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CNA Course > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Why reduce the spread of germs?

A
  • germs are present everywhere
  • some cause illness
  • protect resident and self
  • germs that cause little discomfort to us may kill our residents!
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2
Q

Infection prevention

A

the set of methods practiced in healthcare facilities to prevent and control the spread of disease

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3
Q

Microorganism

A

a living thing that is so small that is only visible under a microscope

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4
Q

Microbe

A

another name for a microorganism

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5
Q

Infection

A

occur when pathogens invade the body and multiply

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6
Q

pathgen

A

harmful microorganisms

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7
Q

localized infection

A

infection that is limited to a specific location in the body

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8
Q

Systemic infection

A

affects the entire body

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9
Q

Healthcare-associated infection

A

in infection acquired in a healthcare setting during the delivery of medical care.
- can be local or systemic

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10
Q

chain of infection

A

a way of describing how disease of transmitted from one human being to another

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11
Q

List the order of the chain of infection

A
  1. Causative Agent
  2. Reservoir
  3. Portal of Exit
  4. Mode of Transmission
  5. Portal of Entry
  6. Susceptible Host
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12
Q

Causative agent

A

a pathogenic microorganism that causes disease

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13
Q

Reservoir

A

Where the pathogen lives and multiplies

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14
Q

Portal of Exit

A

any body opening on an infected person that allows pathogens to leave
- nose, mouth, eyes, cut

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15
Q

Mode of transmission

A

describes how the pathogen travels

- can travel through air or direct/indirect contact

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16
Q

Direct contact

A

touching the infected person or his secretions

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17
Q

Indirect Contact

A

results from touching an object contaminated by the infected person

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18
Q

What is the primary route of disease transmission within the healthcare setting

A

hands of healthcare workers

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19
Q

portal of entry

A

any body opening on an uninfected person that allows pathogens to enter

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20
Q

mucous membranes

A

the membranes that line body cavities that open to the outside of the body

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21
Q

Susceptible host

A

uninfected person who can become ill

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22
Q

Transmission

A

passage or transfer

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23
Q

How can transmission of most infectious diseases be blocked?

A

proper prevention practices, such as hand washing

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24
Q

Medical Apesis

A

measures used to reduce and prevent the spread of pathogens; used in all healthcare settings

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25
Q

Surgical Apesis

A

aka sterile technique; makes and object or area completely free of all microorganisms (including pathogens)

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26
Q

Malnutrition

A

not getting proper nutrition

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27
Q

Dehydration

A

when there is an inadequate amount of fluid in body

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28
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

Federal government agency that makes rules to protect workers from hazards on the job

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29
Q

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

A

federal government agency that issues guidelines to protect and improve the health of individuals and communities

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30
Q

Standard precautions

A

treating blood, body fluids, non-intact skin (abrasions, pimples, open sores), and mucous membranes as if they were infected

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31
Q

Hand hygiene

A

Washing hands with either plain or antiseptic soap and water or using alcohol-based hand rubs

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32
Q

antimicrobial

A

destroys, resists or prevents the development of pathogens

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33
Q

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

A

Equipment that helps protect employees from serious workplace injuries or illnesses resulting from contact with workplace hazards

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34
Q

PPE equipment

A

gowns, masks, goggles, face shields, and gloves

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35
Q

Don

A

To wear

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36
Q

Doff

A

to remove

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37
Q

Perineal care

A

care of the genitals / anal area

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38
Q

non-intact skin

A

skin that is broken by abrasions, cuts, rashes, pimples, lesions, surgical, incisions, or boils

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39
Q

In healthcare, an object is clean if…

A

it has not been contaminated with pathogens

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40
Q

In healthcare, an object is dirty if…

A

it has been contaminated with pathogens

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41
Q

Disinfection

A

a process that kills pathogens but does not destroy all pathogens

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42
Q

Sterilization

A

a cleaning measure that destroys all microorganisms, including pathogens

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43
Q

Disposable

A

discarded after use

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44
Q

Transmission-Based Precautions

A

A method of infection prevention used when caring for persons who are infected or may be infected with certain infectious diseases

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45
Q

Multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs)

A

Microorganisms, mostly bacteria, that are resistant to one or more antimicrobial agents that are commonly used for treatment

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46
Q

isolate

A

to keep something separate, or by itself

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47
Q

Bloodborne pathogens

A

microorganisms found in human blood that can cause infection and disease in humans

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48
Q

HIV

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus; the virus that attacks the bodies immune system and gradually disables it; eventually can cause AIDs

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49
Q

Hepatitis

A

inflammation in the liver caused by certain viruses and other factors such as alcohol abuse, some medications, and trauma

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50
Q

Jaundice

A

a condition in which the skin, whites of the eyes, and mucous membranes appear yellow

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51
Q

Bloodborne Pathogens Standard

A

Federal law that requires that healthcare facilities protect employees from blood-borne health hazards

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52
Q

Exposure control plan

A

A plan designed to eliminate or reduce employee exposure to infectious material

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53
Q

Tuberculosis or TB

A

Highly contagious disease caused by bacterium, mycobacterium tuberculosis, that is carried on mucous droplets suspended in the air

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54
Q

Latent TB Infection (LTBI)

A

carries the disease but does not show symptoms and cannot infect others

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55
Q

TB Disease

A

someone who shows symptoms of the disease and can spread TB to others

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56
Q

What are the 2 types of tuberculosis

A

Latent TB Disease Infection (LTBI) and TB Disease

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57
Q

Resistent

A

when drugs no longer work to kill a specific bacteria

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58
Q

Phlegm

A

thick mucous from respiratory passage

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59
Q

MRSA (methilcillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)

A

a bacteria (Staphylococcus aureus) that have developed resistance to the antibiotic methicillin

60
Q

VRE (vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus)

A

bacteria (enterococci) that have developed resistance to the antibiotic vancomycin

61
Q

Clostridium difficile (C. diff or C. difficile)

A

a bacterium that is spread by spores in feces that are difficult to kill; it causes symptoms such as diarrhea and nausea and can lead to serious inflammation of the colon (colitis)

62
Q

Paralysis

A

the loss of function to move all or part of the body

63
Q

Fall

A

any sudden, uncontrollable decent from a higher to a lower level, with or without injury resulting

64
Q

Fracture

A

a broken bone

65
Q

disorientation

A

confusion about a person, place, or time

66
Q

Scalds

A

burns caused by hot liquids

67
Q

how long does it take for a serious hot liquid burn to occur

A

5 seconds or less for a serious burn to occur when the temperature of a liquid is 140 degrees

68
Q

abrasion

A

injury that rubs off the surface of the skin

69
Q

oxygen therapy

A

administration of oxygen to increase the supply of oxygen to the lungs

70
Q

combustion

A

the process of burning

71
Q

flammable

A

easily ignited and capable of burning quickly

72
Q

Safety data sheet (SDS)

A

(formerly called Material Safety Data Sheet) This sheet details the chemical ingredients, chemical dangers, and safe handling, storage, and disposal procedures for the products

73
Q

Restraint

A

a physical or chemical way to restrict voluntary movement or behavior

74
Q

Suffocation

A

stoppage of breathing from a lack of oxygen or excess excess of CO2 in the body that may result in unconsciousness or death)

75
Q

Restraint-free care

A

means that restraints are not kept or used for any reason

76
Q

Restraint alternatives

A

measures used in place of a restraint or that reduce the need for a restraint

77
Q

Body mechanics

A

the way the parts of the body work together when a person moves

78
Q

posture

A

the way a person holds and positions their body

79
Q

lever

A

moves an object by resting on a base of support

80
Q

What is a base of support called

A

fulcrum

81
Q

how to use a fire extinguisher

A
  • Pull the pin
  • Aim at the base of the fire when spraying
  • Squeeze the handle
  • Sweep back and forth at the base of the fire
82
Q

What to do in case of a fire

A
  • Remove anyone in danger if you are not in danger
  • Activate alarm or call 911
  • Contain the fire if possible by closing all door and windows
  • Extinguish the fire, or the fire dept. will do so. Evacuate the area if instructed to do so
83
Q

conscious

A

being mentally alert and having awareness of surroundings

84
Q

first aide

A

given immediately to an injured person by the first people to respond to an emergency

85
Q

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)

A

medical procedures used when a persons heart or lungs have stopped working

86
Q

Obstructive airway

A

when something is blocking the tube through which air enters the lungs

87
Q

abdominal thrusts

A

method of attempting to remove an object from the airway of someone who is choking

88
Q

shock

A

occurs when organs and tissues in the body to not receive an adequate blood supply

89
Q

signs of shock

A

pale/bluish skin, staring, increased pulse and respiration rates, low BP and extreme thrist

90
Q

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

A

heart attack; occurs when the heart muscle itself does not receive enough O2 because blood vessels are blocked

91
Q

Dyspnea

A

difficulty breathing

92
Q

how many types of burns are there

A

3

93
Q

first degree burn

A

superficial; involve just the outer layer of the skin; skin becomes red, painful, and swollen but no blisters appear

94
Q

Second degree burn

A

partial thickness; extend from the outer layer of the skin to the next deeper layer of skin; skin is red, painful, swollen and blisters appear

95
Q

Third degree burn

A

full-thickness; includes all 3 layers of the skin and may extend to the bone; skin is shiny and appears hard and may be white in color

96
Q

syncope

A

fainting; occurs because of decreased blood flow to the brain; causing a loss of consciousness

97
Q

Epistaxis

A

medical term for nosebleed

98
Q

what should you do for a nosebleed

A

elevate head of bed, or tell person to remain in sitting position leaning slightly forward; apply firm pressure on both sides of the nose

99
Q

insulin reaction

A

a complication of diabetes that can result from either too much insulin or too little food; also known as hypoglycemia

100
Q

diabetic acidosis (DKA)

A

caused by having too little insulin in the body

101
Q

seizures

A

involuntary, often violent contractions of muscles

102
Q

epilepsy

A

brain disorder that results from a disruption of normal electrical impulses in the brain, which can cause repeated seizures

103
Q

transient ischemic attach (TIA)

A

result of a temporary lack of O2 in the brain; warning sign of CVA

104
Q

What can be used to remember the sudden signs that a stroke is occurring

A

F.A.S.T
Face: is one side of the face drooping/numb/uneven smile?

Arms: is one arm numb/weak? ask person to raise both arms, check to see if one arm drift downwards

Speech: is speech slurred/is person unable to speak?

Time: time is utmost importance when responding to a stroke; if person shows any symptoms, report to nurse STAT

105
Q

Emesis

A

vomiting; the act of ejecting stomach contents through the mouth and/or nose

106
Q

positioning

A

helping residents into positions that promote comfort and health

107
Q

Supine position

A

Lying flat on back

- pillows under arms, calves/feet and head

108
Q

Lateral position

A

Lying on either side

  • pillows under upper arm and leg, back, bottom ankle and head (between legs)
  • upper knee is flexed & brought up in front of body
109
Q

Prone position

A

Lying on stomach

  • arms at sides or above head (or one of each)
  • head turned to one side
  • pilled under head and legs
110
Q

Fowler’s position

A

Partially reclined / semi-sitting

  • head and shoulders are elevated
  • knees may be flexed and elevated using pillow / rolled blanket
  • straight spine
  • pillows under head, knees/calves
111
Q

High-fowlers

A

upper body is sitting nearly straight up (60-90 degrees)

112
Q

Semi-fowlers

A

upper body is not raised as high (30-45 degrees)

113
Q

Sims position

A

Lying on left side with one leg down

  • lower arm is behind back
  • upper knee is flexed and raised toward chest
  • pillow supports upper knee, upper arm, lower foot, head
114
Q

Draw sheet

A

extra sheet placed on top of the bottom sheet when the bed is made

115
Q

shearing

A

rubbing or friction that results from the skin moving one way and the bone underneath it remaining fixed or moving in opposite direction

116
Q

logrolling

A

moving a resident as a unit, without disturbing the alignment of body
- head, back and legs are kept in straight line

117
Q

dangle

A

to sit up on side of the bed with the legs hanging over the side

118
Q

Ergonomics

A

science of designing equipment, areas, and work tasks to make them safer and to suit the workers abilities

119
Q

Transfer belt

A

safety device used to transfer residents who are weak, unsteady, or uncoordinated - its called a gate belt when it is used to help residents walk

120
Q

Slide board

A

aka transfer board, may be used to transfer residents who are unable to bear weight on their legs

121
Q

Ambulation

A

walking

122
Q

Ambulatory

A

one who can get out of bed and walk

123
Q

C cane

A

straight cane with curved handle at the top

124
Q

Functional grip cane

A

Similar to C cane, except that it has a straight grip handle rather than a curved handle

125
Q

Quad cane

A

4 rubber-tipped feet and a rectangular base

- designed to bear more weight than the other canes

126
Q

walker

A

type of walking aide used when the resident can bear some weight on both legs

127
Q

Closed bed

A

bed completely made with the bedspread and the blankets in place

128
Q

open bed

A

when the linen is folded down to the foot of the bed

129
Q

surgical bed

A

made to accept residents who are returning to bed on stretchers, or gurneys

130
Q

Rehabilitation

A

care that is managed by professionals to help restore a person to their highest possible level of functioning

131
Q

What are the 4 goals of rehabilitation

A
  1. help a resident regain function or recover from illness
  2. to develop and promote a residents independence
  3. to allow a resident to feel in control of his life
  4. to help a resident accept or adapt to the limitations of a disability
132
Q

restorative care

A

this is what is ordered when the goals of rehabilitation have been met. The goal is to keep the resident at the level achieved by rehabilitative services

133
Q

Range of motion (ROM)

A

exercises put a particular joint through its full arc of motion
- goal is to decrease or prevent contractures or atrophy, improve strength, increase circulation

134
Q

Active range of motion (AROM)

A

performed by a resident himself, without help

- NA should encourage

135
Q

Active assisted range of motion (AAROM)

A

exercises are done by the resident with some assistance and support from the NA or other caregiver

136
Q

Passive range of motion (PROM)

A

exercises are used when residents are not able to move on their own
- performed by caregiver, without residents help

137
Q

Abduction

A

moving a body part away from the midline of the body

138
Q

adduction

A

moving a body part toward the midline of the body

139
Q

extension

A

straightening the body part

140
Q

flexion

A

bending the body part

141
Q

dorsiflexion

A

bending backward

142
Q

rotation

A

turning the joint

143
Q

pronation

A

turning downward

144
Q

supination

A

turning upward

145
Q

opposition

A

touching the thumb to any other finger

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