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STI - Hood Hon Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered a split duty?

A

Two or more sectors that are separated by a rest that is less than a rest period

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2
Q

Maximum wind speed recommended for departure?

A

OPS A. 8.3. Max wind allowed is 55kts

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3
Q

Definition of CAT B fuel?

A

Full CAT B fuel is sufficient to operate two sectors without refuelling at an intermediate port

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4
Q

Total CAT B fuel is equal to?

A

TAXI Fuel - Sector 1
+ TRIP Fuel - Sector 1
+ CONT fuel - Sector 1
+ TOTAL fuel - Sector 2

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5
Q

CFP CAT B fuel limited landing weight?

A

CFP Limited to a landing weight of landing weight minus 3 tonnes.

Due to CFP’s being created 2 hours prior to departure and based on an EZFW. Load control then have a margin available for further uplift in the event of a late increase to ZFW

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6
Q

What is the definition of a contaminated runway?

A

25% of the runway covered in standing water, compacted snow or ice

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7
Q

What is the limit of standing water on landing?

A

No limit

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8
Q

What is the limit of standing water for take off?

A

Not recommended when standing water depth is more than 1/2 inch (13mm)

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9
Q

How do they measure friction coefficient?

A

Manually through a truck driven runway inspection. Due to infrequency in HK, is rarely reported

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10
Q

How many IDG’s are installed?

A

2

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11
Q

How many IDG’s are required?

A

1 (Check DDG in interview to confirm)

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12
Q

Are escape route MORA’s FL or altitude?

A

Altitude

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13
Q

Maximum ZFW?

A

ER: 237,682kg
300: 224,528kg

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14
Q

Maximum TOW?

A

ER: 351,534kg
300: 263T

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15
Q

Wind correction for EDG charts?

A

Allows for up to 50 knots

51-70 knots: +500’
>70 knots: +1000’

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16
Q

Max EGT for Ground Engine Start (GE)?

A

750C, no time limit

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17
Q

Would you see the max CONT EGT limit on T/O?

A

Does not go amber on the take off as the 1090C limit is for 5 minutes (10 minutes for loss of thrust of one engine during take off), or 1095C for 30 seconds

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18
Q

How would you fly a low temperature ILS?

A

Everything needs to be corrected
The only difference being:
Precision, correct the DA
Non Precision, add 50 ft to MDA then correct MDA

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19
Q

Take off maximum wind component on dry or wet runway before referencing FCOM 3 charts?

A

20 knots

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20
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind take off and landing limits?

A

38 knots

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21
Q

Contaminated runway take off wind component prior to referencing FCOM 3 tables?

A

10 knots

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22
Q

Dry or wet runway landing crosswind limit?

A

38 knots

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23
Q

Contaminated landing crosswind component before referencing FCOM 3 tables?

A

15 knots

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24
Q

Is the crosswind limit different for a different CofG?

A

No - Limitations tables

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25
Q

Why is the crosswind limit 38 knots for landing but lower for take off?

A

Because on the ground on T/O VMCG is the significant speed. In the air prior to landing, it is VMCA which allows you to handle a higher crosswind.

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26
Q

What is the company minimum friction coefficient?

A

OPS A – 8.3.12.18 – Not below 0.25MU

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27
Q

What is MMO for all 777 variants?

A

M0.89 for 300/ER

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28
Q

If you have a cargo fire and are diverting, what altitude will give you best TAS?

A

In order to arrive at destination/alternate as fast as possible FL290 in ER and FL310 in 300 will give maximum IAS as per limitations table 10.3 in FCOM 3

Things to consider - winds/terrain/airways restrictions
Speed - M0.89

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29
Q

TCAS RA memory items?

A

Disengage the autopilot and disconnect the autothrottle
Smoothly adjust pitch and thrust to satisfy the RA command
Follow the planned lateral flight path unless visual contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action
Attempt to establish visual contact, call out any conflicting traffic

A descend RA command issued below 1000ft AGL should not be followed

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30
Q

How do you know you’re satisfying the RA command?

A

I just drew it on the note pad he gives you. Drew a triangle for the Pitch command and a line for the Vertical Speed indicator, and said you adjust pitch AND thrust to maintain BOTH outside the RED

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31
Q

On approach, GS intercepted, select gear down. HYD SYS C, what will happen? Will the gear continue to come down? Talk through a go around from this situation.

A

Centre Hydraulic Problem. The gear will extend if the uplocks released before the failure occurred, as they free fall once unlocked. If they hadn’t released then the gear would stay retracted.

Standard, mouth music for go around. You are above minima so can consider then changing to FLCH or other mode if TOGA not required. If gear has extended, it will no longer retract (caution exceeding max gear speed).

Enter a hold and run the checklist as the Centre system has gear, flaps, slats and steering.

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32
Q

Maximum door operating speeds?

A

Do not operate doors of wind speeds more than 40 knots, do not keep doors open with wind gust of more than 65 knots

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33
Q

How long does a BCF extinguisher last?

A

Until its empty

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34
Q

Where are the fire extinguishers located on the aircraft?

A

Every door, flight deck and both crew rest areas

Water extinguishers at R2,3,4

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35
Q

What are the DDG validity periods?

A

A - Variable time interval
B - 3 days
C - 10 days
D - 60 days

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36
Q

In the DDG, what does C, (O), (M), P all stand for?

A

O - Operational procedure required
M - Maintenance procedure required
P - Performance affecting MEL/CDL

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37
Q

Grid MORA terrain clearance?

A

Obstacle elevation up to 5000’ - 1000ft clearance

Obstacle elevation over 5000’ - 2000ft clearance

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38
Q

How much clearance is provided from approach plate spot heights?

A

They give you 1000 feet clearance over whatever is below you at that point. Can safely fly at the height of the listed spot height

Listed on Charts Legend

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39
Q

After lift off, all ASI’s show 0, what do you do?

A

Airspeed Unreliable Memory Items

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40
Q

Difference between N1 and EPR?

A
  • N1 - is a measurement of the RPM from a tachometer of the N1 fan indicated as a percentage of maximum RPM.
  • Advantages – more stable reading
  • Disadvantages – Does not give the pilot indication of ACTUAL thrust produced, only the shaft RPM
  • EPR – Engine pressure ratio – Measurement of the ratio between the compressor inlet pressure and turbine outlet pressure measured with sensors
  • Advantages – measures the actual thrust produced at any point in time
  • Disadvantage – may have delays in reading and prone to failures from blocked probes
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41
Q

Does EDG MRA and Grid MORA account for wind and temperature differences?

A

Wind: YES but only up to 50kts, anything higher refer to the tables

Temperature: YES, sufficient to cater for LOW TEMP
ALTIMETRY

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42
Q

EDG MRA terrain clearance?

A

Actual terrain elevation 0 - 5000ft, total terrain clearance 2500ft
Actual terrain elevation above 5000ft, total terrain clearance 3000ft

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43
Q

Does CFP MRA and Grid MORA account for wind and temperature differences?

A

Wind: Yes, up to 30 knots
Temperature: ISA - 15 is inclusive, otherwise no, OPS A Low Temp Altimetry 8.1.1.4.1

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44
Q

Flying to TPE at FL400, above optimum, what is the minimum speed (300 and ER)?

A

For the ER: MMS
For the 300: At or above optimum altitude, M0.82

If they want you to go slower, offer to descend. However, commanders prerogative to refuse any ATC speed adjustment (“Due Configuration/Due Operational”)

Slowest speed for any aircraft? The hold speed for that altitude

FCOM 3

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45
Q

Minimum speed below optimum (300 and ER)?

A

For the ER: MMS

For the 300: Below optimum altitude, MMS

46
Q

Minimum speed on descent (300 and ER)?

A

Normal descent is greater of CRZ MACH, 280 knots or ECON
Max speed 250 knots below 10,000ft

FCOM 3 ‘Descent Policy’ and OPS A 8.3

47
Q

What is the best level to hold at? 300, 250, 200 or 100?

A

FL150 provides best fuel economy at most weights

FCOM 2 - Holding Planning

48
Q

What is holding speed based on?

A

Higher of Min Drag Speed (VIMD) and the maneuvering speed for the selected flap setting: Vref +80/+60/+40/+20

FCOM 2 3.20.12 ‘Holding’

49
Q

In flight fuel reduction

A

2 independent runways
Actual or forecast weather above non precision minima for filing as an alternate
No known or probable ATC delays
Fuel remaining is sufficient to:
i) continue to destination
ii) plus 5% contingency fuel from overhead or abeam the last suitable enroute airport
iii) plus 30 minute holding at 1500’ AAL
iv) complete an approach and landing

50
Q

How many ELT’s are on board, where are they located?

A

300: Three
* 1 fuselage mounted
* 1 located in the L2 centre stowage compartment
* 1 located in the L5 centre stowage compartment

ER: Four

  • 1 fuselage mounted
  • 1 overhead compartment forward of L2
  • 1 overhead compartment aft of L2
  • 1 doghouse forward of L5
51
Q

Describe the windshear escape manoeuvre?

A 
Manual: 
Disengage autopilot 
Push either TOGA switch 
Aggressively apply maximum thrust 
Disconnect autothrottles 
Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate toward an initial pitch attitude of 15 degrees
Retract speedbrakes 
Follow flight director TOGA guidance
Automatic:
Push either TOGA switch 
Verify TOGA mode annunciation 
Verify GA thrust
Retract speedbrakes
Monitor system performance

In either case, do not change gear and flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factors. Monitor VSI and altitude. Do not attempt to regain airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor

52
Q

What speed does a 777 start aquaplaning?

A

Square root of Tyre pressure times 9

Tyre pressure is approximately 200 psi

Aquaplaning speed is approximately 150 knots

53
Q

What does NOSIG mean?

A

A trend forecast appended to a METAR while a forecaster is on watch. Means no significant change is expected to the reported conditions within 2 hours

54
Q

What do the different colours on the terrain display indicate? What about the 2 numbers?

A

When aircraft is higher than 2000ft above terrain:

  • Solid Green - Highest obstacle
  • High Density Green - Intermediate obstacles
  • Low Density Green - Lowest Obstacles

When aircraft is lower than 2000ft above terrain:

  • Dotted green - obstacles 2000ft to 500ft below aircraft altitude
  • Dotted amber - obstacles 500ft below to 2000ft above aircraft altitude
  • Dotted red - obstacles more tahn 2000ft above aircraft altitude
  • Solid amber - look ahead terrain caution alert
  • Solid red - look ahead terrain warning alert

Two numbers represent highest and lowest obstacle

55
Q

How are autobrakes affected on a contaminated runway?

A

They set the same deacceleration rate. The landing performance assessment caters for MAX REV thrust on a wet runway with a 15% penalty buffer.
FCOM 2 4.50.1 suggests complete LPA with 0 REV active to ensure safety margin in case of REV failure on landing.

• FCTM 6.6.6 – Use Autobrake Setting 3 or 4

56
Q

Whats the EGT limit for MCT on the ER?

A

1050C

57
Q

If you are flying along at 1050C, what colour is the EGT display? What if it goes red?

A

Amber

If maximum limit is exceeded (1090C) and turns red, conduct ENG LIM/SURGE/STALL memory items

58
Q

Difference between duty period and flight duty period?

A

Flight Duty Period: From Sign on of the Duty (Actual reporting time) to chocks on or engines off (whatever is later) on the final sector or whenever the crew member is free from all flight duty for the remainder of the flight.

Duty Period: Any continuous period during which a crew member is required to carry out duty. For a flight duty, period finishes on blocks plus 30 minutes

59
Q

Cabin altitude is increasing, what happens at what altitudes?

A

8500’
EICAS air system indication block appears
Display turns AMBER

10000’
Cabin Altitude warning
Display turns RED
Master Warning

11000’
Cabin altitude limiter closes both outflow valves

13500’
Passenger Oxygen system automatically deploys

60
Q

What altitudes are PWS/Windshear detection active at?

A

PWS Alerts:
Enabled below 1200ft radio altitude

Immediate Windshear Alerts:
Enabled below 1500ft radio altitude

FCOM 1 34.39.6

61
Q

Difference between ETOPE and ETOPD

A

ETOPE is one engine out depressurised critical point

ETOPD is all engine depressurised critical point

62
Q

Difference between landing with 45 minutes, and landing with 30 minutes of fuel?

A

45 minutes is recommended?

Final reserve fuel is the minimum fuel with which the aircraft SHALL land except in the event of a diversion to an ERA after depress and/or engine failure.
Final reserve fuel is equal to 30 minutes holding at 1500 AAL based on the aircrafts planned weight at the alternate airport

63
Q

After what point can we no longer abort a landing?

A

When you have pulled Rev Thrust. Because the engines may not spool up equally meaning you could loose control. Further, if an engine stays in REV safe flight is not possible

64
Q

How long does a PBE last for at what altitude?

A

15 minutes to a cabin altitude of 25000ft

65
Q

Minimum A/P disconnect height?

A

200 ft

FCOM 3 Limitations

66
Q

Into the holding pattern returning to HK with extensive holding, your FDP will expire upon landing, what are you options?

A

Apply Commanders Discretion - Extension of FDP

67
Q

If you decided to use CMR discretion but the FO is reluctant, what would you do?

A

OPS A 7.2.1.4 states that the commanders discretion in such matter is final and unquestioned

68
Q

During a windshear escape maneuver in the MAP, would you follow LNAV if there was a turn at the departure end of the runway?

A

No, engage track select, no turns should be made during a escape maneuver

69
Q

How are the autobrakes disabled by the crew?

A
  • Manually pressing the toe brakes
  • Selecting Dial to OFF position
  • Move the Speed brake to Down Position
70
Q

What is PRSOV?

A

Pressure Regulating and Shutoff System
Located between the HP/IP manifold and the precooler
Control the direction of flow and the air pressure to the pneumatic distribution system

71
Q

If we suffer a depress at the CP and fly to an ERA, what fuel will we land with?

A

Minus start up fuel from ‘Fuel RQD’ from Sector Fuel Summary on Page 2 to get rough figure for landing at ERA

  • Fuel from departure to the critical point
  • Descent to the depress or engine inop stabilising altitude
  • Fuel to cruise to the ERA, with 5% contingency, hold for 15 minutes at 1500’
  • Carry out an approach and landing
72
Q

On the flight plan, does the waypoint fuel include 5%?

A

No

73
Q

ATC ask you to speed up during cruise, what speed should you set?

A

Bottom of the red army. Check FCOM 3 Table 10.1 though to confirm what level is most efficient: ER FL290, 300 FL330

74
Q

You have a bomb on board, once you have set max speed, which FL should you choose?

A

Obviously check winds first, however, if you wanted highest airspeed in still air, use FCOM 3 table

75
Q

Under OPS A, when is the aircraft defined as dispatched?

A

Dispatch is defined as the time the parking brake is released prior to commencing pushback or taxi

76
Q

Can we fly the ILS on a runway with a NOTAM ‘awaiting flight check’?

A

YES unless the NOTAM states otherwise

OPS A 8.3.26.5 ILS

77
Q

What is the minimum fuel required at the planning stage?

A

All flights shall:
Dispatch with at least fuel required and;
Have sufficient fuel from any point on the planned route to permit diversion to an ERA with the following fuel:
* Diversion Trip Fuel to an ERA
* Carry out an approach
* Land with 30 minutes Final Reserve Fuel and;
Have sufficient fuel following a depress or engine failure (or combination of both), to divert to an ERA with the following fuel:
* Diversion Trip Fuel to an ERA plus 5% contingency
* Carry out an approach
* Land with 15 minutes Minimum Reserve Fuel

5% contingency is only required at the planning stage

Fuel required is defined as:
Taxi Fuel + Trip Fuel + Alternate Fuel + Reserve Fuel

78
Q

What does contingency fuel account for?

A

Contingency fuel is to allow for:

  • Extended taxi times
  • Restrictions on altitude
  • Minor route changes due to ATC or weather
  • Errors in forecast winds or temperatures
  • Expected departure, enroute or arrival delays
79
Q

On a long haul flight, how is contingency fuel calculated?

A

Planned using a Performance Based Compliance system. The PBC system provides an equivalent level of safety to the regulations.

If PBC fuel data is not available, Contingency Fuel shall be planned as 5% of the Trip Fuel from departure to destination

OPS A 8.1

80
Q

Can we depart with PASS oxygen system at 0psi?

A

Yes - MEL 35-21-01

81
Q

How many oxygen bottles for passengers in the ER? What about flight crew?

A

18 portable o2 canisters
Oxygen for passenger oxygen masks are located in the aft cargo compartment
For flight crew, either 1 or 2 oxygen bottles depending on specific aircraft

82
Q

What is the preflight oxygen check procedure?

A

Oxygen mask, stowed and doors closed
Crew oxygen pressure status displayed, note pressure
Reset/Test switch, push and hold. Verify yellow cross shows momentarily on the flow indicator.
Emergency/Test selector, push and hold. Continue to hold Reset/Test switch down and push Emergency/Test selector. Verify that the yellow cross shows continuously.
Reset/Test switch and Emergency/Test selector release. Verify yellow cross no longer shows.
Normal/100% selector - 100%
Crew and passenger oxygen pressure, check status display. Verify minimum for dispatch

NOTE: if oxygen pressure less than 1600psi, refer to limitations page

83
Q

What can go wrong with an EPR setting?

A

During tailwind conditions, slight EPR fluctuations may occur prior to 5 knots forward airspeed

Probes measuring the pressure ratio are also faced with same operational issues: icing and other foreign objects, resulting in faulty readings. An example of this would be a faulty reading on take off, resulting in crew setting a lower than required power setting

84
Q

What can cause an airspeed unreliable situation?

A

Edit - See ‘HOOD HON STI PREP 4’ but not sure this is what the question is asking

85
Q

Draw the pneumatic system

A

Edit

86
Q

What will happen with the park brake on and throttles above 60%?

A

If the parking brake is set and the thrust levers moved into the takeoff thrust range, the takeoff configuration warning aural alert sounds and the EICAS warning message CONFIG PARKING BRAKE displays

FCOM 1

87
Q

Where is the closest BCF extinguisher from the flight deck?

A

Doghouse at L1 door

88
Q

How do you turn the aircraft ELT on?

A

Select the guarded switch on overhead to on

89
Q

At the waypoint you are 300kg below the fuel required, what do you do?

A

• In Flight Reduction
• Essentially he wants to know your logic flow
• Do more fuel log entries, every 30min and do a Ground specific range check each time, correct the fuel burn for the weight if it is different to CFP. Try to
determine why we are burning more gas
• Determine a suitable latest ERA to use because the closest one may be unusable due to wx or notams (he liked this step for some reason)
• Update the wx at destination and the ERA, call IOC to determine delays and RWYs available
• Approx 2 hours before abeam or over last ERA, make a decision, the METAR is good for 2 hours and can override the TAF

90
Q

Split Duty Limitations

A

Standard FDP can be extended by half of the period of rest taken
Period of rest between 3 and 10 hours
- Rest less than 6 hours, quiet and comfortable place away from public
- Rest more than 6 hours or 3 hours or more between 2200 - 0800 local time, suitable accommodation
- Rest in aircraft on ground:
* Must be 6 hours or less
* Bunk or reclining seat
* No pax or cargo loading, no maintenance in vicinity of rest
* Control over ventilation, temperature and lighting

FDP either side of rest must not exceed 10 hours
Max FDP for split duty: 18 hours
Cannot be used in conjunction with in-flight relief

91
Q

HK ILS 25R at 4000ft ATC tells you wind at 190/35kts cleared to land and there is large rain return on WX radar, what are you thinking?

A
  • Calculate Crosswind – Rule of Thumb 15deg=25% // 30deg=50% 60> =100%
  • Crosswind Limitations Aircraft – FCOM 3 LIM10.5
  • Crosswind Limitations Crew – A 8.3.4.1
  • Runway Surface Condition – Wet/Con?
  • Wind shear memory items – MEM Items
  • Increase Vref +10 gusty conditions – FCOM 3 SP 16.2
  • Use of Windscreen wipers
92
Q

Does ATC need to be informed when performing low temperature correction on ILS procedural altitude?

A

Yes

OPS A 8.1.1.4.2

93
Q

Flying to Kansai, thrust levers retard but engines operating normally, your actions and what can cause it?

A

• ENG LIM/SURGE/STALL memory items

FCTM says that since recognition can be difficult, crew should continue with take off or remain airborne until NNC can be completed

94
Q

Difference between a surge and a stall?

A

• Surge
– Complete Breakdown of airflow in a turbine engine
– ALL Compressor blades stalled leading to HP air in the middle of the engine which escapes from both the front
and rear of the engine
– Cause yaw and severe Vibration
• Stall
– Isolated compressor blades stall
– can be caused by compressor blade wear
– leads to engine vibration

95
Q

What is an SADD, PADD, ADD?

A

Significant Acceptable Deferred Defect
Performance Acceptable Deferred Defect
Acceptable Deferred Defect

DDG

96
Q

Colour of the flight crew life jackets?

A

Orange

97
Q

Following a series of ENG LIM/SURGE/STALL memory items, your airspeed starts washing back at altitude, what do you do?

A

Go through VNAV ENG OUT driftdown drill, as if an engine has failed

98
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

ER: 251,290kg
300: 237,682kg

99
Q

Using the EDTO segments on Page 2 of the CFP, you are required to divert to one of the ERA’s. How much fuel will you roughly have overhead the ERA?

A

The minimum required will be minimum reserve fuel (15 minutes) at 1500’.

Fuel on start up - EDTO FUEL RQD = rougly fuel overhead

100
Q

On page 2 of the CFP, under ‘Sector Fuel Summary’, what does FUEL RQD include?

A
  • Fuel from departure to the critical point
  • Descent to the depress or engine inop stabilising altitude
  • Fuel to cruise to the ERA, with 5% contingency, hold for 15 minutes at 1500’
  • Carry out an approach and landing
101
Q

On page 2 of the CFP, under ‘Sector Fuel Summary’, what does DIV FUEL include?

A

Fuel required from the CP to:

  • Cruise to the ERA, with 5% contingency
  • Hold for 15 minutes at 1500’
  • Carry out an approach and landing
102
Q

How much fuel do you require at a certain point?

A

Read off the ‘Fuel Required’ on fuel log

103
Q

What is the HPSOV?

A

High Pressure Shut Off Valve
Located between the HP duct and the HP/IP manifold
Controls the direction of flow and the pressure of the bleed air from the high stage of the high pressure compressor

104
Q

Do we need to correct spot heights on approach plates for low temperature corrections?

A

Yes

105
Q

How do you know you’re 2000’ before the end of the runway in respect to a windshear escape maneuver on take off?

A

Runway edge lighting is amber (600m or roughly 2000’ before the end)

106
Q

Cat B fuel calculations?

A

1: Work out Cat B fuel
2: MLW+Taxi+Trip+Cont = Max landing weight limited ramp weight
3: Is Max landing weight limited ramp weight less than ramp weight? If yes, can carry all Cat B
4: Max landing weight limited ramp weight - CFP ZFW = Extra fuel that can be carried
5: Extra fuel that can be carried - Sector 1 Total Fuel = Maximum extra fuel that can be carried
6: Multiply by LNDG correction to get figure to add to Trip fuel

107
Q

Split Duty Calculations

A

1: Actual report time - actual on blocks at first departure point
2: Total FDP - Allowable FDP (as per Table A)
3: Multiply the difference by 2 = minimum rest required (min 3 hours)
4: Divide the pattern rest by 2
5: Minus 4 by 5
6: Add this figure onto departure time to get latest delay time before going into discretion

108
Q

How do you identify windshear close to V1?

A

Airspeed trend vector is less than 10 knots

109
Q

Windshear inhibits

A

Take off:
PWS Caution - 80 knots to 400ft radio altitude
PWS Warning - 100 knots to 50ft radio

Landing:
All PWS Alerts - 2300ft to 1200ft
PWS Caution - 400ft to 80 knots
PWS Warning - 50ft to 100 knots

110
Q

Why do you disconnect the autothrottle during a windshear escape maneuver?

A

To prevent the thrust levers moving

111
Q

Whats the most important thing with Hood when discussing descending on an escape chart?

A

Don’t forget to ask for the area QNH, as all levels listed are altitudes

Work (16 decks)

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