?

A

Yes. Warrants are financial instruments that allow investors to acquire stock at a preset price.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Is a preorganization certificate considered a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Is an IRA account considered a security?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Is a futures contract considered a security?

A

No, but an option on a futures contract is a security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Is a multi-level distributorship considered a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Is a limited partnership a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Is an interest in oil and gas drilling program considered a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is a whiskey warehouse receipt considered a security?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Is a firm that has an office in a state, but only deals with institutional clients in the state, considered a BD?

A

Yes, because the firm established an office in the state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Is a bank whose trust department occasionally executes securities transactions considered a BD?

A

No. Banks are excluded from the BD definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If a corporation raises capital by selling new shares of its stock to the public, is it considered a BD?

A

No. The corporation is an issuer and issuers are excluded from the BD definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is a bank holding company that occasionally executes securities transactions considered a BD?

A

Yes. Bank holding companies are not excluded from the BD definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Is a firm with no office in a state that only deals with institutional clients in the state considered a BD?

A

No. The firm is excluded from the BD definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Is a firm with no office in Ohio that effects trades in Ohio with 6 clients residing in Iowa considered a BD?

A

No. The firm is excluded from the BD definition in OH (no office in OH and only deals with existing Iowa clients).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Is an individual who represents a BD in the sale of Treasury bonds considered an agent?

A

Yes, since anyone representing a BD in the sale of securities is an agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Is a sales assistant for a BD who accepts unsolicited orders from clients considered an agent?

A

Yes, since anyone representing a BD in the sale of securities is an agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Is an individual who represents an issuer in the sale of municipal bonds considered an agent?

A

No, since the individual is involved in the sale of exempt securities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Is an individual who represents the issuer of a private placement considered an agent?

A

No, since the individual is involved in an exempt transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Is an individual who represents a BD in the sale of municipal bond considered an agent?

A

Yes, since anyone representing a BD in the sale of securities is an agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Is an individual who represents the issuer in the sale of Treasury bonds considered an agent?

A

No, since the individual is involved in the sale of exempt securities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Is an individual who represents a BD in the sale of a private placement considered an agent?

A

Yes, since anyone representing a BD in the sale of securities is an agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Is an individual who represents a bank in the sale of the bank’s stock considered an agent?

A

No, since the individual is representing the issuer in the sale of exempt securities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Is an individual who represents a BD in the sale of a bank’s stock considered an agent?

A

Yes, since anyone representing a BD in the sale of securities is an agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Is an individual who represents a BD in the sale of stock to a bank considered an agent?

A

Yes, since anyone representing a BD in the sale of securities is an agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Is an individual who represents an issuer in the sale of stock to a bank considered an agent?

A

No, since the individual is involved in an exempt transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Is an individual who represents an issuer in the sale of the issuer’s stock to its underwriter considered an agent?

A

No, since the individual is involved in an exempt transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Is Jim an agent if he works in ABC’s retirement dept. and, once a year, places ABC stock in employees’ accounts?

A

No, Jim is representing the issuer in an exempt transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Is a certified public accountant who provides tax advice considered an IA under the USA?

A

No, CPAs are excluded from the IA definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

True or False: A publisher of a financial magazine is considered an IA under the USA.

A

False. Publishers of newspapers/magazines are excluded from the IA definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Is an organization that provides ratings of securities and is nationally known considered an IA under the USA?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Is an attorney who exclusively provides estate planning services considered an IA under the USA?

A

No. Provided the attorney’s advice is incidental to his profession, he is excluded from the IA definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

True or False: A BD who promotes wrap accounts to its clients would have to register as an IA under the USA.

A

True. Since the wrap account involves management, the BD must register as an IA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

True or False: A BD making recommendations about investing in various securities is an IA under the USA.

A

False. Since the BD is not charging a fee for the advice, it is excluded from the IA definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

True or False: According to the USA, a BD providing asset allocation plans to its clients for a fee is an IA.

A

True. Since the BD is receiving specific compensation for its advice, it is considered an IA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

True or False: The USA defines a bank providing investment recommendations to its clients as an IA.

A

False. Banks are excluded from the IA definition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

True or False: A firm producing investment research for BDs to deliver to clients is considered an IA under the USA.

A

True. Since advice is being provided, as a business, and compensation is received, the ABC test is met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

True or False: The USA classifies an agent of a BD who also manages wrap accounts as an IA.

A

No. IAs are firms, not individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Is an adviser to a mutual fund considered an IA under the USA?

A

No, mutual funds advisers are federally covered and are excluded from the IA definition at the state level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

True or False: An adviser to a mutual fund would register in the state where the fund is domiciled.

A

False. The IA must be registered with the SEC, not a state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

True or False: The CEO of an advisory firm who establishes investment policy for the firm must register as an IA.

A

False. The CEO would be considered an IAR, not an IA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Is an employee of a securities firm who manages accounts for a fee considered an IAR?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Is an employee of a BD who solicits new customers for an IA considered an IAR?

A

Yes. Anyone who solicits investment advisory service is considered an IAR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

True or False: An agent for a BD who solicits client trades would not be considered an IAR under the USA.

A

True. There is no indication that the agent is managing accounts and charging a fee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Idividuals employed by an IA who only perform ____________________ duties are excluded from registration under the USA.

A

Individuals employed by an IA who only perform clerical/ministerial duties are excluded from registration under the USA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

An individual employed by an IA to manage the research dept. would be required to register as an ______ under the USA.

A

An individual employed by an IA to manage the research dept. would be required to register as an IAR under the USA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Is an employee of an IA who answers the telephone and does clerical work considered an IAR?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

True or False: Securities issued by provinces and municipalities of Canada are subject to state registration.

A

False. Securities issued by Canadian provinces or municipalities are exempt from registration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Are bonds issued by the City of New York exempt from state registration?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

True or False: Securities issued by the states and municipalities of Mexico are exempt from registration under the USA.

A

True. An exemption is provided to securities issued by foreign governments with whom the U.S. has diplomatic relations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Securities issued by any government with whom the U.S. has _____________ relations are exempt from state registration.

A

Securities issued by any government with whom the U.S. has diplomatic relations are exempt from state registration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

True or False: Securities issued by the U.S. Treasury and U.S. agencies are deemed exempt securities under the USA.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

________ issued by insurance companies are exempt from state registration.

A

Bonds issued by insurance companies are exempt from state registration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

List some securities that are considered federal covered and exempt from registration.

A

Those listed on national exchanges (NYSE, AMEX, NASDAQ) and investment company securities (e.g., mutual fund shares)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

True or False: Securities of a Canadian company, but listed on the NYSE, are exempt from state registration.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Are bonds issued by a charitable organization subject to state registration?

A

No. Securities issued by non-profit organizations are exempt from registration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What criteria must be met for commercial paper to be exempt from registration?

A

A 270-day maximum life, minimum denomination of $50,000, rated in one of the top-three categories according to an NRSRO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

An executor of an estate sells a block of securities that are not registered. Is this a violation?

A

No. This is an example of an exempt transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Would securities that are traded on the Toronto Stock Exchange be subject to state registration requirements?

A

No. These secondary market transactions are considered exempt from registration according to the USA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

True or False: Bankers’ Acceptances rated AAA, maturing in 6-months, and issued in $25,000 denominations are exempt

A

False. Because the BAs were not issued in at least $50,000 denominations, registration is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Is a private placement defined as an exempt transaction or as an exempt security under the USA?

A

Exempt transaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Under the USA, private placements are exempt if securities are offered to ____ or fewer retail clients over ____ months.

A

Under the USA, private placements are exempt if securities are offered to 10 or fewer retail clients over 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does the USA consider a security issued by an investment company that is registered under the Inv. Co. Act of 1940?

A

The securities are considered federal covered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

True or False: Agents selling unregistered, non-exempt securities to banks and trust companies are violating the USA.

A

False. Transactions with banks and trust companies are considered exempt transactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

If a Nasdaq stock trades in the secondary market, does the USA consider it an exempt security or exempt transaction?

A

Exempt security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Are securities traded on the OTCBB or the Pink Sheets exempt?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

True or False: Bonds issued by a railroad are exempt from state registration.

A

True. Securities issued by a railroad, common carrier, or public utility are exempt at the state level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Are securities issued by a software company exempt from state registration?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

True or False: According to the USA, debt issued by a fraternal organization would NOT be considered exempt.

A

False. Securities issued by non-profit organizations are exempt from state registration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Non-issuer trading of securities subject to reporting requirements of the Act of 1934 are _________ transactions.

A

Non-issuer trading of securities subject to reporting requirements of the Act of 1934 are exempt transactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

True or False: Occasional, secondary market transactions in an OTCBB stock are considered exempt transactions.

A

False. Only non-recurring secondary market transactions are considered exempt transactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Is an isolated, non-recurring, non-issuer transaction in OTCBB or Pink Sheets stock subject to registration?

A

No. It is considered an exempt transaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Is an unsolicited, non-issuer transaction in an OTC stock exempt from state registration?

A

Yes, because it is unsolicited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

True or False: The sale of securities to a pension plan is considered an exempt transaction under the USA.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Registration by Filing (Notification) requires issuers to be in business at least _____ months preceding registration.

A

Registration by Filing (Notification) requires issuers to be in business at least 36 months preceding registration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

An intra-state offering would use which method of state securities registration?

A

Qualification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What method of state securities registration requires issuers to wait to hear from the Administrator before selling?

A

Qualification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

To use Filing (Notification) to register stock, the offering price must be at least $______ per share.

A

To use Filing (Notification) to register stock, the offering price must be at least $5.00 per share.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Registration by Filing (Notification) requires that the underwriting commission be no more than _____%.

A

Registration by Filing (Notification) requires that the underwriting commission be no more than 10%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Registration by Coordination has a minimum cooling-off period of _____ days.

A

Registration by Coordination has a minimum cooling-off period of 10 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Which method of state securities registration would likely be used for an IPO being offered in several states?

A

Coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Registration by Coordination requires issuers to meet requirements of the USA as well as what other Act?

A

The Securities Act of 1933

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

An electronic system used to register investment advisers is called ___________________________________________.

A

An electronic system used to register investment advisers is called Investment Adviser Registration Depository (IARD).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

True or False: A Consent to Service of Process is an example of an exculpatory clause.

A

False. Exculpatory clauses are waivers absolving agents from wrongdoing. The waivers are null and void under the USA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

A surety bond may be required if an investment adviser has _____________ or __________ of client assets.

A

A surety bond may be required if an investment adviser has discretion or custody of client assets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

In place of a surety bond, the Administrator will accept a deposit of _______ or _____________.

A

In place of a surety bond, the Administrator will accept a deposit of cash or securities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

True or False: A Consent to Service of Process must be filed by BDs, but not their agents.

A

False. A Consent to Service of Process is required of all registrants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

True or False: A successor advisory firm must pay a new filing fee, but need not file a new application.

A

False. The successor firm must update its application, but not pay a new filing fee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The application for registration of an agent or IAR becomes effective in _____ days.

A

The application for registration of an agent or IAR becomes effective in 30 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The application for withdrawal of registration of an agent or IAR becomes effective in _____ days.

A

The application for withdrawal of registration of an agent or IAR becomes effective in 30 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

BD records must be kept for at least ____ years.

A

BD records must be kept for at least 3 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

IA records must be kept for at least ____ years.

A

IA records must be kept for at least 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

True or False: A state may require a registration fee from the issuer of a Nasdaq security.

A

False. Nasdaq securities are federal covered securities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

True or False: A state may require notice filing by an issuer of an NYSE security.

A

True. Notice filing is the requirement to provide the state with the same information that was filed with the SEC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

True or False: An Administrator may not require a sales report from the issuer of an OTC security.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What form is used to notify Administrators that an IA is maintaining custody of client assets?

A

Form ADV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What document, regularly provided to clients, will IAs use to notify clients of the location of their securities?

A

The client’s account statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Investment advisers with custody must have an annual audit done by a(n) ____________________.

A

Investment advisers with custody must have an annual audit done by a(n) independent CPA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

If a BD’s net capital falls below the required minimum, it must notify the Administrator within ___ business day(s).

A

If a BD’s net capital falls below the required minimum, it must notify the Administrator within 1 business day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

If an IA has custody or discretion, it must include a _________________ with their Form ADV and brochure.

A

If an IA has custody or discretion, it must include a balance sheet with their Form ADV and brochure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

True or False: An agent whose client moves to a new state may not contact the client until registered in the new state.

A

False. The agent may engage in transactions with the client for 60 days if registration is pending in the new state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

May an agent whose client is visiting another state sell securities to the client without being registered in the state?

A

Yes, provided the client is in the state temporarily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

True or False: Canadian agents are not permitted to effect trades with existing Canadian clients temporarily in the U.S.

A

False. Provided the relationship with the client existed prior to entering the U.S., trades may be effected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

An IAR has an office in State A and has 4 clients who reside in the state. Is the IAR required to register in State A?

A

Yes, since the IAR has an office in State A. The client number is not relevant because of the office location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

An IAR of a federal covered adviser has an office in State B with 4 clients who live in State B. Where must he register?

A

He must register in State B since he has an office in the state. The number of clients is not relevant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

An IAR has no place of business in State A, but has 6 or more individual clients in State A. Where must she register?

A

She must register in any state where she has 6 or more individual clients (even if she has no office in the state).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

An IAR of a federal covered adviser has no office in NY, but has 6 or more clients living in NY. Must he register in NY?

A

No. IARs of federal covered advisers are only required to register in states in which they have an office.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

An IAR of a state-registered IA has no office in NJ, but has 6 or more clients living in NJ. Must she register in NJ?

A

Yes. IARs of state-regulated IAs register where they have an office and where they have 6 or more individual clients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

An agent whose registration has been revoked must be granted a hearing, if requested, within _____ days of the request.

A

An agent whose registration has been revoked must be granted a hearing, if requested, within 15 days of the request.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

If an agent has withdrawn registration, the Administrator may still take action for ___ year(s) after the withdrawal.

A

If an agent has withdrawn registration, the Administrator may still take action for 1 year after the withdrawal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Define an investment contract (according to the Howey Test).

A

An investment of money, in a common enterprise, with expectation of a profit due to efforts of third-party management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

A prospectus mailed by an agent in one state to a client in another state is considered an offer in which state(s)?

A

Both states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

True or False: A gift of assessable stock is considered both an offer and sale.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

True or False: A gift of non-assessable stock is considered both an offer and sale.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Is the payment of a stock dividend considered an offer or sale?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Is the conversion of a bond into stock considered an offer or sale?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

If shares of stock are freely given with the purchase of a bond, is this considered an offer and sale?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

True or False: An Administrator may issue a cease-and-desist order before a violation has occurred.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

True or False: An Administrator may issue an injunction.

A

False. An injunction may only by issued by a court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Under the Uniform Securities Act, the statute of limitations for fraud is ____ years.

A

Under the Uniform Securities Act, the statute of limitations for fraud is 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

The statute of limitations for criminal violations of the Uniform Securities Act is ____ years.

A

The statute of limitations for criminal violations of the Uniform Securities Act is 5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Statue of limitations for USA civil violations is ____ yrs. of occurrence or ____ yrs. of discovery, whichever is first.

A

Statue of limitations for USA civil violations is 3 yrs. of occurrence or 2 yrs. of discovery, whichever is first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Maximum criminal penalties under the USA are a $________ fine and/or ____ years in prison.

A

Maximum criminal penalties under the USA are a $5,000 fine and/or 3 years in prison.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

May an Administrator enter other states to investigate potential violations that occurred in his own state?

A

Yes, the Administrator has broad inspectorial power, which stretches beyond his own state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

True or False: The Uniform Securities Act is exactly the same law in every state.

A

False. The USA is a model law, not the actual law of any state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

_______________________________________________________ is an organization consisting of state Administrators.

A

The North American Securities Administrators Association (NASAA) is an organization consisting of state Administrators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

True or False: Securities issued by registered investment companies are considered federal covered securities.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

True or False: Securities traded on the NYSE may be required to pay a registration fee to a state Administrator.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Administrative cease-and-desist orders may be appealed in a state court if application is made within _____ days.

A

Administrative cease-and-desist orders may be appealed in a state court if application is made within 60 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Next week ABC plans to announce its earnings. If ABC’s CEO wants to sell some of her shares now, is the sale restricted?

A

Yes. Insiders are required to wait until an earnings report is released publicly before selling shares.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

After receiving an effective date, what information may an issuer change by amending its registration statement?

A

The number of shares being offered. A new registration is required to change offering price or underwriter compensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

The Telephone Consumer Protection Act (TCPA) allows calls from ________ to ________ local time of the called party.

A

The Telephone Consumer Protection Act (TCPA) allows calls from 8:00 a.m. to 9:00 p.m. local time of the called party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

A BD located and licensed in Canada may contact what types of individuals in the U.S.?

A

Existing clients who are temporarily in the U.S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Identify 2 significant creations that are credited to the National Securities Markets Improvement Act (NSMIA).

A

Federal Covered Advisers and Federal Covered Securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

The ________________ is responsible for administering and enforcing the securities laws of a state.

A

The Administrator is responsible for administering and enforcing the securities laws of a state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

According to the USA, who is included under the term “person?”

A

Any legal entity, including individuals (clients/agents/IARs), BDs, IAs, issuers, corporations, and partnerships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

In state law, individuals representing BDs in effecting securities transactions are referred to as ________.

A

In state law, individuals representing BDs or issuers in effecting securities transactions are referred to as agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

True or False: In state law, individuals representing issuers in effecting securities trades are ALWAYS deemed agents.

A

False. Individuals are not deemed agents if representing issuers of exempt securities or effecting exempt transactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What restrictions exist in describing a fund as no-load?

A

It may have no front-end or deferred sales charge, and a 12b-1 fee may not exceed .25%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

List some of the exclusions from the definition of a BD.

A

Agent, issuer, bank, or a BD with no office in the state that only deals with institutions or its existing clients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What type of advice may lawyers, accountants, teachers and engineers provide and not be considered an IA?

A

Advice that is incidental to their profession. If a separate fee is charged for the advice, the exclusion is lost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

List the 4 categories of professionals who are excluded from the IA definition.

A

Lawyers, accountants, teachers, and engineers (remember L A T E)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

An ________ is any attempt or solicitation to acquire or dispose of a security for value.

A

An offer is any attempt or solicitation to acquire or dispose of a security for value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

A _______ is any agreement or contract to dispose of a security for value.

A

A sale is any agreement or contract to dispose of a security for value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Regarding federal covered securities, may an Administrator cancel a registration?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Regarding federal covered securities, may an Administrator prohibit the sale of the security in his state?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Regarding federal covered securities, may an Administrator require the issuer to complete the notice filing?

A

Yes. Notice filing is the process by which information filed with the SEC is also filed/shared with the Administrator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

True or False: Registration may be denied due to ANY misdemeanor convictions.

A

False. Registration may be denied for ANY felony conviction or securities-related misdemeanor conviction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

How may the failure to pay the proper filing fee be corrected?

A

By paying the appropriate amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

May the Administrator set minimum net capital requirements for BDs?

A

Yes, but the requirement on BDs may not exceed the federal (SEC) requirement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Is there a limit to the amount of net capital the Administrator may require of a BD?

A

Yes. The Administrator may not set a requirement that exceeds the federal (SEC) requirement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

May the Administrator set minimum net worth requirements for IAs?

A

Yes, but no state may impose a requirement that exceeds the requirement of the IA’s home state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

May federal covered adviser’s books and records be subject to inspection by an Administrator?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

True or False: An administrator may cancel a registration without the opportunity for a hearing.

A

True. Cancellation may be due to the death of an agent, or a firm no longer being in business.

180
Q

If a cease-and-desist order is issued against an agent, the agent must file an appeal within _____ days.

A

If a cease-and-desist order is issued against an agent, the agent must file an appeal within 60 days.

181
Q

If an appeal has been filed by an agent, does the appeal lift (suspend) the order?

A

No

182
Q

True or False: A client who receives a letter of rescission after selling the security may still initiate civil action.

A

TRUE

183
Q

If an offer is made using television or radio, where is the offer considered to have been made?

A

In the state in which the broadcast or telecast originated

184
Q

If an offer is made using the mail, where is the offer considered to have been made?

A

In the state from which it originated and the state to which it is directed

185
Q

True or False: Offers made in a newspaper are deemed to have been made in any state in which the paper is circulated.

A

False. With newspapers, the offer is only considered to be made in the state in which it is published.

186
Q

With newspaper offers, no offer is made if more than __________ of the circulation is outside of the publishing state.

A

With newspaper offers, no offer is made if more than two-thirds of the circulation is outside of the publishing state.

187
Q

As it applies to persons and securities, what does the term “exemption” mean in the USA?

A

Exemption signifies that a person or security is not subject to registration under the USA.

188
Q

As it applies to a BD or IA, what does the term “exclusion” mean in the USA?

A

Exclusion signifies that a person does not meet the definition of a BD or IA in the state.

189
Q

A securities firm that executes trades for its own account or the accounts of others is deemed a _______________.

A

A securities firm that executes trades for its own account or the accounts of others is deemed a broker-dealer (BD).

190
Q

Who manages accounts, solicits services, or makes recommendations on behalf of a registered investment adviser?

A

An investment adviser representative (IAR)

191
Q

What are the 3 components that must be met for a firm to be defined as an IA?

A

1) Provide advice regarding securities, 2) Do so as a business 3) Receive specific compensation (the ABC test)

192
Q

A _________ bond is posted to cover the potential costs of legal action taken against certain persons.

A

A surety bond is posted to cover the potential costs of legal action taken against certain persons.

193
Q

An individual who represents an issuer in selling registered, non-exempt securities for compensation is an ________.

A

An individual who represents an issuer in selling registered, non-exempt securities for compensation is an agent.

194
Q

An ___________________________________ is to an investment adviser what an ________ is to a BD.

A

An investment adviser representative (IAR) is to an investment adviser what an agent is to a BD.

195
Q

Identify who IS NOT considered a person under the USA.

A

Minors, incompetents, securities, and the deceased

196
Q

True or False: A gift of assessable stock would not be considered a sale.

A

False. A gift of assessable stock is considered both an offer and a sale and is regulated by the USA.

197
Q

True or False: The tendering of a convertible bond is considered a sale according to the USA.

A

FALSE

198
Q

True or False: Variable annuities are not securities and are, therefore, not subject to registration.

A

False. Any variable products are considered securities. However, fixed insurance products are not securities.

199
Q

True or False: IRAs and Keogh plans are considered securities.

A

False. The participation in these plans (what goes in the plan) is considered a security, but the plan itself is NOT.

200
Q

True or False: Options on commodities are securities.

A

True. Options are always considered securities (e.g., options on futures, a currency, an index, or equities).

201
Q

May an agent continue to do business in a state if his BD has gone out of business?

A

No. An agent’s registration is only in effect while associated with a BD or issuer.

202
Q

When an agent ends her association with a BD, who must notify the Administrator?

A

Both the agent and the BD

203
Q

True or False: A partner, officer, or director of a BD is always considered an agent of the BD

A

False. A partner, officer, or director is an agent of the BD if she is involved in the purchase/sale of securities.

204
Q

If a BD is not registered in a state, may an agent of the BD do business in the state without being registered there?

A

Yes, if the agent is dealing with an existing client that is temporarily in the state.

205
Q

If a client moves to a new state, may the agent continue to do business while applying for registration in the state?

A

Yes, as long as the agent is registered in at least one other state and is not subject to disqualification.

206
Q

A client of a Canadian BD is visiting the U.S. May the agent do business with her without registering in the state?

A

Yes. Since she is an existing client of the Canadian BD, business may continue in the state.

207
Q

May an agent of a BD located in Mexico do business with a client in the U.S. without registering in the state?

A

No. BDs of Mexico are required to register in the U.S. to effect securities transactions in a state.

208
Q

When does the de minimis exemption from registration apply for an IA that has no place of business in a state?

A

When an IA has no more than 5 non-institutional clients in the state in the previous 12 months

209
Q

Does the de minimis exemption apply to investment adviser representatives?

A

Yes

210
Q

Does the de minimis exemption apply to BDs that have no place of business in a state?

A

No. The de minimis exemption only applies to IAs and IARs.

211
Q

IAs with no place of business in a state, and whose clients are ____________ are not required to register in that state.

A

IAs with no place of business in a state, and whose clients are institutions are not required to register in that state.

212
Q

List some of the different types of institutional clients.

A

IAs, BDs, investment, insurance, or trust companies, banks, savings and loan associations, and pension plans

213
Q

What is the purpose of a Consent to Service of Process?

A

To appoint the Administrator as the applicant’s attorney to receive and process any non-criminal legal complaints

214
Q

Who must sign a Consent to Service of Process?

A

Any issuer, BD, IA, IAR, or agent initially registering to engage in business within a state

215
Q

Must the Consent to Service of Process be renewed each year?

A

No. It is only required at initial registration.

216
Q

State registration remains in effect for ___ year(s).

A

State registration remains in effect for 1 year.

217
Q

State registration expires annually on ______________.

A

State registration expires annually on December 31.

218
Q

When does state registration become effective?

A

At noon on the 30th day after filing an application, provided there are no proceedings pending

219
Q

What requirements may states impose on IAs that are registered with the SEC?

A
  1. File with the state any documents that were filed with SEC, 2. File Consent to Service of Process, 3. Pay state fees
220
Q

If a BD is registered with the SEC, is registration required in any state in which it intends to do business?

A

Yes. There are no exemptions from registration in the state as a BD.

221
Q

If an IA is registered with the SEC, is registration required in any state in which it intends to do business?

A

No. The National Securities Markets Improvement Act (NSMIA) exempts federal covered advisers from state registration.

222
Q

Is being charged with a felony or securities-related misdemeanor grounds for statutory disqualification?

A

No. Statutory disqualification includes conviction for any felony or securities-related misdemeanor in the past 10 yrs.

223
Q

When may the Administrator cancel a registrant’s registration?

A

If the registrant has died, ceased doing business, been declared mentally incompetent or cannot be located

224
Q

Regardless of assets under management, IAs must register with the SEC if any client is a ______________________________.

A

Regardless of assets under management, IAs must register with the SEC if any client is a registered investment company.

225
Q

Under the USA, the de minimis exemption limits an IA to no more than ____ clients within the previous _____ months.

A

Under the USA, the de minimis exemption limits an IA to no more than 5 clients within the previous 12 months.

226
Q

True or False: A stock dividend is considered a sale.

A

FALSE

227
Q

True or False: The exercise of convertible securities would constitute a sale under the USA.

A

FALSE

228
Q

True or False: A warrant attached to the sale of a bond would constitute a sale of the warrant.

A

TRUE

229
Q

True or False: Two friends, anticipating a rise in value, purchase property. The property is considered a security.

A

FALSE

230
Q

Identify the three forms of state securities registration.

A

Notification (filing), coordination, qualification

231
Q

How would a well-established corporation register a subsequent offering to be sold in multiple states?

A

Notification (filing)

232
Q

True or False: Paperwork related to coordination is filed with the Administrator at the same time as the SEC filing.

A

False. Registration will become effective simultaneously with SEC registration, but need not be filed at the same time.

233
Q

What is the minimum cooling-off period for registration by notification?

A

5 days

234
Q

Do the anti-fraud provisions of the USA apply to exempt securities?

A

Yes. Nothing is exempt from fraud.

235
Q

True or False: A trade of unregistered, non-exempt securities between two BDs would be a violation of the USA.

A

False. This is an exempt transaction.

236
Q

True or False: If a BD registers in a state on March 3, it must pay a registration fee for the full year.

A

TRUE

237
Q

The rule governing the disclosure requirement of an IA to its clients is called the __________ Rule.

A

The rule governing the disclosure requirement of an IA to its clients is called the Brochure Rule.

238
Q

May the Administrator levy fines on a registrant?

A

No

239
Q

May the Administrator initiate criminal or civil liability action against a registrant?

A

Yes

240
Q

If a firm meets the BD definition in the state, are there any exemptions from registration under the USA?

A

No. Firms that meet the BD definition are required to register in the state.

241
Q

If an IA meets the IA definition in a state, are there any exemptions from registration under the USA?

A

Yes, no office in the state and a) its clients are institutions or b) 5 or fewer retail clients in the last 12 months

242
Q

Is there an exemption for agents conducting business in a state? If so, what are the guidelines?

A

Yes, no place of business in state and a client visits the state or existing client moves to the state (regist. pending)

243
Q

Is there a registration exemption for IARs doing business in a state if employed by an IA registered in another state?

A

Yes, if the IAR has no office in the state and has 5 or fewer retail clients in the state in the past 12 months.

244
Q

When will an offer fall under an Administrator’s jurisdiction?

A

If the offer originated in, was directed in, or was accepted in the Administrator’s state

245
Q

If the Administrator believes a person has violated or is about to violate the USA, may a stop order be issued?

A

Yes

246
Q

Does the Administrator require proof of wrongdoing to initiate an investigation?

A

No, but she does need to be able to refer to a rule or order when starting the investigation.

247
Q

When conducting an investigation of wrongdoing, is the Administrator limited to state boundaries?

A

No. The Administrator may subpoena books, records, and witnesses from inside and outside the state.

248
Q

If found civilly liable for violating the USA, what is the penalty?

A

The original amount paid, plus the legal rate of interest, attorney fees, and court costs, minus any cash received

249
Q

Under the USA, are banks and bank holding companies excluded from the IA definition?

A

No. Banks, savings institutions and trust companies are excluded, but bank holding companies are not.

250
Q

For how long does the registration of a state-registered adviser remain in effect?

A

Until December 31, unless renewed by the adviser

251
Q

Who is the official that monitors and administers a state’s securities laws?

A

The Administrator or Commissioner

252
Q

The USA refers to an individual who represents a BD in the sale of securities as an ________.

A

The USA refers to an individual that represents a BD in the sale of securities as an agent.

253
Q

Identify who is considered a person under the USA.

A

Business entities, issuers, estates, governments, individuals (e.g., clients, IARs and agents)

254
Q

Is there a limit to the amount of net worth the Administrator may require of an IA?

A

Yes. The Administrator may not set a requirement that exceeds the IA’s home state.

255
Q

Is an IAR who is employed by a federal covered adviser required to register in the state?

A

Yes. IARs of federal covered advisers must register in any state in which they have a place of business.

256
Q

What is the 3 pronged test for determining whether a firm meets the IA definition?

A

A-B-C. A = advice/analyses, B = business, C = compensation

257
Q

What type of advice may lawyers, accountants, teachers, and engineers provide and not be considered an IA?

A

Advice that is incidental to their profession. If a separate fee is charged for the advice, the exclusion is lost.

258
Q

True or False: A gift of non-assessable stock would constitute a sale.

A

False. However, the gift of assessable stock IS considered both an offer and a sale.

259
Q

If registering an IPO, an issuer would most likely use what form of state registration?

A

Coordination

260
Q

What form of state registration is not available in all states?

A

Notification (filing)

261
Q

True or False: Securities issued by municipalities of Mexico are exempt under the USA.

A

True. An exemption applies to securities issued by foreign governments with whom the U.S. has diplomatic relations.

262
Q

True or False: Securities issued by municipalities of Canada are exempt under the USA.

A

TRUE

263
Q

Transactions between the issuer and its underwriter are considered ________ transactions.

A

Transactions between the issuer and its underwriter are considered exempt transactions.

264
Q

A BD must maintain its books and records for a minimum of ____ years.

A

A BD must maintain its books and records for a minimum of 3 years.

265
Q

An IA must maintain its books and records for a minimum of ____ years.

A

An IA must maintain its books and records for a minimum of 5 years.

266
Q

If employed by a federal covered IA, is an IAR required to register in all states in which she is conducting business?

A

No. If the IAR has no place of business in the state, no state registration is required.

267
Q

If the Administrator believes a person has violated or is about to violate the USA, may an injunction be issued?

A

No. The Administrator may not issue an injunction. Injunctions may only be issued by a court of competent jurisdiction.

268
Q

The appeal of an administrative order is made before a court of _________________________.

A

The appeal of an administrative order is made before a court of competent jurisdiction (state court).

269
Q

Does the appeal of an administrative order act as a stay of the order?

A

No. The order remains in effect until the outcome of the hearing.

270
Q

The maximum criminal penalty for violations of the USA is ____ years in prison and/or up to a $______ fine.

A

The maximum criminal penalty for violations of the USA is 3 years in prison and/or up to a $5,000 fine.

271
Q

What is a letter of rescission?

A

An offer to buy back a security from a client when that security was sold in violation of the USA

272
Q

A customer must respond to a letter of rescission within _____ days or lose the right to sue.

A

A customer must respond to a letter of rescission within 30 days or lose the right to sue.

273
Q

May a state prevent the sale of a federal covered security in its state?

A

No. Federal covered securities are not regulated by the state.

274
Q

True or False: An IA with fewer than 15 retail clients in the past 12 months is exempt from registering under the USA.

A

False. The USA de minimis exemption for advisers is 5 or fewer individual clients.

275
Q

What type of information will be found in an investment adviser’s ADV Part I?

A

Firm name, # of employees, nature of business, history of officers/directors, legal/disciplinary action in past 10 years

276
Q

Any material changes to Form ADV must be filed ___________.

A

Any material changes to Form ADV must be filed promptly (within 30 days).

277
Q

What types of changes would be considered material changes that require prompt amendment of an adviser’s ADV?

A

Significant items, such as a name or location change

278
Q

When are non-material (routine) changes to Form ADV required to be filed?

A

Routine items require an amendment within 90 days after the end of the IA’s fiscal year.

279
Q

When is Form ADV-W filed?

A

When an adviser withdraws its registration

280
Q

What is the general definition of an investment adviser?

A

A firm that provides advice/analyses regarding securities, as part of a business, and for compensation

281
Q

According to the USA, who is included under the term person?

A

Any legal entity, including individuals (clients/agents/IARs), BDs, IAs, issuers, corporations, and partnerships

282
Q

With what system do IAs file their registration applications?

A

The Investment Adviser Registration Depository (IARD)

283
Q

ADV Part I is a disclosure document for use by the _____ and the ________________.

A

ADV Part I is a disclosure document for use by the SEC and the Administrator.

284
Q

What types of changes would be considered significant changes to the adviser’s ADV?

A

Change in fees, custody, and the name or location of adviser

285
Q

What is a consent to service of process?

A

A document appointing the Administrator as attorney for any non-criminal legal complaints issued against a registrant

286
Q

Identify the acronym: USA

A

Uniform Securities Act

287
Q

Identify the acronym: IA

A

Investment Adviser

288
Q

Identify the acronym: IAR

A

Investment Adviser Representative

289
Q

Identify the acronym: NSMIA

A

National Securities Markets Improvement Act

290
Q

Identify the acronym: NASAA

A

North American Securities Administrators Association

291
Q

What is the ABC Test for investment advisers?

A

The test that defines an IA as a firm that provides Advice as part of a Business for Compensation

292
Q

Identify the acronym: IARD

A

Investment Adviser Registration Depository

293
Q

Identify the acronym: RIA

A

Registered Investment Adviser

294
Q

Who enforces the Uniform Securities Act?

A

The Administrator

295
Q

What’s notice filing?

A

The process in which information that is filed with the SEC is also filed or shared with the Administrator.

296
Q

True or False: The states may make rules that are more restrictive than SEC (federal) rules.

A

False. NSMIA prohibits states from making requirements that are more restrictive than existing federal requirements.

297
Q

True or False: The Administrator may bring a case in a civil court.

A

True. Both the Administrator and a private citizen may bring a case in civil court.

298
Q

What is the general definition of an issuer?

A

Any person who issues or proposes to issue a security, such as government entities and corporations.

299
Q

True or False: The USA requires all employees of a BD to register.

A

False. Only those representing a BD in effecting transactions (as an agent) must register.

300
Q

An _______of an ________ is an individual who represents an issuer in effecting transactions with the general public.

A

An agent of an issuer is an individual who represents an issuer in effecting transactions with the general public.

301
Q

What’s an issuer transaction?

A

A transaction in which the issuer receives the proceeds.

302
Q

Define jurisdiction.

A

The power to interpret and apply the law or the territorial range of authority or control.

303
Q

An _______ is any attempt or solicitation to dispose of a security for value.

A

An offer (offer to sell) is any attempt or solicitation to dispose of a security for value.

304
Q

Define assessable stock.

A

Stock in which the issuer is allowed to demand additional funds from existing stockholders.

305
Q

Can a BD punish one of its agents for responding to a subpoena?

A

No. This is a prohibited action.

306
Q

True or False: An individual may be denied registration due to lack of experience.

A

False. However, a lack of training, knowledge, and experience may be grounds for denial.

307
Q

A BD in New York gets an order from a client who is on vacation in Florida. Does the firm need to register in Florida?

A

No. Registration is not required since the client is an existing client who is temporarily in Florida.

308
Q

True or False: BDs must file advertising and sales literature with the Administrator.

A

TRUE

309
Q

What form do IAs file to register?

A

Form ADV

310
Q

Define the term custody.

A

The legal responsibility for, or control over, someone’s assets

311
Q

What are some reasons for the Administrator denying a securities’ registration statement?

A

Filing false registration documents, issuer’s business is illegal, spread is unfair, or failing to pay the filing fee.

312
Q

True or False: A transaction by an executor is exempt.

A

True. Any transaction by an executor, administrator, trustee in bankruptcy, or conservator is considered exempt.

313
Q

Who must prove that an exemption exists?

A

The party claiming the exemption

314
Q

May the Administrator revoke the registration of a federally covered adviser?

A

No. However, she may require the IA to notice file.

315
Q

Is the publisher of a newspaper required to register as an investment adviser?

A

No. Publishers are excluded if the newspaper has general circulation and any advice is impersonal and untailored.

316
Q

For how long must an IA maintain records?

A

5 years

317
Q

An investment adviser with more than $___________ under management must register with the SEC.

A

An investment adviser with more than $100 million under management must register with the SEC.

318
Q

Is registration with the SEC required of an adviser that manages $97 million of assets?

A

No. If the IA manages under $100 million of assets, it must register with a state Administrator.

319
Q

List the entities that make up NASAA.

A

All 50 U.S. states, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Puerto Rico and the District of Coloumbia

320
Q

True or False: Washington D.C. is a member of NASAA.

A

TRUE

321
Q

True or False: The U.S. Virgin Islands are a member of NASAA.

A

TRUE

322
Q

True or False: Puerto Rico is a member of NASAA.

A

TRUE

323
Q

True or False: Securities listed on the NYSE are exempt from state registration.

A

TRUE

324
Q

Under the USA, is a federal covered security trading in the secondary market an exempt security or an exempt transaction?

A

Exempt security

325
Q

Under the USA, is stock issued by an electric company an exempt security or an exempt transaction?

A

Securities issued by public utilities are considered exempt securities.

326
Q

True or False: Federal covered securities issuers may be required to pay a registration filing fee to an Administrator.

A

True. Certain types of federal covered securities issuers may be required to pay a filing fee.

327
Q

NSMIA indicates that securities listed on the NYSE, NASDAQ and Toronto Exchange are _________________ securities.

A

NSMIA indicates that securities listed on the NYSE, NASDAQ and Toronto Exchange are federal covered securities.

328
Q

Name some of the federal covered securities.

A

Securities listed on an exchange, issued by an investment company and those sold as a private placement (Reg. D)

329
Q

Is an individual who represents an issuer in the sale of registered stock considered an agent?

A

Yes. An individual who represents an issuer of securities being offered publicly must register as an agent.

330
Q

Under the USA, when must a balance sheet be provided to a client?

A

A balance sheet must be provided if the IA collects prepaid fees of $500 or more, 6 months or more in advance.

331
Q

A balance sheet must be provided if the IA collects prepaid fees of $500 or more, 6 months or more in advance.

A

True. However, this is provided that it has no place of business in the state.

332
Q

What is the purpose of Part 1 of Form ADV and when is it filed?

A

To determine if an IA is eligible for continued SEC registration; it is filed within 90 days of its fiscal year end

333
Q

If ABC Advisers has $112 million under management, it must register with ________.

A

If ABC Advisers has $112 million under management, it must register with the SEC.

334
Q

An IA’s brochure must have the same information that appears in what part of Form ADV?

A

Part 2 of Form ADV

335
Q

Does an IA have custody when it is in possession of checks drawn by its client and made payable to third parties?

A

No. The IA does not have custody if it forwards the check within 24 hours.

336
Q

True or False: If an IA’s clients are institutions (e.g., banks and BDs), it is exempt from registration under the USA.

A

True. However, this is provided that it has no place of business in the state.

337
Q

Is an IA always required to include a balance sheet in Part 2 of its Form ADV?

A

No. A balance sheet is required only if the IA collects prepaid fees.

338
Q

What is Part 2 of Form ADV?

A

The portion of an IA’s application that may be used to satisfy the Brochure Rule (disclosure requirement)

339
Q

True or False: The manager of an IA’s human resources department is considered an IAR.

A

False. The manager’s responsibilities do not include providing advice about securities or managing accounts.

340
Q

True or False: Principals must approve discretionary orders prior to entry.

A

False. The orders must be approved promptly afterward.

341
Q

May a wife enter trades in a husband’s account?

A

Yes, with written third-party authorization.

342
Q

What triggers a BD’s filing of a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)?

A

Any suspicious transactions of $5,000 or more

343
Q

Trading on material, non-public information is considered __________________.

A

Trading on material, non-public information is considered insider trading.

344
Q

Define painting the tape.

A

Traders effecting transactions back and forth to create a misleading appearance of activity

345
Q

A corporate officer informs his son of an upcoming earnings report and the son effects trades. Is this a violation?

A

Yes. Both parties, the tipper (officer) and the tippee (the son), have violated the Insider Trading Act.

346
Q

Does the payment date requirement of Regulation T apply to cash or margin accounts?

A

Payment is required within 5 business days for both (100% in a cash account, 50% in a margin account).

347
Q

True or False: Fraud may sometimes be unintentional.

A

FALSE

348
Q

For an agent to exercise discretion over a client’s account, the client must have signed a ________________________.

A

For an agent to exercise discretion over a client’s account, the client must have signed a power of attorney.

349
Q

True or False: If churning in a client’s account generates large profits, it is not considered a violation.

A

FALSE

350
Q

BD securities and client securities must be segregated; in other words, they may not be ______________.

A

BD securities and client securities must be segregated; in other words, they may not be commingled.

351
Q

John and Sam are continually trading QRS stock between their accounts to cause the price to rise. Is this permitted?

A

No, this prohibited practice is referred to as “painting the tape.”

352
Q

Sam buys stock on one exchange and shorts it on another at a slightly higher price. Is this permitted?

A

Yes. Sam is engaging in arbitrage.

353
Q

True or False: Soliciting orders for unregistered, non-exempt securities is prohibited.

A

TRUE

354
Q

Accepting orders for unregistered, non-exempt securities is allowed if clients attest that the trade was _____________.

A

Accepting orders for unregistered, non-exempt securities is allowed if clients attest that the trade was unsolicited.

355
Q

True or False: According to the USA, investment advisers may generally charge performance-based fees.

A

False. Unless the Administrator deems the client qualified, performance-based fees are prohibited.

356
Q

True or False: An IA that has full discretion over a client’s account at a separate BD is considered to have custody.

A

TRUE

357
Q

An IAR may exercise discretion over a client’s account based on oral authorization from the client for up to _____ days.

A

An IAR may exercise discretion over a client’s account based on oral authorization from the client for up to 10 days.

358
Q

May a cash account be opened without the customer’s signature?

A

Yes

359
Q

May a margin account be opened without the customer’s signature?

A

No

360
Q

May an agent execute securities trades for compensation and not record the trades on the BD’s books and records?

A

No. This is referred to as “selling away.”

361
Q

Before an IA may assign a client’s contract to another advisory firm, it must obtain _________________________.

A

Before an IA may assign a client’s contract to another advisory firm, it must obtain the client’s consent.

362
Q

An IA that is also a BD may execute agency cross trades, earning commission on both sides, if one side is ____________.

A

An IA that is also a BD may execute agency cross trades, earning commission on both sides, if one side is unsolicited.

363
Q

__________________ is the prohibited act of a BD trading for its own account ahead of a customer’s block order.

A

Front-running is the prohibited act of a BD trading for its own account ahead of a customer’s block order.

364
Q

True or False: It is an unethical practice for a BD to delay the delivery of securities purchased by a customer.

A

TRUE

365
Q

When must BDs provide payment of customer free credit balances resulting from completed transactions?

A

Upon customer request

366
Q

List some important considerations when determining the suitability of recommendations made to customers.

A

Investment objectives, financial situation, risk tolerance, tax status

367
Q

Joe places an order to sell 10,000 shares of ABC whenever it’s best. Is written discretionary authority required?

A

No. Since discretion is limited to time and/or price, written authority is not required.

368
Q

What 3 details must be provided by a client so a BD may accept a discretionary order without written authorization?

A

Action (buy/sell), asset, and amount. Time and/or price may remain the BD’s discretion without written authorization.

369
Q

True or False: The initial transaction in a margin account requires a written margin agreement promptly after the trade.

A

TRUE

370
Q

True or False: Charging an unreasonably high commission is acceptable provided disclosure is made to client.

A

FALSE

371
Q

Transactions should be executed at a price that is reasonably related to the _________________ price.

A

Transactions should be executed at a price that is reasonably related to the current market price.

372
Q

May clients of BDs be charged reasonable fees for services performed?

A

Yes, for services such as collection of monies, exchange/transfer, appraisals, safekeeping, or custody

373
Q

What is required of a BD controlled by/affiliated with an issuer of a security being sold to/purchased by a customer?

A

Both oral and written disclosure of the relationship

374
Q

With whom may an agent split commissions?

A

Another agent registered with the same BD, or another BD under common control

375
Q

If a client gives little information when opening an account, what securities may an agent recommend to the client?

A

Only securities that are suitable based on the information the client did provide

376
Q

A firm promises a refund to all clients who invest in an IPO if shares fail to rise 20%. Is this permitted?

A

No. This is unethical since it is considered a guarantee against loss.

377
Q

An IA directs transactions to a BD who rebates 15% of the commissions to the IA for the business. Is this acceptable?

A

Yes, provided the IA provides written disclosure (often in Form ADV) to clients.

378
Q

Does a registered principal approve all orders prior to execution?

A

No. However, the principal is required to review all activity promptly (not in advance).

379
Q

What information is included on an order ticket?

A

Client’s name and account number, price and time of execution, time order is received, entered, and executed

380
Q

May an agent use a new issue prospectus to create a marketing piece and only include positive details about the issue?

A

No. Material provided to clients must include all facts about the issue, not just the positive ones.

381
Q

When selling mutual funds, an agent must adequately disclose the _____________.

A

When selling mutual funds, an agent must adequately disclose the sales charge.

382
Q

True or False: Promoting the purchase of certain fund shares due to an impending dividend payment is acceptable.

A

False. Selling dividends is prohibited. Since the dividend is imbedded in the share price, there is no monetary benefit.

383
Q

Is it acceptable to recommend that a client sell a mutual fund in order to buy another fund with the same objective?

A

No. This is a prohibited practice and would be considered an unsuitable recommendation.

384
Q

True or False: If a customer receives a prospectus during a solicitation, an agent has provided full and fair disclosure.

A

False. The agent may still have omitted material facts.

385
Q

True or False: Forward-looking statements regarding mutual fund performance may be used when soliciting clients.

A

False. Past performance is not indicative of future results.

386
Q

An agent makes this statement to a client: “Go with us; we’re approved by the Administrator and SEC.” Is it acceptable?

A

No. Neither the SEC nor the Administrator provide approval for securities or securities professionals.

387
Q

According to the USA, all investment advisory contracts must be in __________ form.

A

According to the USA, all investment advisory contracts must be in written form.

388
Q

Firms must keep client information confidential unless disclosure is authorized by the _______ or a ___________________.

A

Firms must keep client information confidential unless disclosure is authorized by the client or a regulatory authority.

389
Q

If an adviser has check-writing privileges in a client’s account, does this constitute custody?

A

Yes. Full discretionary control (having the ability to remove funds from the client’s account) is considered custody.

390
Q

If an IA maintains custody of a client’s funds or securities, how often must account statements be provided to clients?

A

Statements must be sent quarterly.

391
Q

If an IA maintains custody of client funds, are unannounced audits required?

A

Yes. IAs must arrange for unannounced audits on an annual basis.

392
Q

An IA inadvertently receives client funds/securities and doesn’t return them within 3 business days. Is this custody?

A

Yes

393
Q

True or False: An IA maintaining custody of client assets need not notify the Administrator.

A

False. The Administrator must be notified in writing using Form ADV.

394
Q

When an IA has custody, with whom are the assets held?

A

Assets are held by a qualified custodian. Clients must be notified of custodian’s name, address, and manner of holding.

395
Q

Define “assignment” as it relates to IA contracts.

A

The transfer of ownership of a client’s account from one advisory firm to another. Client consent is required.

396
Q

What may an investment adviser do with full discretion, but not with limited discretion?

A

Withdraw money from the account

397
Q

Define churning.

A

Excessive trading in a customer’s account for the primary purpose of generating commissions and other fees

398
Q

May an adviser borrow money from a client?

A

Yes, if the client is in the business of lending money, or if the client is an affiliate of the adviser, or is a BD.

399
Q

May an adviser or BD lend money to a client?

A

Yes, if the adviser or BD is in the business of lending money.

400
Q

What is required of an IA that uses third-party research?

A

The IA must disclose the source of the research to its client.

401
Q

Is an adviser required to disclose the source of raw data used to determine the recommendations to its customers?

A

No. Disclosure is not required if the IA’s recommendations are based on its own independent conclusions.

402
Q

May an adviser release account information to the spouse of a client?

A

No, not without the client’s written authorization.

403
Q

Are advisory fees fixed and are they subject to administrative review?

A

Fees are not fixed, but must be in line with other advisers. Fees are subject to administrative review.

404
Q

Under the USA, all IA contracts must be __________ and must disclose __________ provided and related ______.

A

Under the USA, all IA contracts must be in writing and must disclose services provided and related fees.

405
Q

What is required of an IA if the firm goes through a majority change in ownership?

A

The firm must obtain written permission of its clients to assign the contracts. If not, the contracts will be voided.

406
Q

What is required of an IA if there has been a minority change in firm ownership?

A

Provide written notification to clients

407
Q

An IAR leaves his firm and his clients are distributed to other IARs. Is this an assignment of the contracts?

A

No. The contracts are still with the original IA firm. The change of IAR does not constitute an assignment.

408
Q

How are advisory fees most commonly charged?

A

As a percentage of assets under management over a specific period of time

409
Q

What is needed for a BD to exercise discretion over a client’s account?

A

BDs need prior written authorization.

410
Q

The solicitation of buyers for unregistered, non-exempt securities is _____________.

A

The solicitation of buyers for unregistered, non-exempt securities is prohibited.

411
Q

________ is the willful or intentional act of deceiving another person for gain or profit.

A

Fraud is the willful or intentional act of deceiving another person for gain or profit.

412
Q

What is selling away?

A

An agent executes securities transactions for compensation and does not record the trades on the BD’s books and records.

413
Q

Define commingling.

A

The prohibited act of mixing client funds with those of the BD

414
Q

May an agent share in the profits of a client’s account?

A

Yes, in a joint account with proportionate sharing. Permission is required from both the client and the firm.

415
Q

If an agent has been given time and price discretion on a client order, is written power of attorney required?

A

No. Provided the client determines the action (buy/sell), amount, and asset, power of attorney is not required.

416
Q

In general, does the USA allow an adviser to charge performance-based fees?

A

No. However, such fee arrangements may be permitted by rule or order of the Administrator.

417
Q

If an adviser exercises full discretionary control over a client’s account, does this constitute custody?

A

Yes. Full discretionary control (having the ability to remove funds from the client’s account) is considered custody.

418
Q

When does a durable power of attorney become automatically cancelled?

A

Upon the death of the grantor of the POA

419
Q

When does a standard power of attorney become automatically cancelled?

A

Upon either the death of the grantor or declaration of incompetence of the grantor

420
Q

An IA has custody if it inadvertently receives client securities and hasn’t returned them within ____ business days.

A

An IA has custody if it inadvertently receives client securities and hasn’t returned them within 3 business days.

421
Q

What is soft-dollar compensation?

A

Non cash compensation paid by a BD to an IA for directing securities transactions.

422
Q

What forms of soft-dollar compensation are NOT acceptable?

A

Rent, travel expense reimbursement, hardware, furniture, entertainment, meals

423
Q

True or False: Under the Uniform Prudent Investor Act (UPIA), an IA’s main objective should be risk avoidance.

A

False. The UPIA indicates that advisers are responsible for managing risk, not avoiding risk.

424
Q

True or False: Under the UPIA, an adviser should never recommend speculative investments to conservative investors.

A

False. The management of risk is what is important. Investments such as options or commodities may reduce overall risk.

425
Q

What step must an IA complete when faced with a conflict of interest?

A

The conflict must be disclosed to the client. If disclosure is insufficient, the IA must abstain from the action.

426
Q

Identify the acronym: POA

A

Power of Attorney

427
Q

Describe a soft-dollar arrangement between an IA and a BD.

A

An IA directs client transactions to a specific BD in return for research and brokerage services.

428
Q

To be allowed, a soft-dollar arrangement must benefit ____________.

A

To be allowed, a soft-dollar arrangement must benefit the client.

429
Q

Identify some permissible uses of soft-dollar arrangements.

A

Soft dollars are permitted for obtaining research reports, software, and fees for attending conferences/seminars.

430
Q

What are some of the examples of items that cannot be covered by a soft-dollar arrangement?

A

Advertising, travel expense reimbursement, meals and entertainment, and computers

431
Q

True or False: All illegal activities are intentional.

A

False. Some accidental or unintentional actions are considered unethical and, therefore, illegal.

432
Q

You advise a client to buy stock of a company that just fired its CEO. Is disclosure to the client required?

A

Yes, since this is a material fact, it must be disclosed before the customer buys the stock.

433
Q

True or False: An agent must always have reasonable grounds for recommending a particular security.

A

TRUE

434
Q

An agent of a BD lends $5,000 to his brother, is this acceptable?

A

Yes, lending to immediate family members is permissible.

435
Q

Define conversion.

A

The prohibited act of an agent using client funds for personal use.

436
Q

True or False: If an agent disagrees with a customer’s order, he may disregard the order.

A

False. Agents and IARs must follow all customer requests, even those with which they disagree.

437
Q

True or False: If a conflict of interest exists, an IA must always terminate a relationship with a client.

A

False. An IA must always disclose a conflict, but they don’t necessarily need to end the relationship.

438
Q

True or False: The Administrator may issue an injunction.

A

False. Only a court may issue an injunction, however, the Administrator may issue a cease and desist order.

439
Q

What’s a no load fund?

A

A mutual fund with no front-end sales charge, no deferred sales charge, and no 12b-1 fee exceeding .25% per year.

440
Q

May an IA use testimonials in its promotional material?

A

No

441
Q

Define testimonial.

A

An advertisement in which an individual recommends the IA’s services based on personal experiences with the firm.

442
Q

An newly hired investment adviser representative wants to put the initials “IAR” on her business card. Is this allowed?

A

No. However, she may spell out “Investment Adviser Representative.”

443
Q

May an agent and a client share in an account?

A

Yes, with firm & customer’s approval provided the sharing in gains & losses is proportionate to each party’s investment.

444
Q

Define selling away.

A

The execution of transactions by an associated person outside his employment with a member firm

445
Q

True or False: If a BD receives a written complaint from a client, it may be ignored if the complaint seems baseless.

A

False. Failing to respond to a formal written complaint is prohibited.

446
Q

To whom are written or electronically-sent grievances (complaints) forwarded?

A

An immediate supervisor