Subelement D – Other Equipment Flashcards

1
Q

What are the antenna requirements of a VHF telephony coast, maritime utility or ship station?

A. The shore or on-board antenna must be vertically polarized.

B. The antenna array must be type-accepted for 30-200 MHz operation by the FCC.

C. The horizontally-polarized antenna must be positioned so as not to cause excessive interference to other stations.

D. The antenna must be capable of being energized by an output in excess of 100 watts.

A

A. The shore or on-board antenna must be vertically polarized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the antenna requirement of a radiotelephone installation aboard a passenger vessel?

A. The antenna must be located a minimum of 15 meters from the radiotelegraph antenna.

B. The antenna must be vertically polarized and as non-directional and efficient as is practicable for the transmission and reception of ground waves over seawater.

C. An emergency reserve antenna system must be provided for communications on 156.800 MHz.

D. All antennas must be tested and the operational results logged at least once during each voyage.

A

B. The antenna must be vertically polarized and as non-directional and efficient as is practicable for the transmission and reception of ground waves over seawater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS VHF?

A. Horizontally polarized circular antenna.

B. Long wire antenna.

C. Both of the above.

D. None of the above.

A

D. None of the above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of the antenna tuner?

A. It alters the electrical characteristics of the antenna to match the frequency in use.

B. It physically alters the length of the antenna to match the frequency in use.

C. It makes the antenna look like a half-wave antenna at the frequency in use.

D. None of the above.

A

A. It alters the electrical characteristics of the antenna to match the frequency in use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire?

A. It radiates more signal fore and aft.

B. It radiates equally well in all directions.

C. It radiates a strong signal vertically.

D. None of the above.

A

B. It radiates equally well in all directions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A vertical whip antenna has a radiation pattern best described by?

A. A figure eight.

B. A cardioid.

C. A circle.

D. An ellipse.

A

C. A circle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For a small passenger vessel inspection, reserve power batteries must be tested:

A. At intervals not exceeding every 3 months.

B. At intervals not exceeding every 6 months

C. Before any new voyage

D. At intervals not exceeding 12 months, or during the inspection.

A

D. At intervals not exceeding 12 months, or during the inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS?

A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time.

B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship.

C. Must be independent of the ship’s electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment.

D. Must be incorporated into the ship’s electrical system.

A

C. Must be independent of the ship’s electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel’s main and emergency generators cannot?

A. Emergency Diesel Generator. C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power.

B. Reserve Source of Energy. D. Emergency Back-up Generator.

C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power.

D. Emergency Back-up Generator.

A

B. Reserve Source of Energy. D. Emergency Back-up Generator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In the event of failure of the main and emergency sources of electrical power, what is the term for the source required to supply the GMDSS console with power for conducting distress and other radio communications?

A. Emergency power. C. Reserve source of energy.

B. Ship’s emergency diesel generator. D. Ship’s standby generator

C. Reserve source of energy.

D. Ship’s standby generator

A

C. Reserve source of energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations?

A. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries).

B. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications.

C. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a distress alert.

D. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications.

A

D. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the meaning of “Reserve Source of Energy”?

A. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship’s main and emergency sources of electrical power.

B. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations.

C. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements.

D. None of these.

A

A. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship’s main and emergency sources of electrical power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an EPIRB?

A. A battery-operated emergency position-indicating radio beacon that floats free of a sinking ship.

B. An alerting device notifying mariners of imminent danger.

C. A satellite-based maritime distress and safety alerting system.

D. A high-efficiency audio amplifier.

A

A. A battery-operated emergency position-indicating radio beacon that floats free of a sinking ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When are EPIRB batteries changed?

A. After emergency use; after battery life expires.

B. After emergency use or within the month and year replacement date printed on the EPIRB.

C. After emergency use; every 12 months when not used.

D. Whenever voltage drops to less than 20% of full charge.

A

B. After emergency use or within the month and year replacement date printed on the EPIRB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a ship sinks, what device is designed to float free of the mother ship, is turned on automatically and transmits a distress signal?

A. An emergency position indicating radio beacon.

B. EPIRB on 2182 kHz and 405.025 kHz.

C. Bridge-to-bridge transmitter on 2182 kHz.

D. Auto alarm keyer on any frequency.

A

A. An emergency position indicating radio beacon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you cancel a false EPIRB distress alert?

A. Transmit a DSC distress alert cancellation.

B. Transmit a broadcast message to “all stations” canceling the distress message.

C. Notify the Coast Guard or rescue coordination center at once.

D. Make a radiotelephony “distress cancellation” transmission on 2182 kHz.

A

C. Notify the Coast Guard or rescue coordination center at once.

17
Q

What is the COSPAS-SARSAT system?

A. A global satellite communications system for users in the maritime, land and aeronautical mobile services.

B. An international satellite-based search and rescue system.

C. A broadband military satellite communications network.

D. A Wide Area Geostationary Satellite program (WAGS).

A

B. An international satellite-based search and rescue system.

18
Q

What is an advantage of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB?

A. It is compatible with the COSPAS-SARSAT Satellites and Global Maritime Distress Safety System (GMDSS) regulations.

B. Provides a fast, accurate method for the Coast Guard to locating and rescuing persons in distress.

C. Includes a digitally encoded message containing the ship’s identity and nationality.

D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

19
Q

In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate?

A. 3 GHz.

B. S-band.

C. 406 MHz.

D. 9 GHz.

A

D. 9 GHz.

20
Q

How should the signal from a Search And Rescue Radar Transponder appear on a RADAR display?

A. A series of dashes.

B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART.

C. A series of 12 equally spaced dots.

D. A series of twenty dashes.

A

C. A series of 12 equally spaced dots.

21
Q

What is the purpose of the SART’s audible tone alarm?

A. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby.

B. It informs survivors when the battery’s charge condition has weakened.

C. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the “standby” mode.

D. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC.

A

A. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby.

22
Q

Which statement is true regarding the SART?

A. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one S-band navigational RADAR system.

B. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by another vessel’s S-band navigational RADAR system.

C. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one X-band navigational RADAR system.

D. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by vessel’s X-band navigational RADAR system.

A

D. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by vessel’s X-band navigational RADAR system.

23
Q

At what point does a SART begin transmitting?

A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the “on” position.

B. It must be manually activated.

C. If it has been placed in the “on” position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz RADAR signal.

D. If it has been placed in the “on” position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water.

A

C. If it has been placed in the “on” position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz RADAR signal.

24
Q

How can a SART’s effective range be maximized?

A. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation.

B. The SART should be held as high as possible.

C. Switch the SART into the “high” power position.

D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching RADAR signal.

A

B. The SART should be held as high as possible.

25
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment?

A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes.

B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 watts.

C. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel.

D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable.

A

C. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel.

26
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment?

A. Operation on Ch-13.

B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts.

C. Simplex voice communications only.

D. Operation on Ch-16.

A

A. Operation on Ch-13.

27
Q

With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate?

A. Communication is permitted between survival craft.

B. Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship.

C. Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit.

D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

28
Q

Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability?

A. Operation on Ch-16.

B. Operation on 457.525 MHz.

C. Operation on 121.5 MHz.

D. Any one of these.

A

A. Operation on Ch-16.

29
Q

Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)?

A. Operation on Ch-16.

B. Watertight.

C. Permanently-affixed antenna.

D. All of these.

A

D. All of these.

30
Q

What is the minimum power of the SCT

A. Five watts.

B. One watt.

C. . watt.

D. None of the above.

A

B. One watt.

31
Q

NAVTEX broadcasts are sent:

A. Immediately following traffic lists.

B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier.

C. On request of maritime mobile stations.

D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods.

A

B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier.

32
Q

MSI can be obtained by one (or more) of the following:

A. NAVTEX.

B. SafetyNET.

C. HF NBDP.

D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

33
Q

Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally?

A. 518 kHz.

B. 2187.5 kHz.

C. 4209.5 kHz.

D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2.

A

A. 518 kHz.

34
Q

What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system?

A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours.

B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules.

C. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts.

D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours.

A

C. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts.

35
Q

When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range?

A. Local noontime.

B. Middle of the night.

C. Sunset.

D. Post sunrise.

A

B. Middle of the night.

36
Q

What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations?

A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore.

B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime.

C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km).

D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km).

A

C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km).