Systems Test Flashcards

1
Q
A

APU Bleed ON, Single Pack operation

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2
Q
A
  1. Pack control valve position disagreement
  2. Compressor outlet overheat
  3. Pack outlet overheat
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3
Q
A

Sends a “close” signal to the inlets and valves below the water line.

  1. Outflow valve
  2. Emergency Ram inlet
  3. Avionics inlet and extract valves
  4. Pack flow control valves.
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4
Q
A

Both automatic pressurization controllers have failed.

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5
Q
A

GEN 1 LINE SMOKE, BLOWER FAULT, and EXTRACT FAULT

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6
Q
A

To Disconnect:

  1. Press either instinctive disconnect button
  2. Retard both thrust levers to idle
  3. Push A/THR pb on FCU - Will cause thrust lock
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7
Q
A

Move the thrust levers

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8
Q
A

Normal: SRS gives pitch guidance to maintain V2 + 10

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9
Q
A

Runway mode is engaged. This mode provides steering guidance during the takeoff roll and initial climb (30 feet RA) if a localizer signal is available.

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10
Q
A

Armed

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11
Q
A

A/Thr is active (white A/THR on FMA) after the thrust is moved to the CLB detent

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12
Q
A

CLB = Managed Climb mode is engaged. The FMGS target altitdue is higher than the actual altitude. This mode is used to climb towards the FCU selected altitude along the vertical flight path (NAV must be engaged). Pitch guidance is given to hold the airspeed target. FMGS programmed altitude constraints are taken into account.

OP CLB = Open climb mode is engaged. The FCU selected altitdue is higher than the actual altitdue. This mode is used to climb towards the FCU selected alttidue at a constant airspeed. FMGS programmed altitude constraints are ignored. Pitch guidance is given to hold the airspeed target.

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13
Q
A

Altitude Hold (Cruise) Mode is engaged and pitch guidance is given to hold cruise altitude. The altitude is permitted to vary +- 50 feet from the selected altitude to minimize thrust variations.

Soft Altitude: Upon reaching planned cruise altitude, ALT CRZ engages and A/THR maintains the Speed/Mach target. Two minutes after ALT CRZ engages, if the Mach mode is operative, SOTF ALTITUDE mode engages. This allows the aircraft to deviate +/- 50 feet from the target altitude, thereby minimizing thrust variations and reducing fuel consumption.

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14
Q
A

DES = (NAV must be engaged) Managed Descent mode is engaged and the FMGS target altitude is lower than the actual altitude. FMS-programmed altitude constraints are taken into account. Pitch guidance is given to acquire and track a vertical profile.

OP DES = Open Descent mode is engaged and the FCU selected altitude is lower than the actual altitude. This mode is used to descend directly to the FCU selected altitude at a constant airspeed. FMGS-programmed altitude constraints are ignored. Pitch guidance is given to maintain target airspeed.

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15
Q
A

Cyan 1 = V1, 135

Cyan circle = Vr, 142

Magenta triangle = V2, 147

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16
Q
A

During Acceleration, S Speed is defined as Minimum Flap Retraction speed when the Flap Handle is in position 1. During acceleration it is the lowest speed to select Flaps 0.

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17
Q
A

Green Dot Speed is best lift over drag speed. Green Dot is also the minimum maneuvering speed in the clean configuration. (Green Dot speed appears when the aircraft is flying in the clean configuration. )

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18
Q
A

Amber “=“ sign represents Vfe next (the maximum speed corresponding to the next flap lever position)

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19
Q
A

Minimum Maneuvering speed with the Flaps in 2 or 3.

During Deceleration, Green dot, S-speed, and F-speed represent the minimum maneuvering speed for the associated configuration. (Green dot=clean, S=Flaps 1, F=Flaps 2 or 3). With ‘managed speed’ and Auto-Thrust on, it is also the lowest speed the A/Thr will allow the aircraft to slow to (assuming the target speed is lower).

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20
Q
A
  • Vls (lowest selectable)
  • Alpha Prot (speed at which AOA Protection becomes active)
  • Alpha Max (max obtainable AOA in normal law)

Normal Law

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21
Q
A
  • Vls (same as previous ques)
  • Vsw (stall warning)

Alternate or direct law.

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22
Q
A

The signal will only be apparent in the Flight Deck and the alert will only sound in the Flight Deck for 3 seconds, the EVAC light flashes.

  1. EVAC light flashes and the horn sounds for 3 seconds.
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23
Q
A

Switch to CAPT3 or FO3, utilize your own acoustic equipment and the third occupants ACP.

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24
Q
A

Yes.

AC BUS 2.

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25
Q
A

AC ESS BUS is not powered.

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26
Q
A

HOT/LOP

High oil outlet temperature / Low oil pressure

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27
Q
A

AC BUS 1 = GEN 1

AC BUS 2 = EXT PWR

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28
Q
A

CRC, MASTER WARN lights flash, ENG FIRE 1(2) warning appears on ECAM, ENG FIRE pushbutton illuminates red, SQUIB lights illuminate white, DISCH lights illuminate amber, FIRE light on ENG panel illuminates red.

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29
Q
A

Automatic Shutdown and Automatic Extinguisher activation (on ground only)

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30
Q
A

Bottle 1 has low pressure

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31
Q
A

Power is removed from the aft avionics rack.

Student does not need to recite: WADL, CSS (CMVC), Live TV & XM Radio systems completely shut off.

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32
Q
A

Elevator, Aileron, and Horizontal Stabilizer control

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33
Q
A

Spoiler control, and Standby Elevator and Horizontal Stabilizer control

34
Q
A

FLEW: Flight Envelope Protection…Low Energy Warning…Electrical Rudder Control…Windsher Detection

35
Q
A

-Load Factor (neutral equals 1.0g) until slowed to the Alpha Protection range, then angle of attack (AOA)

36
Q
A

Roll rate

37
Q
A

Dual input. Both sidesticks are being used simultaneously

38
Q
A

The FO is holding the takeover pushbutton and inputs are being commanded on the CA’s side stick – would be accompanied by the aural “PRIORITY RIGHT”

39
Q
A

Press and hold the Auto-Pilot Disconnect / Takeover red button.

40
Q
A

40 seconds

41
Q
A

Yes

42
Q

What are the protections available in normal law?

A

Pitch, bank, yaw (yaw damping and turn coordination), high speed, low speed, high AoA protection, load factor

43
Q
A

Alternate law

44
Q

Can you stall the aircraft in alternate law?

A

Yes

45
Q
A

Direct law, no protections, conventional airplane

46
Q

If the speed brake handle is armed, what is required to activate the ground spoilers during a rejected takeoff?

A

Wheel speed > 72kts

Both thrust levers at or near idle

(If handle is not armed: wheel speed > 72kts, with at least one thrust lever in revers and the other thrust lever at or near idle)

47
Q

With the AP on, what maximum speed brake setting is available?

A

Half (on A320)

48
Q

Speed brakes are inhibited and will auto-retract in relation to what flap position for the A320?

A

Flaps full

49
Q

With fuel in the center tank, when do the center tank pumps run with the MODE SEL in AUTO?

A

With fuel in the Center tank: 1) Center pumps run for 2 minutes at each engine start (regardless of the slat position), and (2) Before or after engine start sequence, the pumps run if the slats are retracted.

50
Q
A

Fuel is being supplied from the Wing Tanks, when there is fuel in the Center Tank (>550 in CTR, < 11,000 in a wing).

51
Q

In flight, with fuel in both wing tanks, if all tank pumps failed, would the engines continue to run? Why or why not?

A

Yes, gravity feeding is available from the wing tanks

52
Q

In cruise, your yellow hydraulic system experiences a low quantity. In addition to the ECAM, what lights would illuminate on the overhead panel?

A

PTU fault, engine 2 pump fault

53
Q

If the ENG 1 PUMP fualt light illuminates due to low green systems pressure, can the PTU be used to pressurize the green system?

A

Yes

54
Q
A

Green system reservoir overheat

55
Q
A

Position of anti-ice valve is not in the required position, or low pressure is detected

56
Q

When are the probes/windows heated automatically?

A

In flight, or on the ground with one engine running (except the TAT probes)

57
Q

If the GND CTL is not on, when with the recorders run?

A

For 5 minutes when electrical power is applied to the aircraft, at an engine start, and anytime in flight, and for five minutes after second engine is shut down

58
Q
A

CA’s PFD and ND will be lost. (On NON LCD a/c, the E/WD will also be lost. On LCD equipped A/C, the E/WD and SD are both driven by DMC 1 however they are automatically picked up by DMC 2 after a failure of DMC 1)

59
Q
A

Yellow accumulator pressure is displayed on top. Yellow system pressure being applied to brakes displayed on bottom.

60
Q
A

Landing gear is not locked in the selected position

61
Q

What is the effect on braking if green hydraulic system pressure is lost?

A

Yellow hydraulic pressure takes over automatically to supply the brakes, anti-skid remains available, auto brakes lost, nose wheel steering lost (classic), autobrakes are unavailable, the triple indicator shows yellow system pressure supplied to the brakes

62
Q

Assuming a loss of green and yellow system pressure, what hydraulic source is supplying braking?

A

Yellow accumulator

63
Q

When does the AUTO function of the STROBE Light switch turn the strobes on?

A

weight off wheels

64
Q

The radar is selected ON in WX/TURB mode. Within how many miles ahead of your aircraft can turbulence be shown in precipitation?

What color is used to display turbulence?

A
  1. Turbulence is depicted within 40 nm (selected Range not a factor)
  2. Magenta
65
Q

If the Radar system was selected OFF and WINDSHEAR was selected to AUTO. Windshear is predicted ahead of your flight path. Will you receive a Predictive Windshear alert?

A

Yes, Predictive windshear function is activated even if Weather

Radar transceiver selector is in the OFF position.

66
Q

Describe the required steps to tune and track a VOR radial after selecting STBY NAV

A

Select VOR pb, use selector knob to select the VOR frequency and desired course, then select ROSE VOR on the ND to track the radial.

67
Q

If the TERR pushbutton shows a FAULT, what has been lost?

A

Database terrain detect functions

68
Q
A

IR

69
Q
A

ADR

70
Q
A

Alignment fault. No presesnt position entry after 10 minutes. Difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1 deg of latitude or longitude. A/C movement

71
Q
A

Fault in IR3, but attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode

72
Q

At what cabin altitude do the oxygen masks deploy in auto mode?

A

14,000 ft cabin altitude

73
Q
A

Select X BLEED to open or start the APU and select APU BLEED On

74
Q
A

APU Bleed leak

75
Q
A

APU starter energized

76
Q
A

APU start sequence is complete (N is above 99.5% or seconds after reaching 95%), and the APU is available for use

77
Q
A

Amber APU FAULT light

78
Q
A

Cockpit door system failure has been identified (ex: Latch, pressure sensor, control unit)

79
Q
A

Over wing exit doors closed and slides armed

80
Q
A

Flex/ TOGA thrust set, engine anti-ice on, engine surge or stall in flight, flap or handle other than 0 in flight

81
Q
A

Auto thrust and Alpha Floor protections are not available

82
Q
A

Automatic start abort

Start valve fault

Disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and its commanded position