Surgery Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Instrument metal that is harder and stronger, used for thumb forceps, hemostats, retractors, and needle holders.

A

Martensitic Steel

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2
Q

Instrument metal that is softer, high tensile strength resistant to corrosion, surgical implants, bowls, pans and trays are usually made out of this.

A

Austenitic Steel

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3
Q

Occasionally used as inserts in tips of instruments especially needle holders, often identified by golden handles.

A

Tungsten Carbide

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4
Q

Cleans by a process called cavitation, utilizes high frequency vibrations to remove dirt.

A

Ultrasonic Cleaning

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5
Q

What are three ways to lubricate medical instruments?

A

Instrument detergents that contain lubricants, lubricant sprays, instrument milk

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6
Q

Common methods of instrument sterilization

A

Steam autoclave

Ethylene oxide gas

Cold sterilization

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7
Q

Gas cylinders contain _____ or _____ ____ for deilvery to the patient

A

Oxygen or nitrous oxide

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8
Q

Oxygen is delivered at ____% versus room air which is __-___%

A

100%, 20-21%

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9
Q

Oxygen cylinders are colorer _____

A

Green

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10
Q

Volume in any E cylinder can be calculated by multiplying the pressure in pounds per square inch by __

A

0.3

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11
Q

Full Oxygen tank

A

2200 PSI / 660 Liters

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12
Q

1/2 full oxygen tank

A

1100 PSI / 330 Liters

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13
Q

Nitrous Oxide containers are ____

A

Blue

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14
Q

What is different on nitrous oxide and oxygen to avoid confusion?

A

Pin number on the yoke

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15
Q

Gas enters at the ___, exits at the ___, displacing the rubber or plastic gauge

A

bottom, top

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16
Q

What is the minimum oxygen flow rate to a patient?

A

1/2 Liter (500 mL)

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17
Q

Wick in a glass jar absorbs anesthetic to increase surface area, as oxygen flows past wick it collects the anesthesia to carry to the patient

A

Non-Precision Vaporizor

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18
Q

Designed for use with one anesthetic only, deliver exact concentration of gas as dialed

A

Precision Vaporizor

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19
Q

Allows oxygen to bypass vaporizer and enter the breathing circuit, containing no anesthetic gas. Best to depress when patient is not directly attached to the system

A

Oxygen flush valve

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20
Q

Dilutes the concentration of inhalation agent delivered

A

Oxygen flush valve

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21
Q

A low pressure hose that carries gas and/or gas mixed with anesthetic to the breathing circuit, preventing return of this gas to other components

A

Fresh Gas inlet

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22
Q

Minimum volume bag to select for a patient

A

60 ml/kg

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23
Q

Periodic bagging helps prevent ____

A

Atelectasis

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24
Q

Flushes the alveoli and airways with fresh gas, necessary when animal is not breathing on its own

A

Bagging

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25
Q

What occurs when a bag is overinflated?

A

Back pressure into the lungs and can cause alveoli to break

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26
Q

Maximum amount to bag

A

15-20 cm H2O (mm HG)

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27
Q

If the scavenger is too strong, what may occur to the bag?

A

Under inflation

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28
Q

On exhalation, the gas passes through the exhalation hose and either to the ___ ____ ___ or into the ____ _____

A

Pop off valve, CO2 Canister

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29
Q

Prevents buildup of excessive pressure in the system

A

Pop Off Valve

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30
Q

What two instances should the pop off valve be closed for?

A

Bagging a patient, conducting a leak test

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31
Q

Gases that do not exit via the pop off valve go where?

A

CO2 Canister

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32
Q

___ ___ in canisters cleanses CO2 from the circuit

A

Soda lime

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33
Q

When should CO2 canisters be changed?

A

Every 6-8 hours of use

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34
Q

Usually situated on top of the CO2 absorber, measures pressure within the circuit

A

Pressure manometer

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35
Q

Pressure should not exceed ___ cm H2O or mmHg

A

20 cm

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36
Q

Rebreathing circuits are available in what sizes?

A

3: pediatric, large animal, adult

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37
Q

2 types of rebreathing systems

A

Closed, semi-closed

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38
Q

What breathing circuit is used for animals <5-7 kg?

A

Non-rebreathing

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39
Q

This breathing circuit has no inhalation flutter valve, allowing gas to flow directly through the fresh gas inlet to the inlet hose for delivery to the patient.

A

Non-rebreathing system

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40
Q

What breathing circuit reduces resistance associated with breathing

A

Non-rebreathing

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41
Q

Mask induction level

A

300 ml/kg/min

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42
Q

Intubation after induction with injectable drugs (level)

A

200 ml/kg/min

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43
Q

Non-rebreathing flow rates

A

High, 200 ml/kg/min

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44
Q

Rebreathing flow rates (closed and semiclosed)

A

Closed: 15 ml/kg/min

Semi-closed: 25-50 ml/kg/min

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45
Q

Flow rates at the end of anesthesia are _____ immediately to the flow rates used during induction

A

increased

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46
Q

What does inceasing flow rates fo recovery do?

A

Saturates anesthetic circuit with oxygen

Dilutes the expired concentration of gases, replacing them with pure oxygen

More rapid recovery results

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47
Q

What are some long term effects of anesthetic gas exposure?

A

Reproductive disorders, liver and kidney damage, nervous system dysfunction

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48
Q

What anesthetics are considered greater hazards?

A

Methoxyflurane, halothane

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49
Q

Do waste anesthetic gases have cancer causing effects?

A

No

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50
Q

Whenever possible avoid being closer than ___ feet from the nose of an animal recovering from anesthesia

A

3 minutes

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51
Q

Hoses, reservoir bags, masks, ET tubes, and other rubber components can be washed with?

A

Soap and water (minimal soap, usually chorohexadine)

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52
Q

What is available if human exposure to injectable agents?

A

Narcotic reversing agents

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53
Q

Delivers anesthetic gases directly from the anesthetic machine to the lungs

A

Endotracheal tubes

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54
Q

ET tubes with beveled end and side holes, possible cuff

A

Murphy tube

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55
Q

ET tube with no side hole or cuff, abrupt decrease in diameter of tube, used in birds and reptiles

A

Cole tubes

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56
Q

Clear and stiff material used for ET tubes

A

Polyvinyl chloride

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57
Q

Flexible, less traumatic, absorbant ET tube material, may kink or collapse

A

Red rubber

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58
Q

Pliable, strong, less irritating ET tube material, resists collapse

A

Silicone

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59
Q

ET tubes are measured by ____ diamter

A

Internal diameter

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60
Q

ET tubes range in size from __ - __ mm

A

1-30mm

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61
Q

Clear, aquarium like boxes used to induce general anesthesia

A

Anesthetic chambers

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62
Q

Used in feral, vicious, or intractable animals to reduce stress

A

anesthetic chamber

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63
Q

Anesthetic chambers are either ____ or ____

A

Acrylic or Perspex

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64
Q

Disadvantage of anesthetic chambers

A

Can not monitor patient closely

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65
Q

Carrier gas for anesthetic machines is either _____ or ____ ____

A

Oxygen or nitrous oxide

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66
Q

Small cylinders attached directly to anesthetic machine

A

E tanks (small)

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67
Q

Large cylinder attached remotely to anesthetic machine

A

H Tanks (large)

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68
Q

Reduces outgoing pressure to a usable level

A

Pressure reducing valve

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69
Q

In Canada, oxygen cylinders are white, in the US they are _____

A

Green

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70
Q

Nitrous cylinders are what color?

A

Blue

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71
Q

Carbon dioxide cylinders are what color?

A

Gray

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72
Q

What color are medical air cylinders?

A

US- yellow

Canada/Europe- white and black

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73
Q

Pressure reducing valves (pressure regulator) reduce gas pressure to a constant __-__ psi

A

40-50 psi

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74
Q

Indicated pressure in the gas line between the pressure reducing valve and flowmeter

A

Line Pressure Gauge

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75
Q

Line pressure gauge should read __-__ psi after the oxygen tank is opened

A

40-50 psi

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76
Q

Sizes of laryngoscopes for small animals

A

0-5

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77
Q

Size of laryngoscopes for large animals

A

18 inch blade

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78
Q

Indicated gas flow in liters per minute

A

Flowmeter

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79
Q

Where carrier gas enters a vaporizer from the flowmeter

A

Vaporizer inlet port

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80
Q

Bypasses vaporizer and flowmeter, delivers short, large burst of pure oxygen directly into rebreathing circuit, used to refill rebreathing bag to deilver pure oxygen to a patient

A

Oxygen Flush Valve

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81
Q

Used to deliver low vapor pressure anesthetics, rarely used

A

Non-precision Vaporizer

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82
Q

Used to deliver high vapor pressure anesthetics

A

Precision Vaporizers

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83
Q

Precision vaporizers, high resistance gas flow

A

VOC (Vaporizer Out of Circuit)

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84
Q

Low resistance gas glow, Non precision vaporizer

A

VIC (Vaporizer in circuit)

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85
Q

In these vaporizers, oxygen from the flowmeter enters the vaporizer prior to entering the breathing circuit

A

VOC

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86
Q

In these vaporizers, oxygen enters the breathing circuit from the flowmeter, exhaled gases pass through the vaporizer

A

VIC

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87
Q

Due to manual ventilation or activation of oxygen flush valve

A

Back pressure

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88
Q

Color code for Isoflurane

A

Purple

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89
Q

Color code for Sevoflurane

A

yellow

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90
Q

Color code for Halothane

A

red

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91
Q

Color code for Desflurane

A

blue

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92
Q

Induction rate for Isoflurane

A

3-5%

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93
Q

Maintenance rate for Isoflurane

A

1.5-2.5%

94
Q

Induction rate for Sevoflurane

A

4-6%

95
Q

Maintenance rate for Sevoflurane

A

2-4.5%

96
Q

Induction rate for Desflurane

A

10-15%

97
Q

Maintenance rate for Desflurane

A

8-12%

98
Q

What is the primary absorbant ingredient in CO2 canisters?

A

Calcium Hydroxide

99
Q

CO2 becomes more ____ with use

A

acidic

100
Q

Negative pressure is indicated by what?

A

A collapsed reservoir bag

101
Q

What three sizes do breathing tubes come in?

A

50 mm, 22mm, 15 mm

102
Q

Non-rebreathing system used in very small patients (<2.5 kg)

A

Semi-open system

103
Q

What is not found on a semi-open non-rebreathing system?

A

No CO2 canister, pressure manometer or unidirectional valves

104
Q

Machine choice is based on animal body weight. What is considered small and large?

A

Small <150 kg

Large >150 kg

105
Q

What is maintenance fluid rate?

A

30 ml/lb/day (60 ml/kg/day)

106
Q

What is fluid rate during anesthesia?

A

5 ml/lb/day (11 ml/kg/day)

107
Q

What are fluid rates for shock? (cats and dogs)

A

Dogs: 40 ml/lb/day (88 ml/kg/day)

Cats: 25 ml/lb/day (55 ml/kg/day)

108
Q

Balanced electrolytes, saline and Dextrose are what type of fluid?

A

Crystalloid solutions

109
Q

Blood/plasma, Synthetics and Blood substitues are what type of fluid?

A

Colloid Solution

110
Q

Controlled drugs that have extreme potential for abuse, no approved use

A

C1

111
Q

Controlled drugs that have high abuse potential (give examples)

A

CII - Opium, pentobarbital, morphine

112
Q

Controlled drugs that have some abuse potential

A

CIII

113
Q

Controlled drugs that have low abuse potential (give examples)

A

CIV - phenobarb, diazepam

114
Q

Controlled drugs with the lowest abuse potential

A

CV

115
Q

Sympathetic drugs used to decrease salivation and inhibit bradycardia

A

Anticholenergics

116
Q

Similar to Atropine but has a longer duration (can last 2-3 hours)

A

Glycopyrrolate (Robinul)

117
Q

Quicker onset than Glycopyrrolate, can also be treatment for organophosphate toxicity, and is a pretreatment/treatment for bradycardia, AV block

A

Atropine Sulfate

118
Q

Examples of anticholinergics

A

Atropine and Glycopyrrolate

119
Q

Example of a Phenothiazine

A

Acepromazine maleate

120
Q

Neurologic agent, “modifying psychotic behavior”, provides no analgesia. Reduces seizure threshold, mental calming sedation, and increased threshold to external stimuli.

A

Acepromazine

121
Q

______ Acts on the brainstem to cause a loss of vasomotor regulation leading to lower blood pressure

A

Phenothiazine

122
Q

What side effects are associated with Ace?

A

“Ace face”, ataxia, hypotension, hypothermia, decreased platelet function

123
Q

What species should avoid use of Ace?

A

Horses (causes penile prolapse), geriatric animals, animals in shock, boxers, sighthounds

124
Q

Mixture 50/50 with ketamine in same syringe as an induction agent

A

Diazepam

125
Q

Less irritating than Diazepam

A

Midazolam

126
Q

Induction agent when combined with tiletamine

A

Zolazepam

127
Q

Special considerations for Benzodiazepines

A

Light sensitive

128
Q

Xylazine (Rompun), Medetomidine (DexDomitor), and Detomidine are examples of what?

A

Alpha 2 Agonsists

129
Q

What is the site of action for alpha 2 agonists?

A

Sympathetic nervous system receptors in the brain

130
Q

What is a benefit of alpha 2 agonists?

A

They have reversal agents

131
Q

What is released as a neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system (stimulation of fight or flight)?

A

Norepinephrine

132
Q

Stimulation of the ___ _ recepter causes a STOP in the release of norepinephrine

A

Alpha 2

133
Q

Side effects of alpha 2 agonists

A

Profound bradycardia, supresses salivation and swallowing reflex

134
Q

Antagonist to xylazine and detomidine, primarily used for dogs

A

Yohimbine

135
Q

Antagonist to Medetomidine

A

Atipamezole (Antisedan)

136
Q

Oxymorphone, hydromorphone, fentanyl, torb, bupenorphine, morphine and tramadol are all examples of what type of drugs?

A

Opioids

137
Q

Pure agonist, 10x more potent than morphine

A

Oxymorphone

138
Q

This drug is an excellent choice for orthopoedic or very painful procedures

A

Oxymorphone

139
Q

Agonist that is similar to oxy but less expensive and more available

A

Hydromorphone

140
Q

What problems are associated with fentanyl?

A

Heat increases absorption, ingestion could lead to death due to resp depression, must be returned to clinic, takes a min of 12 hours to take effect

141
Q

Opioid best used against mild-moderate soft tissue pain such as spays/neuters and mild disease.

A

Butorphanol (Torb)

142
Q

Reversal agent for Torb

A

Naloxone

143
Q

Agonist of Mu receptor

A

Buprenorphine

144
Q

If given IV, _____ can cause hypotension

A

Morphine

145
Q

Mu receptor agonist used for chronic pain

A

Tramadol

146
Q

Combination of a tranq or sedative and an opioid

A

Neuroleptanalgesics

147
Q

4 examples of neuroleptanalgesics

A

Ace/Torb

Ace/Oxy

Ace/Buprenorphine

Domitor/Torb

148
Q

Decreased responsiveness of normal muscle reflexes

A

Hyporeflexia

149
Q

General anesthesia ideally includes what 4 things?

A

Hypnosis, Hyporeflexia, muscle relaxation and Analgesia

150
Q

What are the 4 components of anesthetic protocol?

A
  1. Preanesthesia
  2. Induction
  3. Maintenance
  4. Recovery
151
Q

What stage of anesthesia can NOT be skipped?

A

Induction

152
Q

The same drug is often used for _____ and _____

A

Induction and maintenance

153
Q

When does recovery begin?

A

When the concentration of anesthetic in the brain begins to decrease

154
Q

Inhalation anesthetics are removed during _____

A

respiration

155
Q

What is the single most important factor in preventing serious anesthetic problems?

A

Monitoring

156
Q

This stage of anesthesia begins immediately after the administration of an induction drug

A

Stage 1

157
Q

What stage of anesthesia begins witht the loss of consciousness

A

Stage 2

158
Q

What stage is “fighting anesthesia”?

A

Stage 2

159
Q

This stage ends with signs of muscle relaxation, slowed respiratory rate, and decreased reflex activity

A

Stage 2

160
Q

Stage 3 is divided into how many plans?

A

4

161
Q

What is the surgical plane of anesthesia?

A

Stage 3 Plane 2

162
Q

Minimum average heart rate for a dog under anesthesia

A

60 bmp

163
Q

Minimum heart rate for a cat under anesthesia

A

100 bpm

164
Q

What heart rate range is common during anesthesia?

A

60-120 bmp

165
Q

___ is the force exerted by the flowing blood on arterial walls

A

BP

166
Q

What can cause hypotension?

A

Excessive anesthetic depth

Vasodilation

Cardiac insufficiency

Blood loss

167
Q

Systolic pressure: Highest Pressure ____

A

120

168
Q

Diastolic pressure: Maintenance pressure ____

A

80

169
Q

Mean Arterial BP: Average pressure ___-___

A

90-100

170
Q

What are indirect methods of monitoring BP?

A

Doppler and Oscillometer

171
Q

What amount of blood loss is acceptable?

A

5mL/lb

172
Q

What percent blood loss has serious circulatory side effects?

A

>15%

173
Q

Normal anesthesic respiratory rate

A

8-20 bpm

174
Q

Inspiration followed by a prolonged period before expiration

A

Apneustic breathing

175
Q

What is the most common complication in veterinary patients?

A

Hypothermia

176
Q

Common reasons for hypothermia?

A

Stainless steel tables

Clipped/scrubbed patients

Decreased metabolic rate

Age

Open body cavity

177
Q

Measure of oxygenation of RBCs

A

Systemic oxygenation

178
Q

What can affect systemic oxygenation?

A

Blood loss, anemia, type of anesthetic used

179
Q

What does direct monitoring of systemic oxygenation measure?

A

oxygen saturation, CO2 saturation, bicarbonate levels

180
Q

Normal Oxygenation

A

90-100%

181
Q

What oxygenation level is considered hyopxia?

A

less than 90%

182
Q

What 2 factors indicate degree of oxygenation?

A

PaO2/SPaO2

183
Q

During ____ CO2 is close to zero

A

Inspiration

184
Q

During ____ CO2 rises to 32-40

A

Expiration

185
Q

>40 mmHg CO2 indicates?

A

Hypercapnea

186
Q

<30 mmHg CO2 indicates

A

Hypocapnea

187
Q

Sensor at the end of the ET tube that monitors CO2 in breathed air

A

Capnograph

188
Q

What is most commonly seen after the administration of alpha 2 agonists such as Medetomidine and Xylazine?

A

Heart Block

189
Q

Degree of heart block where the P wave is seen with delayed QRS complex following

A

First degree

190
Q

Degree of heart block where the P wave is present with an absent QRS complex

A

Second Degree

191
Q

Degree of heart block where there is a series of P waves with no QRS complex?

A

Third degree

192
Q

Occurs when electrical impulses that cause the heart to beat are not being transmitted properly through the heart

A

Heart block

193
Q

An electrical impulse that arises from the ventricle, not the atria, and causes an uncoordinated and ineffective contraction

A

Premature Ventricular Contractions

194
Q

What are some causes of PVC?

A

Hypoxia, Systemic diseases (GDV, heart disease), Epinephrine

195
Q

Treatment for PVC

A

IV Lidocaine

196
Q

Rapid, randomized, uncoordinated muscle twitching of the heart. May cause lack of circulation and loss of pulse.

A

Fibrillation

197
Q

Valium/Xylazine ____ muscle tone

A

decrease

198
Q

Ketamine/Tiletamine ____ muscle tone

A

increase

199
Q

During what stage of anesthesia are pupils constricted then dilate as level increases?

A

Stage 2

200
Q

Dilated central pupil with no light reflex may indicate what?

A

Dangerously deep anesthesia

201
Q

Cats are prone to _____ therefore should be extubated as soon as possible.

A

Laryingospasms

202
Q

Recovery period complications

A

Hemorrhage, aspiration, dyspnea, self trauma

203
Q

In what percentage of procedures do complications arise?

A

10-15%

204
Q

Average mortality rate for anesthesia?

A

5 per 1000

205
Q

Geriatric patients are at a high risk for ______

A

Hypothermia

206
Q

Geriatric patients can be easily _____

A

overhydrated

207
Q

For geriatrics, reduce anesthesia ___-___%

A

30-50%

208
Q

Fluid rates for geriatric patients should be kept ____

A

lower

209
Q

What oxygen strategy can be used for geriatrics?

A

Pre-oxygenate with a mask or chamber for 5 minutes prior to induction

210
Q

What should be avoided in neonates to prevent hypothermia?

A

Avoid using alcohol in surgery prep, avoid using Acepromazine because it lowers BP

211
Q

For neonates ____ are preferred over injectables

A

inhalants

212
Q

For neonates, administer ___ ____ in LRS via micro drip set

A

5% Dextrose

213
Q

Fasting should be avoided in ____

A

neonates

214
Q

For Brachycephalic breeds, ___ tubes will be necessary

A

smaller

215
Q

For obese animals, dose according to ___ ___

A

ideal weight

216
Q

For patients undergoing C-sections, ___ should be used instead of ketamine/valium

A

Propofol

217
Q

For cardiovascular problems, patients should be given _____ to reduce pulmonary edema

A

diuretics

218
Q

What blood work should be ran for hepatic failure strategies?

A

Profile, CBC, Clotting profile

219
Q

____ agents are preferred for hepatic problems

A

inhalant

220
Q

For patients with urinary obstruction, avoid IM ____

A

Ketamine

221
Q

Treat hyperkalemia with ___

A

NaCl

222
Q

To treat excessive anesthetic depth immediately ____ vaporizer and ____ O2 flow

A

decrease/increase

223
Q

What should the adjustments be for a patient that is too awake?

A

Increase vaporizer setting and increase O2

224
Q

What should the adjustments be for a patient that is too deep?

A

Increase O2 and decrease or turn off vaporizer, reversal drugs can be used.

225
Q

Loose metatarsal pulse

A

<60

226
Q

Loose femoral pulse

A

<40

227
Q

What is the IV fluid rate for hypotension?

A

20 ml/kg for 15 mins (90 ml/kg/hr max)

228
Q

What drugs should be used for shock?

A

Solu-delta Corteff

Dexamethasone SP

Dobutamine

Bicarb

229
Q

What is asystole treated with?

A

epinephrine, atropine and bicarb

230
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation treated with?

A

lidocaine and a defib