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Physiology II E2 > T2 Review > Flashcards

T2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the neurotransmitters for UMN?

A

glutamate

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2
Q

What is the pathways for UMNs?

A

Descends the spinal cord, synapsing with a LMN or interneuron.

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3
Q

To what receptor does the glutamate in UMN bind?

A

glutamatergic receptors

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4
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for LMN?

A

ACh

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5
Q

What is the location of the LMNs?

A

anterior gray portion of the spinal cord or cranial nerve nuclei of brainstem

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6
Q

What is the function and location of Renshaw cells?

A

Inhibitory signals that result in lateral inhibition that enhance the fluidity of limb movement. They are located in anterior horns of spinal cord.

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7
Q

What are the three fiber types from fastest to slowest conductance?

A

A-alpha/beta, A-delta, and C (slowest)

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8
Q

Intrafusal fibers (3-12) make up the muscle spindle and are what type of MN?

A

gamma motor neuron

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9
Q

What are muscle spindles innervated by?

A

Small gamma motor neurons.

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10
Q

What is the function of the central region of the spindle?

A

A sensory receptor that detects stretching of the central region of intrafusal fiber.

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11
Q

What is the main role of the muscle spindle?

A

detect changes in muscle length

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12
Q

What are the two types of intrafusal fibers?

A

nuclear bag and nuclear chain

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13
Q

What do nuclear bag fibers detect?

A

rate of change in muscle length

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14
Q

What do nuclear chain fibers detect?

A

static change in muscle length

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15
Q

Stimulation of sensory fibers results in what?

A

stimulation of alpha motor neurons resulting in contraction and shortening of muscle.

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16
Q

What innervates intrafusal fibers, adjusts sensitivity of muscle spindle and is co-activated with alpha motor neurons?

A

muscle spindle gamma motor neurons

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17
Q

The gamma motor neurons control what brain areas?

A

Bulboreticular region of brain stem, cerebellum, basal nuclei, and cerebral cortex.

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18
Q

What is the function of the golgi tendon organ?

A

to detect muscle tension

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19
Q

What is the opposite of the stretch reflex?

A

golgi tendon reflex

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20
Q

Flexion on ______ and extension on ______ side.

A

ipsilateral side; contralateral side

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21
Q

What motor areas cause complex patterns of movement?

A

premotor and supplementary motor cortex areas

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22
Q

What is the function of the medial activation system?

A

to innervate postural and girdle muscles

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23
Q

What is the function of the lateral activation system?

A

it is associated with distally located muscles used for fine movements

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24
Q

What is the function of the nonspecific activating system?

A

it facilitates local reflex arcs

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25
Q

What are the origins of the corticospinal tract?

A

primary motor cortex, premotor cortex, and somatosensory area.

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26
Q

What is the name of the corticospinal tract when it decussates in the medullary pryamids?

A

lateral corticospinal tract (contralateral side)

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27
Q

What is the name of the corticospinal tract when it does NOT decussates in the medullary pryamids?

A

ventral corticospinal tract (ipsilateral side)

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28
Q

What do the UMN of the corticobulbar tract innervate?

A

head neck and face

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29
Q

Where do the UMN of the corticobulbar tract terminate?

A

reticular formation near cranial nerve nuclei

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30
Q

What is the evolutionary primitive portion of the brain?

A

red nucleus

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31
Q

Fibers from primary motor cortex (corticorubral path) and branches from corticospinal tract synapse in magnocellular portion of what structure

A

red nucleus

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32
Q

Large neurons from magnocellular region of the red nucleus give rise to what tract which decussates in lower brain stem?

A

rubrospinal tract.

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33
Q

What region has a somatotopic representation of all the muscles in the body?

A

magnocellular region

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34
Q

What are the results of the stimulation of the red nucleus?

A

stimulation of flexors and inhibition of extensors (antigravity muscles).

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35
Q

What is the main goal of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

maintaining balance and upright posture.

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36
Q

The vestibulospinal tract receives major input from what CN?

A

CN VIII (vestibulocochlear)

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37
Q

What are the components of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

Utricle, saccule, and semicircular canals.

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38
Q

What is the function of the utricle?

A

plays a role in determining orientation of the head when head is upright.

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39
Q

What is the function of the saccule?

A

signals head orientation when person is laying down

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40
Q

What structure contains large number of embedded small calcium carbonate crystals (statoconia)

A

macula. can only detect change in position when whole structure moves. The weight of the statoconia bends cilia in the direction of gravitational pull.

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41
Q

What is the function of the vermis?

A

location for control functions for muscle movements of the axial body, neck, shoulders, and hips

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42
Q

What is the function of the intermediate zone?

A

concerned with controlling muscle contractions in the distal portions of the upper and lower limbs, esp hands feet, fingers and toes

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43
Q

What is the function of the lateral zone

A

Associated with cerebral cortex with planning of sequential motor movements.

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44
Q

What are the four intracerebellar nuclei?

A

dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial

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45
Q

Lesions in the dentate, emboliform, globose cause what?

A

extremity ataxia

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46
Q

Lesions in the fastigial cause what?

A

trunk ataxia

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47
Q

What are the layers in the cerebellar cortex (inner to outer)?

A

granular, purkinje, and molecular (outermost).

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48
Q

What type of cells are in the purkinje cell layer of the cerebellum?

A

purkinje cells.

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49
Q

What is the function fo basket cells and stellate cells?

A

they provide lateral inhibition on adjacent purkinje cells to provide dampening. most are interneurons.

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50
Q

What provides the only output from the cortex that is also always inhibitory?

A

purkinje cells

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51
Q

What is the function of the climbing fibers?

A

to condition the purkinje cells, basically clean them off and get them ready for new information.

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52
Q

vestibulocerebellum consists of what and has what function? what goes wrong when there is a loss of the lobes?

A
  • consists of the flocculonodular lobes and vermis.
  • functions to control balance and eye movements
  • when the flocculonodular lobes are lost, there are extreme disturbances of equilibrium and postural movements.
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53
Q

What is the relationship of the vestibulocerebellum to pendular movements?

A

appropriate learned subconscious signals from intact cerebellum can stop movement precisely at intended point (=dampening system).

54
Q

What are the characteristics of vestibulocerebellar syndrome?

A

starts with abnormal eye movements (nystagmus), vertigo, ataxia, and eventually fine motor skills are lost

55
Q

what is nystagmus?

A

reduced vision and depth perception. effects balance and coordination

56
Q

What makes up the spinocerebellum?

A

vermis and intermediate zone

57
Q

Spinocerebellum compares two sources of information and sends corrections to where?

A

motor cortex via thalamus

helps to fine tune and learn complex patterns.

58
Q

What is the function fo the cerebrocerebellum?

A

involved in the coordination of skilled movement and speech.

59
Q

What part of the cerebellum plans as much as tenths of a second in advance of actual movements, referred to as motor imagery?

A

cerebrocerebellum

60
Q

What is the main link between the cortex and cerebellum?

A

corticopontocerebellar

61
Q

Lesions in the corticopontocerebellar result in what?

A

muscle weakness

62
Q

Where does the vestibulocerebellar terminate?

A

in the flocculonodular lobes

63
Q

What send proprioceptive information to the cerebellum?

A

spinocerebellar

64
Q

Axons from what afferent tract forms climbing fibers?

A

olivocerebellar axons.

65
Q

What efferent tract from the cerebellum goes fromt he fastigial nuclei to the reticular formation, and is involved in balance and equilibrium?

A

cerebelloreticular

66
Q

What is adiadochokinesia?

A

the inability to perform rapid alternating movements

67
Q

What are the functions of the basal nuclei?

A
  • plan and execute motor commands in concert with cerebral cortex; help cortex execute subconscious but learned pattern (execute smooth movements).
  • help plan multiple parallel sequential patterns
  • control complex patterns of motor activity
68
Q

What makes up the basal nuclei?

A

striatum, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, and subthamalic nucleus.

69
Q

Which pathway is direct? is it excitatory or inhibitory? What is significant about this pathway?

A

Putamen circuit is the direct pathways. it is overall excitatory, tends to increase motor activity. It bypasses the caudate nucleus and is an example of disinhibition because the two inhibitory GABAs cancel each other out

70
Q

Lesions in the globus pallidus result in what?

A

inability to maintain postural support

71
Q

Lesions in the subthamalic nuclei result in what?

A

release of inhibition on the contralateral side, sudden flailing movements of an entire limb

72
Q

Lesions in the striatum result in what?

A

chorea (dance), occurs in huntington’s patients

73
Q

Lesions in the substantia nigra result in what?

A

destruction of dopaminergic neurons, occurs in parkinson’s.
since dopamine inhibits the indirect (inhibitory) pathways, and excites the direct (excitatory), destruction of DA neurons results in overall inhibitory effect.

74
Q

Which pathway is indirect? is it excitatory or inhibitory? What is significant about this pathway?

A

Caudate circuit. it is overally inhibitory, tends to decrease motor activity. It is an example of disinhibition because the two inhibitory GABAs cancel each other out

75
Q

substantia nigra to caudate nucleus and putamen

A

dopamine, inhibitory

76
Q

caudate nucleus and putamen to globus pallidus and substantia nigra

A

GABA, inhibitory

77
Q

Cortex to caudate nucleus and putamen

A

ACh, excitatory

78
Q

multiple pathways from brainstem

A

norepinephrine, serotonin (inhibitory), enkephalin

79
Q

multiple glutamate pathways

A

provide most of the excitatory signals.

80
Q

What are the principal areas of the brain that affect body temperature

A

anterior pre-optic area which contains the anterior hypothalamic nuclei and medial pre-optic area

81
Q

What is the function of warm sensitive neurons?

A

activate neurons in the paraventricular nucleus and lateral hypothalamus resulting in a heightened parasympathetic outflow that promotes dissipation of heat

82
Q

What is the function of cold sensitive neurons?

A

activate neurons in posterior hypothalamus that increase sympathetic outflow and promote generation of and conservation of heat

83
Q

Temperature set point is essentially a function fo the activity of what neurons of the pre-optic anterior hypothalamus?

A

warm sensitive neurons

84
Q

What are the mechanisms that reduce body heat?

A
  1. pre-optic hypothalamus by mechanism of dilation of skin blood vessels over the entire body
  2. vasodilation of skin blood vessels
  3. sweating
  4. decrease heat production
85
Q

What are the mechanisms to increase body heat?

A
  1. skin vasoconstriction
  2. piloerection
  3. increase in thermogenesis (shivering, metabolic pathways, thyroxine secretion (which takes several days to weeks to take effect)).
86
Q

What is the most potent mechanism for increasing heat production?

A

shivering

87
Q

Define fever.

A

body temperature above the usual range of normal

88
Q

Most bacteria proliferate poorly at temperatures above what?

A

39 degrees C

89
Q

What is the function of IL1 and prostaglandins?

A

increase set point temperature

90
Q

What type of transport is sodium glucose transport?

A

secondary active

91
Q

What activates phosphorylase?

A

epinephrine and glucagon

92
Q

What are the inputs and outputs of the citric acid cycle

A

Inputs

  • 2 Acetyl-CoA
  • 6 H2O
  • 2 ADP

Outputs

  • 4 CO2
  • 16 H+ (to ETC)
  • 2 CoA
  • 2 ATP
93
Q

What is the location of oxidative phosphorylation?

A

occurs in the mitochondrial cristae

94
Q

What are the major components of the ETC?

A

flavoprotein, several iron sulfide proteins, ubiquinone (Q), and cytochrome A3.

95
Q

We only use what percentage of glucose?

A

66%

96
Q

What goes into PPP and what comes out?

A

IN

  • 6 glucose
  • 12 NADP+
  • 6 H2O

OUT

  • 5 glucose
  • 6 CO2
  • 12H+
  • 12 NADPH
97
Q

For every 6 glucose added to PPP, how many come out?

A

5

98
Q

What are the conditions that increase utilization of fat for energy?

A

starvation, diabetes mellitus, and a high fat diet

99
Q

where are chylomicrons synthesized?

A

intestinal cells

100
Q

LDL bad because

A

its a low density lipoprotein, has a high concentration of cholesterol and moderate concentration of phospholipids.

101
Q

HDL is good because

A

high concentration of proteins and low concentration of cholesterol and FA.

102
Q

What are the principle functions oft he liver in lipid metabolism?

A

1) degrade fatty acids into small compounds that can be used for energy,
2) synthesize triglycerides, mainly from carbohydrates, but to a lesser extent from proteins as well, and
3) synthesize other lipids from fatty acids, especially cholesterol and phospholipids.

103
Q

Under what conditions do large quantities of triglycerides appear in the liver?

A

During the early stages of starvation and diabetes mellitus

104
Q

What are the characteristics of metabolic syndrome of diabetes mellitus?

A

Obesity, fasting hyperglycemia, hypertension.

105
Q

What is the ornithine cycle?

A

The formation of urea in the liver

106
Q

the rate of overall chemical reaction is determined by what two components?

A
  1. concentration of the enzyme

2. concentration of the substrate

107
Q

When the substrate is high…

A

the amount of enzyme determines the rate

108
Q

When enzyme is high…

A

reaction rate is directly proportional to concentration of substrate and enzyme

109
Q

What is the major-rate limiting factor for almost all energy metabolism in the body

A

ADP

110
Q

What is one of the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

cold

111
Q

What factors increase BMR?

A

thyroxine and testosterone

112
Q

What factor decreases BMR?

A

malnutrition

113
Q

What are propulsive movements?

A

contractile ring moves bolus forward through the GI tract

114
Q

What are mixing movements?

A

intermittent constrictive contractions that may be caused peristaltic contractions

115
Q

What are the function of cells of Cajal?

A

they are smooth muscle cell electrical pacemakers. These set the baseline for intermittent spike potentials.

116
Q

How can cells of Cajal function as they do?

A

Gap junctions

117
Q

The _____ the slow wave potential, the greater the frequency of the spike potential.

A

higher

118
Q

What are the three types of GI reflexes?

A
  • reflexes that are integrated entirely within the gut wall enteric nervous system
  • reflexes from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and then back tot he GI tract
  • reflexes from the gut tot he spinal cord or brainstem back to the GI tract.
119
Q

Where is gastrin secreted from?

A

G cells of small intestine

120
Q

What is the function of gastrin?

A

stimulates gastric acid secretion by parietal cells, and stimulates mucosal growth by stimulating synthesis of RNA and new protein.

121
Q

Where is CCK secreted from?

A

I cells of the small intestine

122
Q

What is the action of CCK?

A

controls feedback of the duodenum, inhibits appetite.

123
Q

Where is secretin secreted from?

A

S cells of the small intestine

124
Q

What is the action of secretin?

A

stimulates pepsin secretion, inhibits gastric acid secretion by parietal cells.

125
Q

Where is GIP secreted from?

A

K cells of duodenum and jejunum

126
Q

What is the stimulus for secretion of GIP?

A

only GI hormone released in response to protein, fat, and carbohydrate.

127
Q

What is the site of secretion for Motilin?

A

M cells of the duodenum

128
Q

What is the action of motilin?

A

stimulates gastric and intestinal motility, and is secreted during fasting.

129
Q

What are the cranial nerves that control the regulation of secretion of saliva?

A

VII (Facial) and IX (glossopharyngeal)

130
Q

What cells secrete pepsinogen?

A

chief cells

131
Q

Parietal cells secrete what?

A

HCl

Physiology II E2 (1 decks)

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