Study Pack Flashcards
Overall material mastery for written test.
When is the 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon considered deadly force?
When fired at a distance less than 5 yards. Greater than 5 yards is considered intermediate force.
True or False: Rifle deployment is a reportable use of force.
True. Rifle deployment is considered a reportable use of force with a firearm.
Under circumstances where the member is showing physical signs of impairment, how does the application of a FST on a member differ commissioned and civilian employees?
A commissioned member will be required to complete an FST as directed by his commissioned supervisor in front of at least two witnesses.
A civilian supervisor must summon IAB to perform the FST.
When does the 60-minute rule no longer apply?
When the officer develops probable cause that a crime has occurred.
What is a Witness Officer?
A commissioned officer or supervisor who did not participate in or directly influence the application of the use of force.
What is an Arrest?
The taking of a person into custody in a manner allowed by law.
What are Approved Weapons?
Weapons meeting department specifications for which officer receive proficiency and safety training.
Before the use of any approved weapon option, the officer, when practical , will communicate to the other officer and the subject that the use of that option is imminent, and clearly and audibly announce the same to all personnel in the immediate area unless exigent circumstances prevent this from occurring.
What does NRS 289.020.3 state with regards to an officer’s cooperation with an investigation into their criminal conduct?
“If a peace officer refuses to comply with a request by a superior officer to cooperate with the peace officer’s own or any other law enforcement agency in a criminal investigation, the agency may charge the peace officer with insubordination.”
As such, LVMPD members who are witnesses to alleged criminal acts by officers are not entitled to a 48-hour notices or to representation.
What is CIRT?
The Critical Incident Review Team is a team put in place to conduct an administrative examination of uses of deadly force and other high-risk law enforcement operations, for the purpose of improving both individual and the agency’s performance.
The fourth amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both:
Reasonable
and
Legitimate
What is an Investigative Emergency Search?
A warrantless search which requires probable cause to:
- prevent the destruction of evidence of a serious felony offense.
- effect a warrantless arrest of a violent or dangerous suspect who officers have probable cause to believe committed a serious felony or violent offense and may escape if not immediately apprehended.
- Hot or Fresh pursuit.
What is a Consensual Entry?
Entry by invitation by a person with standing.
What must each use of force report include?
- The level of force
- The tool or tactic used
- The effectiveness/ineffectiveness of each tool/tactic
- The eight “Objectively Reasonable” Force Factors
Of which types of complaints/allegations will IAB be immediately notified?
Any complaint alleging a major violation, alcohol or drug abuse, or criminal acts by an employee.
Any criminal acts disclosed by a citizen or by an employee which is not the result of a compelled statement will be referred to CIS.
What types of sick or injured person calls will patrol be dispatched to?
Those which are suspicious in nature
Related to unknown trouble calls
Involve injuries related to criminal activity or traffic accidents.
Are the result of a gunshot.
Other circumstances indicate a need for police involvement.
What five things may officers use reasonable force to accomplish?
- To protect themselves.
- To protect others.
- To affect a lawful detention.
- To affect a lawful arrest.
- To conduct a lawful search.
Define Deadly Force
that degree of force which is likely to produce death or serious bodily injury. Deadly force can also result from a force option being improperly applied. For the use of deadly force to be justified, at least one of the parameters and all elements must be present.
What are the Elements of Deadly Force
Ability
Opportunity
Imminent Jeopardy
Preclusion
Which firearms located at the scene of a dead body should be impounded by LVMPD
Only the firearm(s) used in the incident should be impounded by CSI. All others should be the responsibility of the Deputy Coroner or Public Administrator. Other firearms may be impounded if an articulable threat to safety can be identified.
True or False: The odor of an alcoholic beverage on a member and/or identifiable impairment can be cause to initiate an investigation and conduct a Field Sobriety Test, and/or blood or breath test.
True.
What type of injury calls warrant response and completion of a sick or injured person report?
If the person is suffering from a potential life-threatening injury or substantial head trauma a report will be completed and photographs will be taken.
What are the two articulable determinations needed to warrant the impounding of firearms for safekeeping?
Articulable threats to life safety if not impounded, or to determine ownership. Facts surrounding the impound will be clearly articulated on the Property Report.
Remember: It may take over 30 days for impounded firearms to be returned to their owner.
Define Preclusion.
Lesser alternatives have been reasonably considered and exhausted before the use of deadly force, to include disengagement. Deadly force in response to the subject’s actions must remain reasonable while based upon the totality of the circumstances known to the officer at the time force was applied.
Is a citizen able to consent to a body cavity search?
No. It is the policy of the department that subjects cannot consent to a body cavity search. A search warrant will be obtained.
This policy does not supersede information that causes an officer to believe a medical emergency exists.
What is Mediation?
A voluntary alternate dispute resolution process for resolving disputes and conflicts in which a third neutral party, the mediator, helps the parties to resolve a dispute or conflict and reach a mutually acceptable resolution.
What is the primary role of a CNT’s Secondary Negotiator?
Coaching and prompting the primary.
What are the two types of Discrimination?
Adverse Impact: A possibly unintentional action which disproportionately and negatively affects members of a protected class.
Disparate Treatment: An intentional treatment of a similarly situated member based on the member belonging to one or more protected classes.
True or False: OC Spray may be used on passive resistant subjects or protesters.
False. Use of OC spray on passive resistant subjects is not authorized. OC spray may be used in protest or demonstration events upon actual threat of harm and only with authorization of the incident commander.
What is the general standard for reportable use of force?
Any use of force resulting in injury or complaint of injury, and any use of intermediate or greater force.
True or False: Officers may enter a structure owned by a third party for the purpose of serving an arrest warrant or make a probable cause arrest.
False. According to the Stegald rule, officers must obtain a search warrant for the purposes of serving and arrest warrant or making a probable cause arrest.
Officers must articulate probable cause that the subject is within the residence, and that it is unreasonable to wait for the subject to exit.
What are the three Groups of Organization as currently defined by the organizational chart?
Law Enforcement and Administration Group
Law Enforcement Investigations and Support Group
Law Enforcement Operations Group
Define Low Level Force
A level of force or control that is neither likely nor intended to cause injury.
Define Conflict Resolution
A wide range of processes for alleviating or eliminating sources of conflict, utilizing a third neutral party, which includes fostering communication among disputants and problem solving to find a mutually satisfying scenario for all parties involved.
Once started, this process is mandatory for the involved members to participate.
What is the Community Caretaking Doctrine?
A common law exception to the Fourth Amendment based on the public’s expectation that law enforcement may take action to save life or render aid.
What is the Use of Force Model?
A visual guide describing the appropriate levels of force authorized to be sued by an officer in response to the level of resistance being displayed by a subject.
What is the primary role of a CNT’s Scribe?
Logging of all information concerning the incident, including communications between primary and suspect, as well as tactical information and ensures completion of the scribe report.
What are the five ways an officer may seize property in the course of their normal duties?
- Plain View
- Abandoned
- Premises Freeze. (Electronic Storage Devices)
- Search Warrant
- Safekeeping
Define Consensual Encounter.
A completely voluntary police interaction with members of the public, requiring no legal justification for the interaction, where a reasonable person would feel free to disregard the police and go about their business.
What is an Officer Witness Monitor?
A designated officer who is not involved in teh use of deadly force.
The responsibilities of the officer witness monitor are to observe and prevent discussions regarding the incident among involved officers, witness officers, witnesses, and other individuals who arrive at the scene (i.e. LTs, Capts, CBA reps and/or attorneys.) prior to the arrival of FIT.
When is the low lethality shotgun considered deadly force?
When fired at a distance less than 5 yards. Greater than 5 yards is considered intermediate force.
Under EDS guidelines, how long does a member have to submit a complaint?
Members must submit a complaint via e-mail, memo, or SOC within 300 days of the last incident.
Why will the internal investigation regarding possible policy violations be conducted separately and following the investigation into criminal conduct by an officer?
This is to ensure the criminal case is not jeopardized by overlap between investigations which compel testimony (Internal/Garity) and those where 4th and 5th amendment protections apply (Criminal).
If the supervisor is unable to respond what will they advise communications?
The supervisor will advise communications to request a sergeant/lieutenant from another area to respond.
What must be completed by a supervisor upon receiving a complaint from a citizen about an alleged use of force which is unfounded.
A Citizen Contact in BlueTeam.
What is the primary role of a CNT’s Primary Negotiator?
Communication with the suspect.
In what two ways may officers seize residences or structures in the course of their normal duties?
- Premises Freeze
2. Search Warrant
What is a spark display?
A non-contact demonstration of the ECD’s ability to discharge electricity.
What are the Goals of LVMPD?
LVMPD
LEAD through empowerment and accountability.
VALUE our employees and those we serve.
MAXIMIZE trust, transparency, and communication.
PROTECT the public through education, innovation, and enforcement.
DEVELOP and enhance community relationships.
Define Non-Deadly Force.
The level of force required to compel compliance, which is not intended to and is not known to create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm.
What is the department’s burden of proof that an allegation occurred?
Clear and Convincing evidence. Before an employee may be held accountable for their conduct, the investigation must demonstrate that the conduct was substantially more likely than not to have occurred.
This is stricter than preponderance of evidence; however, it is a lesser requirement than proof beyond a reasonable doubt.
Which types of dead body call will a supervisor respond?
Homicides, Suspicious Deaths.
Confirmed Natural Deaths do not necessarily require response. Natural deaths will be confirmed by the supervisor.
What is Plain Feel?
If during a pat down the officer feels an item that is not suspected to be a weapon, but is immediately apparent from the mass and shape that the item is probably contraband; the officer can legally seize the item. However, the officer is not permitted to conduct additional searches or even change grip on an item to determine that it is contraband.
When must medical be summoned following a use of force?
Visible/Complaint of Injury Baton/Impact Canine ECD LVNR OC Spray Firearm Vehicle
What is an officer’s fundamental duty as outlined in the Law Enforcement Code of Ethics?
As a Law Enforcement Officer, my fundamental duty is to serve mankind; to safeguard lives and property; to protect the innocent against deception, the week against oppression or intimidation, and the peaceful against violence or disorder; and to respect the constitutional rights of all men to liberty, equality, and justice.
What is the fundamental pillar as Identified by the President’s Task Force on 21st Century Policing which underlies the GOAL of Valuing our employees and those we serve?
Training and Education
Officer Wellness and Training
What is a Premises Freeze?
Entry into premises, with probable cause but without a search warrant, for the purpose of clearing persons and securing the premises in anticipation of obtaining a search warrant. NOTE: No search or seizure of items will occur prior to the search warrant being issued. A premises freeze will not be used as a pre-planned investigative technique.
What are the tenants of honesty and courage as outlined in the Law Enforcement Code of Ethics?
I will keep my private life unsullied as an example to all; maintain courageously calm in the face of danger, scorn or ridicule; develop self-restraint; and be constantly mindful of the welfare of others. Honest in thought and deed in both my personal and official life, I will be exemplary in obeying the laws of the land and the regulations of my department. Whatever I see or hear of a confidential nature or that is confided to me in my official capacity will be kept ever secret unless revelation is necessary in the performance of my duty.
Which section is responsible for receiving internal complaints and inquiries regarding harassment and/or discrimination issues” and receiving accommodation requests regarding religion?
The Employment Diversity Section (EDS) within the Internal Affairs Bureau.
Define Hot Pursuit.
A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” where a dangerous or felony suspect is fleeing from law enforcement and an officer has direct knowledge of the suspect’s location which would justify an exigent circumstance entry for apprehension.
Note: Not the same as Fresh Pursuit.
What is the Electronic Control Device (ECD)?
A Neuro-Muscular Incapacitation (NMI) device that stimulates the motor neurons to contract and disrupts communication from the brain to the muscles thereby causing temporary motor skill dysfunction.
Define Low Level Force.
A level of force or control that is neither likely nor intended to cause injury.
True or False: Officers will not intentionally approach a vicious and/or aggressive dog unless the dog is attacking, or the officer believes it is preparing to attack the officer, another human, or another animal.
True. The primary concern in this type of incident is safety.
Who must approve a “Keep the Peace” request by another law enforcement agency made for the purposes of the service of a search warrant?
The lieutenant in the chain of command, with notifications made to the watch commander.
What is the primary role of a CNT’s Crisis Negotiator Coordinator
Acts as the final link/insulation between the TOC and the negotiation team. The CNC is responsible for all logistical and support concerns for the TOC.
What are the four exceptions to the search warrant requirement for searches of structures/residences
Consent
Frisk for Weapons (Officer must already be legally present, and the subject’s immediate area of access)
Protective Sweep (Officer must already be legally present, it is a search for people who may be a threat to safety)
Exigent Circumstances (A time critical exception to the rule to prevent destruction of evidence of a serious felony offense, or to effect a warrantless arrest of a violent or dangerous suspect who officers have probable cause to believe committed a serious felony or violent offense and may escape if not immediately apprehended. )
Define Pat Down.
An open hand contact of a subject’s outer clothing to detect weapons on a person or contained within items “immediately associated with a person” (i.e. purse, backpack, etc.). The “pat down” is based on reasonable suspicion or articulable facts that the person may be armed and dangerous.
What is the primary role of a CNT’s Intelligence Coordinator?
Evaluation and interpretation of intelligence provided by the Intelligence Officer, and assisting the secondary in interpreting tactics or strategy in order to guide the primary and act as insulator between the team and the TOC.
True or False: A supervisor will be dispatched on all child-related deaths.
True. A patrol officer and patrol supervisor will be dispatched on all events related to the death of a child.
After how many cycles should the ECD be deemed ineffective?
Three. The use of another force option will be considered unless exigent circumstances exist.
What is the Mission of LVMPD?
SSI
Serve people, Strengthen Relationships, and Improve Quality of Life.
True or False: Members have the right to work in an environment free of harassment and/or discrimination based on the member’s race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, genetic information, disability, worker’s compensation status, family medical leave , military service, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or political affiliation; each of which are pursuant to Federal Law.
False: Although discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, genetic information, disability, worker’s compensation status, family medical leave, military service, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression are protected by federal law, political affiliation is established as a protected class by department policy.
What is a Community Caretaking Search?
A non-investigative entry into a structure or curtilage to satisfy a legitimate community concern.
Define Tactical Operations Center
The site from which tactical unit assets operate. It is a centralized location for all tactically significant information and consists of SWAT supervisors, Crisis Negotiation Team, patrol liaison, and when requested, the ISD supervisor or designee.
What two factors will a member obtain from their physician when prescribed non-over-the-counter medication.
- If the use of the prescribed medication has any side effects that could potentially impair the judgement or performance of the member.
- The prescribed duration of use.
What is the Reasonable Person Standard?
A standard of judgement which states: the victim is subjectively offended AND a reasonable, similarly-situated member of the protected class against whom the harassment or discrimination is directed would be objectively offended.
Define Hostage Taker
A person who uses hostages to affect an escape, commit crime, or further a cause, and poses a clear and present danger to the hostages and to the public at large.
What is a Piggyback Warrant?
An additional warrant acquired following the service of a primary warrant. It is based on evidence found during the execution of the primary warrant that would exceed the scope of the primary warrant if seized.
