Test 1 (Lab #1-4) Flashcards

1
Q

what does OSHA stand for

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does OSHA require

A

Safety practices must be incorporated into the laboratory safety policy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what must the lab safety policy include

A
  • Proper use and maintenance of equipment
  • Safety equipment and supplies must be provided and employees (or students in the lab) must be aware of the location of these items and how to use them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are 5 examples of safety equipment

A
  • Fire extinguisher
  • Eye wash station
  • First aid kit
  • Fume hood
  • Biohazard disposal containers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a Class A and give an example

A
  • compressed gas

- oxygen, carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a Class B and give an example

A
  • Flammable and Combustible Material

- propane and alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is a Class C and give an example

A
  • Oxidizing Materials

- Hydrogen peroxide, bleach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a Class D1 and give an example

A

-Poisonous & Infectious Materials
CAUSING IMMEDIATE AND SERIOUS EFFECTS
- carbon monoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is a Class D2 and give an example

A

-Poisonous & Infectious Materials
CAUSING OTHER TOXIC EFFECTS
-benzene, asbestos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a Class D3 and give an example

A

-Poisonous & Infectious Materials
BIOHAZARDOUS INFECTIOUS MATERIAL
- hepatitis B, AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a Class E and give an example

A
  • corrosive materials

- sulphuric acid, cleaners and disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a Class F and give an example

A
  • Dangerously Reactive Materials

- ethylene oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is ethylene oxide

A

equipment sterilizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what information can be found on an MSDS

A
  • Product Information
  • Hazardous Ingredients
  • Physical Data
  • Fire or Explosion Hazard Data
  • Reactivity Data:
  • Toxicological Properties
  • Preventive Measures
  • First Aid Measures
  • Preparation Information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the product information on an MSDS

A

product identifier (name), manufacturer and suppliers names, addresses, and emergency phone numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the reactivity data on an MSDS

A

information on the chemical instability of a product and the substances it may react

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the toxicological properties on an MSDS

A

health effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the preparation information on an MSDS

A

who is responsible for preparation and date of preparation of MSDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are some examples of sharps

A
  • Needles
  • Syringes
  • Microscope slides
  • Broken glass
  • Scalpel blades
20
Q

what are some examples of Biological Material

A
  • Urine
  • Feces
  • Blood
  • Bodily fluids
21
Q

what is zoonosis

A

Zoonosis are diseases that can be transmitted from one species to another, including humans

22
Q

give examples of zoonosis

A
  • Influenza (human to human)

- Leptospirosis (dog to human)

23
Q

what are inanimate objects that carry pathogens called

A

fomites

24
Q

examples of PPE

A
  • Gloves
  • Masks
  • Goggles
25
Q

how current do MSDS need to be

A

3 years

26
Q

why do we Centrifuge blood

A

to separate serum or plasma (lighter components) from packed cells (heavy components)

27
Q

why do we Centrifuge urine

A

to separate sediment (heavy components) from supernatant (liquid part)

28
Q

why do we Centrifuge Microcapillary /PCV / Microhematocrit Tubes

A

To determine the ratio of packed cells in patient’s blood

29
Q

what must be done before you spin any sample

A

must be counter balanced

30
Q

name 2 important things to remember when spinning Microhematocrit tubes

A
  • Open end of tube goes towards the centre

- Place lid over tubes

31
Q

5 parts of the refractometer

A
  • eyepiece
  • cover plate
  • prism cover glass
  • rubber hand grip
  • calibration knob
32
Q

what is distilled waters USG

A

1.000

33
Q

if you dilute a sample what do you do with the last 2 digits

A

multiply by 2

34
Q

8 parts of the microscope

A

-eyepieces
-nosepiece
-condensor
-light source
-objective lenses
-stage
fine adjustment knob
-coarse adjustment knob

35
Q

urine collection methods

A
  • Free Catch
  • Cystocentesis
  • Catheterization
  • Manual Expression
36
Q

when should a urinalysis ideal be performed

A

30 min

37
Q

how long can a urine sample be refrigerated

A

2-4 hours

38
Q

what must you drafter taking the sample out of the refrigerator before performing urinalysis

A

let it warm up to room temperature

39
Q

when should you not do a cysto

A

Never done on a an obstructed pet – can rupture

40
Q

4 steps in the urinalysis

A
  1. Gross Exam
  2. Urine Specific Gravity
  3. Biochemical Analysis (Dip stick)
  4. Sediment Examination
41
Q

normal urine volume

A

10-20mls per pound in a 24 hour period

42
Q

what are possible causes for strong odour

A

male cats, goats, pigs

43
Q

what are possible causes for foul odour

A

due to bacterial growth

44
Q

what are possible causes for sweet odour

A

ketones (diabetes mellitus

45
Q

which 2 dip stick values do we not use in vet med

A

Nitrite, urobilinogen

46
Q

which 2 dip stick values do we not get from the dip stick

A

leukocytes, specific gravity

47
Q

how much urine do we use for a urinalysis

A

5-10mL