still to come Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of GAD (Generalised anxiety disorder)

A

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a syndrome of ongoing, uncontrollable, widespread worry
about many events or thoughts that the patient recognizes as excessive and inappropriate.
Symptoms must be present on most days for at least 6 months duration

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2
Q

Biological aetiology of GAD

A

Genetic: Concordance rate greater for monozygotic twins, 5 times more likely if GAD in 1st degree relatives of GAD patients

Neurophysiological: Dysfunction of autonomic NS, exaggerated responses in amygdala and hippocampus, GABA alterations, serotonin and noradrenaline

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2
Q

Epidemiology of GAD

A

GAD has a prevalence of 2–4% in the general population.
It is more common in ♀ at a ratio of 2:1.

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2
Q

Environmental aetiology of GAD

A

Stressful life events: child abuse, relationships, illness, employment or finances
Substance dependence or exposure to organic solvents

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2
Q

RFs for GAD

A

Predisposing: Genetics, childhood upbringing, personality type and demands for high
achievement. Being divorced. Living alone or as a single parent. Low
socioeconomic status.

Precipitating: Stressful life events such as domestic violence, unemployment, relationship
problems and personal illness (e.g. chronic pain, arthritis, COPD).

Maintaining: Continuing stressful events, marital status, living alone and ways of thinking
which perpetuate anxiety (e.g. ‘What will happen if others notice that I am
anxious?’).

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3
Q

Symptoms of GAD

A

Breathing difficulty
Choking feeling
Nausea
Dizzy
Fear of dying
Derealisation and depersonalisation
Hot flushes
Numbness
Headaches
Muscle tension
Restlessness
Feeling on edge
Sleep problems
Irratibility

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4
Q

Common features of presentation specific GAD (WATCHERS)

A

Worry (excessive, uncontrollable)
Autonomic hyperactivity (sweating,
↑ pupil size, ↑ HR)
Tension in muscles/Tremor
Concentration difficulty/Chronic aches
Headache/Hyperventilation
Energy loss
Restlessness
Startled easily/Sleep disturbance (difficulty getting to sleep then intermittent awakening and
nightmares).

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5
Q

ICD-10 criteria for GAD

A

A. A period of at least 6 months with prominent tension, worry and feelings of apprehension
about everyday events and problems.
B. At least four of the following symptoms with at least one symptom of autonomic arousal:
Symptoms of autonomic arousal: palpitations, sweating, shaking/tremor, dry mouth.

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6
Q

History of GAD?

A

‘Talk me through a normal day in your life.’ (open question to identify anxiety)
‘Do you ever feel worried with your current state of affairs?’, ‘Do you worry excessively
about minor things on most days of the week?’, ‘Would you say you are an anxious
person?’, ‘Recently, have you been feeling anxious or on edge?’ (generalized worry)
‘Have you noticed any problems with your memory or concentration?’ (↓
concentration)
‘Do you ever lie awake at night worrying, or intermittently wake from sleep?’, ‘Do you
ever have unpleasant dreams or nightmares?’ (sleep disturbance)
Ask about somatic symptoms, e.g. ‘Do you ever feel the sensation of your heart
beating abnormally fast or pounding on your chest?

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7
Q

MSE for GAD

A

Appearance
and
behaviour
Face looks worried with brow furrowed. Restless with tremor. Sweaty when
you shake their hand. Hyperventilating. Lip biting. Pallor. Tense posture.
Speech Trembling. Slow rate.
Mood Anxious.
Thought Repetitive worrying thoughts. Thoughts may concern personal health,
safety of others or excessive worry about everyday events, e.g.
relationships, finances.
Perception No hallucinations.
Cognition May complain of poor memory and reduced attention/concentration.
Insight May or may not have insight.

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8
Q

Investigation for GAD

A

Blood tests: FBC (for infection/anaemia), TFTs (hyperthyroidism), glucose
(hypoglycaemia).
ECG: may show sinus tachycardia.
Questionnaires: GAD-2, GAD-7, Beck’s Anxiety Inventory, Hospital Anxiety and
Depression Scale.

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9
Q

DDs for GAD

A

panic
disorder, specific
phobias, OCD, PTSD.
Depression.
Schizophrenia.
Personality disorder
(e.g. anxious PD,
dependent PD).
Excessive caffeine or alcohol consumption.
Withdrawal from drugs.
Organic: anaemia, hyperthyroidism,
phaeochromocytoma, hypoglycaemia

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10
Q

Biological treatment for GAD

A

first-line drug treatment of choice is an SSRI (sertraline is recommended)
which has anxiolytic effects. If this does not help an SNRI (e.g. venlafaxine or duloxetine)
can be offered. If both of these are ineffective or not tolerated, pregabalin may be used.
Medication should be continued for at least a year. Benzodiazepines should not be offered
except as short-term measures during crises as they can cause dependence

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11
Q

Psychological management for GAD

A

Psychoeducational groups are a low intensity form of psychological
intervention. High intensity includes cognitive behavioural therapy and applied relaxation

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12
Q

Social management for GAD

A

: Include self-help methods (such as writing down worrying thoughts and analysing
them objectively) and support groups. Exercise should be encouraged and may benefit.

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13
Q

NICE stepped care model for interventions with GAD

A

Step 1: Identification and assessment - Psychoeducation about GAD and active monitoring
Step 2: Low intensity psychological interventions (self help, psychoeducational group-based therapy)
Step 3: High intensity psychological interventions (CBT or applied relaxation)
Step 4: Highly specialist input eg Multi-agency teams, combination of drug and psychological therapies, crisis team

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14
Q

What is the definition of a phobia?

A

is an intense, irrational fear of an object, situation, place or person that is recognized as
excessive (out of proportion to the threat) or unreasonable.

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15
Q

What is the definition of agoraphobia?

A

Agoraphobia literally means a ‘fear of the marketplace’. It is a fear of public
spaces or fear of entering a public space from which immediate escape would be difficult in the
event of a panic attack.

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16
Q

What is the definition of a social phobia (social anxiety disorder)

A

A fear of social situations which may lead to humiliation,
criticism or embarrassment.

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17
Q

What is the definition of specific (isolated) phobia:

A

A fear restricted to a specific object or situation (excluding
agoraphobia and social phobia).

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18
Q

Aetiology of phobias

A

Agoraphobia Maintained by avoidance which prevents deconditioning and sets up a vicious
cycle of anxiety.
Social phobia
Uncertain aetiology. Usually begins in late adolescence, an age at which people
are concerned about the impression they make on others.
Specific phobia
Conditioning event in early life, i.e. a frightening experience. Possibly a role for
learned behaviour, e.g. from parents

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19
Q

Epidemiology of phobic anxiety disorders

A

Agoraphobia - 25-30 years, 2:1 male to female ration
Social phobia - Adolescence - 1:1
Specific phobia - Childhood but can develop later in life- 1:1

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20
Q

RFs for phobia’s

A

Aversive experiences (prior experiences with specific objects or situations)
Stress and negative life events
Other anxiety disorders
Mood disorders
Substance misuse disorders
Family history

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21
Q

What are the biological clinical features of phobias?

A

Tachycardia is the usual autonomic response, however in phobias of blood, injection
and injury, a vasovagal response (bradycardia) is produced, commonly leading to fainting
(syncope)

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22
Q

What are the psychological clinical features of phobias?

A

Include unpleasant anticipatory anxiety, inability to relax, urge to avoid the feared
situation and, at extremes, a fear of dying

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23
Q

What is agoraphobia strongly linked to?

A

panic disorder. Indeed the ICD-10 divides agoraphobia into:
agoraphobia with panic disorder and agoraphobia without panic disorder.

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24
Q

ICD-10 criteria for agoraphobia

A

A. Marked and consistently manifest
fear in, or avoidance of, at least
two of the following:
1. Crowds
2. Public spaces
3. Travelling alone
4. Travelling away from home
B. Symptoms of anxiety in the feared
situation with at least two
symptoms present together (and
at least one symptom of
autonomic arousal).
C. Significant emotional distress due
to the avoidance, or anxiety
symptoms. Recognized as
excessive or unreasonable.
D. Symptoms restricted to (or
predominate in) feared situation.

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25
Q

ICD-10 criteria for social phobia

A

A. Marked fear (or marked
avoidance) of being the
focus of attention, or fear
of acting in a way that will
be embarrassing or
humiliating.
B. At least two symptoms of
anxiety in the feared
situation plus one of the
following:
1. Blushing
2. Fear of vomiting
3. Urgency or fear of
micturition/defecation
C. Significant emotional
distress due to the
avoidance or anxiety
symptoms.
D. Recognized as excessive
or unreasonable.
E. Symptoms restricted to
(or predominate in) feared
situation.

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26
Q

ICD-10 criteria for a specific phobia

A

A. Marked fear (or
avoidance) of a
specific object or
situation that is not
agoraphobia or
social phobia
B. Symptoms of
anxiety in the
feared situation.
C. Significant
emotional distress
due to the
avoidance or
anxiety symptoms.
Recognized as
excessive or
unreasonable.
D. Symptoms
restricted to the
feared situation.

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27
Q

History questions asked to patients with phobias?

A

‘What situations cause you anxiety or embarrassment?’ (specific phobia)
‘Do you get symptoms in situations from which escape would be difficult?’, ‘Do you get
symptoms in places or situations where help may not be available?’, ‘Do you get
symptoms while being in a crowd or travelling on public transport?’ (agoraphobia)
‘Do you ever worry about what people think of you? Does this worry ever lead to you
avoiding certain situations?’ (social phobia)
‘Do you avoid any situation because you know you will feel panicky?’ (anticipatory
anxiety)

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28
Q

What are the features that distinguish phobic anxiety disorders to GAD? (SS, AA, AA)

A
  1. Anxiety occurs in Specific Situations:
    Agoraphobia – Public transport, supermarkets (especially waiting in queues), cinemas,
    empty streets.
    Social phobia – Social gatherings, parties, public speaking, meetings, classrooms, eating
    in public.
  2. There is Anticipatory Anxiety when there is a prospect of encountering the feared situation.
  3. There is Attempted Avoidance of circumstances that precipitate anxiety.
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29
Q

How would an MSE look for phobias?

A

ppearance &
Behaviour
Restless and wanting to escape. Pale, sweaty, hyperventilating. May
lose consciousness (blood or injection phobia).
Speech May be trembling or they may become speechless.
Mood Anxious.
Thought Unpleasant feelings towards threat. Fear of situation. Desire to escape.
Fear of dying.
Insight Poor when feared stimulus present. Good when separated from
stimulus.

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30
Q

Investigations for phobias

A

As symptoms occur in a defined situation, diagnosis is usually straightforward with minimal
need for investigations. Questionnaires include the Social Phobia Inventory and Liebowitz
Social Anxiety Scale.

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31
Q

DDs for phobias

A

Psychiatric: Panic disorder, PTSD, anxious personality disorder, somatoform
disorders, adjustment disorder, depression, schizophrenia (may avoid socializing
because of paranoid delusions).

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32
Q

What are some general points in managing patients with phobias?

A

Try to establish a good rapport with the patient. Remember, particularly with social phobia, it
may have been very challenging for the patient to attend the appointment.
Advise avoidance of anxiety-inducing substances, e.g. caffeine.
Screen for significant co-morbidities such as substance misuse and personality disorders.
Refer to a specialist if there is a risk of self-harm, suicide, self-neglect or significant co-morbidity

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33
Q

Management for agoraphobia

A

CBT is the psychological intervention of choice. The behavioural component
includes graduated exposure and desensitization. Graduated exposure
techniques such as walking increased distances from home day by day, can
be used.
SSRIs are the first-line pharmacological agent.

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34
Q

What is the management for social phobia?

A

CBT (individual or group) specifically designed for social phobia. Graduated
exposure to feared situations is included both within treatment sessions and
as homework.
Pharmacological interventions include SSRIs (escitalopram or sertraline),
SNRIs (venlafaxine) or if no response to these, a MAOI (moclobemide).
Psychodynamic psychotherapy for those who decline CBT or medication.

35
Q

What is the management of specific phobia’s?

A

The mainstay of treatment is exposure either using self-help methods or
more formally through CBT.
Benzodiazepines may be used as anxiolytics in the short term (due to risk of
dependence) for instance if a patient needs an urgent CT scan and they are
claustrophobic.

36
Q

What is the definition of a panic disorder?

A

Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, episodic, severe panic attacks, which are unpredictable
and not restricted to any particular situation or circumstance.

37
Q

What is the aetiology of a panic disorder?

A

Biological-
Genetics: Along with OCD, it is one of the most heritable anxiety disorders.
Neurochemical: Post synaptic hypersensitivity to serotonin and adrenaline.
Sympathetic nervous system (SNS): Fear or worry stimulates the SNS →
↑cardiac output which can lead to further anxiety.
Cognitive-
Misinterpretation of somatic symptoms (e.g. fear that palpitations will lead to a
heart attack).
Environmental-
Presence of life stressors can lead to panic disorder.

38
Q

Epidemiology of panic disorders

A

Panic disorder has a prevalence of 1% in the general population.
It is three times more common in ♀.
The usual age of onset is late adolescence.

39
Q

RFs for panic disorder

A

Family history Major life events Age (20–30)
Recent trauma Females Other mental disorders
White ethnicity Asthma Cigarette smoking
Medication

40
Q

ICD-10 criteria for the diagnosis of a panic disorder?

A

A. Recurrent panic attacks that are not consistently associated with a specific situation or object,
and often occur spontaneously. The panic attacks are not associated with marked exertion or
with exposure to dangerous or life-threatening situations.
B. Characterized by ALL of the following: (1) Discrete episode of intense fear or discomfort; (2)
Starts abruptly; (3) Reaches a crescendo within a few minutes and lasts at least some
minutes; (4) At least one symptom of autonomic arousal: palpitations, sweating,
shaking/tremor, dry mouth; (5) Other symptoms`

41
Q

When do panic symptoms usually peak?

A

Panic symptoms usually peak within 10 minutes and rarely persist beyond an hour

42
Q

Useful pnemonic for key features of panic disorder is..?

A

PANICS Disorder
Palpitations, Abdominal distress, Numbness/Nausea, Intense fear of death, Choking feeling/Chest
pain, Sweating/Shaking/Shortness of breath, Depersonalization/Derealization

43
Q

History questions we ask for a panic disorder

A

‘Are you generally anxious or are there periods where you are anxiety-free?’
(episodic)
‘Can you predict when these attacks will come on?’ (unpredictable)
‘Have you ever been so frightened that you felt your heart was pounding and that you
might die?’ (intense fear and anxiety)
‘Are you worried about your health or any other specific things?’ (major life stressors)

44
Q

MSE for panic disorders

A

Same as GAD
Appearance
and
behaviour
Face looks worried with brow furrowed. Restless with tremor. Sweaty when
you shake their hand. Hyperventilating. Lip biting. Pallor. Tense posture.
Speech Trembling. Slow rate.
Mood Anxious.
Thought Repetitive worrying thoughts. Thoughts may concern personal health,
safety of others or excessive worry about everyday events, e.g.
relationships, finances.
Perception No hallucinations.
Cognition May complain of poor memory and reduced attention/concentration.
Insight May or may not have insight.

45
Q

Investigations for panic disorders

A

Blood tests: FBC (for infection/anaemia), TFTs (hyperthyroidism), glucose
(hypoglycaemia).
ECG: may show sinus tachycardia.
Questionnaires: GAD-2, GAD-7, Beck’s Anxiety Inventory, Hospital Anxiety and
Depression Scale.

46
Q

DDs of panic disorders

A

Psychiatric: Other anxiety disorders (e.g. generalized anxiety disorder, phobic anxiety
disorder), dissociative disorder, bipolar affective disorder, depression, schizophrenia,
adjustment disorder.
Organic: Phaeochromocytoma, hyperthyroidism, hypoglycaemia, carcinoid syndrome,
arrhythmias, alcohol/substance withdrawal

47
Q

Key features of GAD

A

Age of onset: Variable: adolescence to late adulthood
When it occurs: Persistent
Assosciated behaviour: Agitation
Cognition: Constant worry
Associations: Depression

48
Q

Key features of panic disorders

A

Age of onset : Late adolescence to early adulthood
When it occurs: Episodic
Assosciated behaviour: Escape
Cognition: Fear of symptoms
Associations: Depression, agoraphobia, substance misuse

49
Q

Key features of phobic anxiety

A

Age of onset: Childhood to late adolescence
When it occurs: Situational
Associated behaviour: Avoidance
Cognition: Fear of situation
Associations: Substance misuese

50
Q

Management for panic disorders

A

SSRIs are first-line but if they are not suitable, or there is no improvement after 12 weeks, then a
TCA, e.g. imipramine or clomipramine may be considered. Benzodiazepines should not be
prescribed.
CBT is the psychological intervention of choice, focusing on recognition of panic triggers.
Self-help methods include bibliotherapy (giving written information on panic disorder and how to
overcome it), support groups and encouraging exercise to promote good health.

51
Q

NICE Stepped care approach to panic disorders

A

Step 1: Recognition and diagnosis
Step 2: Treatment in primary care
Step 3: Review and consideration of alternative treatments
Step 4: Review and referral to specialist mental health services
Step 5: Care in specialist mental health services

52
Q

What is the definition of PTSD?

A

Is an intense, prolonged, delayed reaction following
exposure to an exceptionally traumatic event.

53
Q

What is the definition of abnormal bereavement?

A

Normal bereavement goes through a number of stages in response to
loss of a loved one. Abnormal bereavement has a delayed onset, is more intense and prolonged
(>6 months). The impact of their loss overwhelms the individual’s coping capacity.

54
Q

What is the definition of an acute stress reaction:

A

An abnormal reaction to sudden stressful events

55
Q

What is the definition of an adjustment disorder?

A

Normal adjustment refers to psychological reactions involved in adapting to
new circumstances. Adjustment disorder is when there is significant distress (greater than
expected), accompanied by an impairment in social functioning

56
Q

What is the aetiology of PTSD?

A

Severe assault (e.g. physical or sexual abuse, robbery, mugging).
Major natural disaster (e.g. earthquakes, floods).
Serious road traffic accident.
Observer/survivor of civilian disaster (e.g. acts of terrorism, the Holocaust).
Involvement in wars (e.g. World War II, Vietnam War).
Freak occurrences (e.g. near drowning when on holiday).
Physical torture.
Prisoner of war or hostage situation.
Hearing about unexpected injury or violent death of a family member or friend.

57
Q

What are the RFs for PTSD?

A

Exposure to a
major traumatic
event:
Professions at risk (armed forces, police, fire services,
journalists, doctors), groups at risk (refugees, asylum seekers).
Pre-trauma: Previous trauma, history of mental illness, females, low socioeconomic background, childhood abuse.
Peri-trauma: Severity of trauma, perceived threat to life, adverse emotional
reaction during or immediately after event.
Post-trauma: Concurrent life stressors, absence of social support.

58
Q

Epidemiology of PTSD

A

Approximately 3% of adults in England suffer from PTSD.
25–30% of individuals experiencing a traumatic event may go on to develop PTSD.
It can affect people of all ages, but is more common in ♀ (♀:♂ ratio is 2:1).

59
Q

Clinical features of PTSD

A

PTSD symptoms must occur within 6 months of the event and can be divided into four categories:
1. Reliving the situation (persistent, intrusive, involuntary): Flashbacks, vivid memories, nightmares,
distress when exposed to similar circumstances as the stressor.
2. Avoidance: Avoiding reminders of trauma (e.g. associated people or locations), excessive
rumination about the trauma, inability to recall aspects of the trauma.
3. Hyperarousal: Irritability or outbursts, difficulty with concentration, difficulty with sleep,
hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response.
4. Emotional numbing: Negative thoughts about oneself, difficulty experiencing emotions, feeling of
detachment from others, giving up previously enjoyed activities.

60
Q

ICD-10 criteria for PTSD

A

A. Exposure to a stressful event or situation of extremely threatening or catastrophic nature
(would likely cause distress in almost anyone).
B. Persistent remembering (‘reliving’) of the stressful situation.
C. Actual or preferred avoidance of similar situations resembling or associated with the stressor.
D. Either (1) or (2)
1. Inability to recall some important aspects of the period of exposure to the stressor.
2. Persistent symptoms of increased psychological sensitivity and arousal.
E. Criteria B, C & D all occur within 6 months of the stressful event, or the end of a period of
stress.

61
Q

History questions for PTSD

A

‘Has there been any traumatic incident or event in your life recently which may
account for how you are feeling?’ (exposure to stressful event)
‘Do you ever get any flashbacks, vivid memories or nightmares about the events that
took place?’ (reliving the situation)
‘Do you find yourself constantly thinking about the same thing?’ (rumination)
‘Have you had any problems with sleep since the event?’, ‘Are you feeling more
irritable or having trouble concentrating?’, ‘Do you get startled easily?’ (hyperarousal)

62
Q

What are the stages of grief? (DABDA)

A

Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

63
Q

MSE for PTSD

A

Appearance
& Behaviour
Hypervigilance (‘on edge’), exaggerated startle reaction, may have
features of anxiety or depression, e.g. poor eye contact.
Speech Slow rate. Trembling. Non-spontaneous.

Mood Anxious.
Thought Pessimistic. Reliving or remembering of the event.
Perception No hallucinations. May have illusions.
Cognition Poor attention and concentration.
Insight Good.

64
Q

Investigations for PTSD

A

Questionnaires: Trauma Screening Questionnaire (TSQ), Post-traumatic diagnostic
scale.
CT head: if head injury suspected.

65
Q

Differential diagnosis for PTSD?

A

Psychiatric: Adjustment disorder, acute stress reaction, bereavement, dissociative
disorder, mood or anxiety disorders, personality disorder.
Organic: Head injury (result of traumatic event), alcohol/substance misuse.

66
Q

What is the definition of an acute stress reaction ? (ICD-10)

A

Exposure to an exceptional physical or mental stressor (e.g. physical assault, road traffic accident)
followed by an immediate onset of symptoms (within one hour). Divided into mild, moderate or
severe based on extent of symptoms`

67
Q

What are the possible symptoms of an acute stress reaction and adjustment disorder?

A

anxiety symptoms (see Section
5.2, GAD), narrowing of attention, apparent disorientation, anger or verbal aggression, despair or
hopelessness, uncontrollable or excessive grief. Symptoms must begin to diminish within 8 hours
(for transient stressors) or 48 hours (for continued stressors)

68
Q

Adjustment disorder key facts

A

Identifiable (non-catastrophic) psychosocial stressor (e.g. redundancy, divorce) within one month of
onset of symptoms. Symptoms are variable but can be of the types found in the affective disorders
or the neurotic disorders (but not severe enough to be classed as a specific psychiatric disorder).
The symptoms must be present for less than 6 months.

69
Q

Key points where PTSD where symptoms are present within 3 months of a trauma?

A

Watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting <4 weeks.
Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces.
Trauma-focused CBT should be given at least once a week for 8–12 sessions.
Short-term drug treatment may be considered in the acute phase for management of sleep
disturbance (e.g. zopiclone).
Risk assessment is important to assess risk for neglect or suicide

70
Q

Management of PTSD where symptoms have been present >3 months after a trauma

A

All sufferers should be offered a course of trauma-focused psychological intervention.
The two options for psychological intervention are CBT and eye movement desensitization and
reprocessing (EMDR). The goal of EMDR is to reduce distress in the shortest period of time. It is
a form of psychotherapy, with one technique involving eye movements to help the brain process
traumatic events (see Section 12.1, Psychotherapies).
Drug treatment should be considered when: (1) little benefit from psychological therapy; (2)
patient preference not to engage in psychological therapy; (3) co-morbid depression or severe
hyperarousal which would benefit from psychological interventions.
Paroxetine, mirtazapine, amitriptyline and phenelzine are licensed for treatment of PTSD in the
UK. Evidence for paroxetine is weaker than the other three drugs. Practically, amitriptyline and
phenelzine are rarely used as a result of their side effects and tolerability.

71
Q

What is the definition of OCD?

A

is characterized by recurrent obsessional thoughts or
compulsive acts, or commonly both. It is ranked by the WHO as one of the top ten most disabling
illnesses in terms of impact upon quality of life.

72
Q

What is the definition of obsessions?

A

Unwanted intrusive thoughts, images or urges that repeatedly enter the individual’s
mind. They are distressing for the individual who attempts to resist them and recognizes them as
absurd (egodystonic) and a product of their own mind.

73
Q

What are the obsessions with compulsions

A

Repetitive, stereotyped behaviours or mental acts that a person feels driven into
performing. They are overt (observable by others) or covert (mental acts not observable).

74
Q

What are the psychoanalytic and behavioural aetiology of OCD?

A

Psychoanalytic: Filling the mind with obsessional thoughts in order to prevent undesirable ideas
from entering consciousness.
Behavioural: Compulsive behaviour is learned and maintained by operant conditioning. The
anxiety created by the obsession is reduced by performing the compulsion, and subsequently
the need to perform the compulsion is increased.

75
Q

What are the biological aetiology of OCD?

A

Related to ↓ serotonin and abnormalities of the frontal cortex and basal ganglia. Twin
and family studies suggest a genetic contribution to OCD particularly with paediatric onset.
Childhood group A beta-haemolytic streptococcal infection may have a role in causing OCD
symptoms by setting up an autoimmune reaction which damages the basal ganglia (this is called
PANDAS)

76
Q

What other diseases does OCD have strong associations with?

A

depression (30%), schizophrenia (3%),
Sydenham’s chorea, Tourette’s syndrome and anorexia nervosa.

77
Q

What are the ICD-10 criteria for diagnosis of OCD?

A

A. Either obsessions or compulsions (or both) present on most days for a period of at least 2
weeks.
B. Obsessions (thoughts, ideas or images) or compulsions (acts) share a number of features
(see Clinical features), ALL of which must be present.
C. The obsessions or compulsions cause distress

78
Q

Epidemiology and RFs for OCD

A

The prevalence of OCD ranges from 0.8–3%.
It is most common in early adulthood and is equally common in ♂ and ♀.
OCD is more common in the relatives of OCD patients than it is in the general population.
Carrying out the compulsive act (e.g. washing) is likely to exacerbate the obsession and is thus
a maintaining factor.
Developmental factors such as neglect, abuse, bullying and social isolation may have a role

79
Q

Examples of obsessions

A

Contamination (most common)
Fear of harm
Excessive concern with order or symmetry
Sex, violence, blasphemy, doubt

80
Q

Examples of compulsions

A

Checking (most common)- gas taps, water taps, doors
Cleaning, washing
Repeating acts
Mental compulsion
Hoarding

81
Q

What are the features that all obsessions or compulsions must share?

A

FORD car
1. Failure to resist: At least one obsession or compulsion is present which is unsuccessfully
resisted.
2. Originate from patient’s mind: Acknowledged that the obsessions or compulsions originate
from their own mind, and are not imposed by outside persons or influences.
3. Repetitive and Distressing: At least one obsession or compulsion must be present which is
acknowledged by the patient as excessive or unreasonable.
4. Carrying out the obsessive thought (or compulsive act) is not in itself pleasurable, but
reduces anxiety levels.

82
Q

What is the OCD cycle?

A
  1. Obsession
  2. Anxiety
  3. Compulsion
  4. Relief
83
Q

History of OCD

A

‘Do you have any distressing thoughts that enter your mind despite trying hard to
resist them?’, ‘Is there any unwanted thought that keeps bothering you that you would
like to get rid of but cannot?’ (obsessions)
‘Do you worry about contamination with dirt even after washing?’, ‘Do you repeatedly
check things you have already done?’, ‘Do you find yourself having to touch, count
and arrange things many times?’, ‘Do you wash or clean a lot? Do you check things a
lot?’, ‘Are you concerned about putting things in a specific order, or do you get upset
by not completing tasks?’ (compulsions)
‘Do your daily activities take a long time to finish?’ (due to carrying out compulsions)

84
Q

MSE for patient with OCD

A

Patient may be on edge (easily startled). May look visibly worried or lost in thought.
May be constantly checking doors or fidgety with hands (as they can’t wash them).
112
May demonstrate increasing levels of anxiety if unable to succumb to compulsion
(Fig. 5.6.2).
Thoughts are unwanted, intrusive and uncomfortable for the patient.
Obsessions can be distracting and lead to poor concentration.
Insight is usually very good (as they recognize the thoughts are a product of their own
mind).

85
Q

Investigations for OCD

A

Yale–Brown obsessive–compulsive scale (Y-BOCS) → 10-item
questionnaire with each item graded from 0–4; e.g. Time occupied by obsessive thoughts
(0 = none, 4 = extreme, >8 hours/day).

86
Q

DDs for OCD

A

Anorexia + Bulimia
Body dysmorphic disorder
Anxiety
Depressive
Hypochondrial disorder
Schizophrenia
Tourettes
Kleptomania
Dementia
Epilepsy

87
Q

2 main strategies for treatment of OCD

A
  1. CBT (including ERP – exposure and response prevention)
    ERP is a technique in which patients are repeatedly exposed to the situation which causes them
    anxiety (e.g. exposure to dirt) and are prevented from performing the repetitive actions which
    lessen that anxiety (e.g. washing their hands). After initial anxiety on exposure, the levels of
    anxiety gradually decrease.
    113
  2. Pharmacological therapy
    SSRIs are the drug of choice in OCD. NICE recommends fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine,
    sertraline or citalopram.
    Clomipramine is an alternative drug therapy. This can be combined with citalopram in more
    severe cases. Alternatively, an antipsychotic can be added in with an SSRI or clomipramine
88
Q

General points of management for OCD

A

Psychoeducation, distracting techniques and self-help books can be used.
Any potential suicide risk should be identified and managed.
Co-morbid depression should be identified and treated.
Method of treatment depends upon the degree of functional impairment (Fig. 5.6.3). This ranges
from mild (limited impact on ADL) to severe (obsessional slowness that greatly impacts
performance).