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Perinatal test > Test 3 COPY > Flashcards

Test 3 COPY Flashcards

1
Q

What are 4 sources of labor pain

A
  • Tissue Ischemia
  • Cervical Dilation
  • Pressure and pulling on pelvic structures
  • Distention of Vagina and Perineum
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2
Q

Factors influencing perception or tolerance of pain?

A
  • labor intensity
  • Cervical readiness
  • Fetal Position
  • Pelvic readiness
  • Fatigue & hunger
  • Caregiver interventions
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3
Q

Advantages to non-pharmacologic pain management

A
  • Non systemic
  • Doesn’t effect fetus
  • Doesn’t effect labor
  • ## Non allergy contraindications
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4
Q

Psychosocial factors that influence labor pain include

A
  • culture
  • anxiety and fear
  • previous experiences
  • preparation for childbirth
  • mother’s support system.
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5
Q

Excessive pain can heighten a woman’s fear and anxiety, which stimulates an increased secretion of ___________________.

A

Catecholamines

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6
Q

Catecholamines act on what two receptors?

A
  • Alpha

- Beta

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7
Q

Stimulation of the ______ receptors relaxes the uterine muscle and cause __________

A
  • Beta

- Vasodilation

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8
Q

Stimulation of the _________ receptors causes uterine and generalized ____________.

A
  • Alpha

- Vasocontriction

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9
Q

What are the effects of excessive catecholamine secretion?

A
  • Reduced blood flow to and from the placenta,

* Reduced effectiveness of uterine contractions, slowing labor progress

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10
Q

Pain is both physiologic and psychological. The Physiological pain can be affected by increased secretion of _____________

A

Catecholamines

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11
Q

Labor _______ a woman’s metabolic rate and her demand for __________.

A
  • increases

- oxygen

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12
Q

How do pain and anxiety affect a woman’s already high metabolic rate.

A

Increase

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13
Q

How does an increase in metabolic rate affect the fetus?

A
  • significantly alter placental exchange causing less oxygen to be available for the fetus
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14
Q

The fetus shifts to _____________ when it does not have enough oxygen available for uptake

A

Anaerobic Metabolism

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15
Q

The fetus may shift to _____________ when it does not have enough oxygen available for uptake

A

Anaerobic Metabolism

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16
Q

___________ acidosis and does not resolve as quickly after birth as __________ acidosis, which results from shorter periods of ___________.

A
  • Metabolic
  • Respiratory
  • hypoxia
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17
Q

What are the psychological effects of poorly relieved pain?

A
  • affect the mothers interaction with newborn as she is so depleted/tired
  • Poor memories of
  • Affect her response to sexual activity
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18
Q

What are 3 causes of pain in labor in stage 1?

A
  • Stretching of the cervix
  • Uterine Anoxia - Tissue ischemia
  • Stretching of the uterine ligaments
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19
Q

What are 4 causes of pain in labor in stage 2 ?

A
  • Traction on the stretching of perineum
  • Distention of the vagina and perineum
  • Compression of the nerve ganglia in cervix and lower uterus
  • Pressure on urethra, bladder & rectum during fetus decent
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20
Q

What factors that influence perception and tolerance of pain

A
  • Labor intensity
  • Cervix that is not ready results in longer labor which leads to lowered level of pain tolerance
  • Fetal position such as posterior is more painful
  • Pelvic readiness - abnormal pelvis
  • Fatigue and Hunger reduce a woman’s ability to tolerate pain
  • Interventions by medical personnel
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21
Q

Goal of pain management?

A
  • Help ease the anxiety in the moment of labor
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22
Q

Sedatives are given to …

A
  • promote sedation and relaxation
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23
Q

Benefits of Sedatives

A
  • promote sedation and relaxation

- Decrease release of catecholamines

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24
Q

Adverse effects of Epidural block

A
  • Maternal hypotension
  • Bladder distention
  • Catheter migration
  • Cesarean Birth
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25
Q

If you have a mom with a history of drug addiction, she is on heroin or she is on a drug treatment program such as methadone, what drugs should be avoided?

A

Stadol

Nubain

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26
Q

Advantages of pharmacological Interventions

A
  • Increases women’s ability to cope

- Medication may be administered by the nurse

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27
Q

Disdvantages of pharmacological Interventions

A
  • Side affects - itching, vomiting, pruritus, drowsiness, and neonatal depression
  • Pain is not eliminated completely
  • The fetus can be effected by medicatiosn
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28
Q

What is local anesthesia used for ?

A
  • Anesthetizes the lower vagina and part of the perineum
  • Provides anesthesia for an episiotomy and vaginal birth
  • Mother feels pressure.
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29
Q

A spinal anesthesia is typically given for a ___________ birth

A

Cesarean

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30
Q

Pudendal Anesthesia

A

Provides pain relief for episiotomy and delivery

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31
Q

How is Pudendal Anesthesia administered?

A

transvaginally

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32
Q

How often do you monitor vital signs after an epidural is placed?

A

Every 3 Min

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33
Q

Because the medication given during an epidural/spinal causes vasodilation, a nurse must watch for

A

Hypotension

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34
Q

A mother who is going to receive an epidural should receive a bolus of _______ ml normal saline prior to the procedure to prevent hypotension

A

1000

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35
Q

Medicine used to counteract hypotension

A

Ephedrine

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36
Q

Complications associated with Epidural and Spinal Anesthesia

A
  • Hypotension
  • Maternal fever
  • Shivering
  • Pruritus
  • Inadvertent injection into the blood stream
  • Spinal headache
  • Fetal distress
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37
Q

A person with a spinal headache severe head pain in what position?

A
  • Sitting up
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38
Q

Intervention for a spinal headache includes the use of __________ & Tylenol first and then a __________.

A
  • Alot Caffeine

- blood patch

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39
Q

Life-threatening complications occurring with general anesthesia

A
  • Failed intubation
  • Aspiration
  • Malignant hyperthermia
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40
Q

What is malignant hyperthermia?

A

Condition that causes sustained muscle contractions in the presence of certain anesthetic agents?

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41
Q

________ is a general term that describes any difficult labor or birth.

A

Dystocia

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42
Q

What are problems with the powers of labor?

A
  • Ineffective Contractions (hypotonic/hypertonic)

- Ineffective maternal pushing

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43
Q

Possible causes of ineffective contractions include the following:

A
  • Early or excessive use of analgesia
  • Overdistention of the uterus _ (polyhydramnios, twins etc)
  • Excessive cervical rigidity
  • Grand multiparity
  • Mild pelvic contraction
  • Postmature and large infants - CPD
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44
Q

What are problems with the passage of labor?

A
  • Shape of pelvis

- Maternal soft tissue obstructions

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45
Q

What are problems with the passenger of labor?

A
  • fetal size
  • presentation or position
  • multifetal pregnancy
  • fetal anomalies
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46
Q

What are problems with the Psyche of labor?

A
  • Catecholamines release inhibits contractionscan
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47
Q

The 2 combined effects of excessive catecholamine secretion are as follows:

A
  • Reduced blood flow to and from the placenta, restricting fetal oxygen supply and waste removal
  • Reduced effectiveness of uterine contractions, slowing labor progress
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48
Q

what is an amniotomy?

A

artificial rupture of amniotic sac

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49
Q

what are some indications for an amniotomy?

A
  • induce labor
  • augment labor
  • allow internal fetal monitoring
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50
Q

What is a major risk for an amniotomy? What are other risks?

A

MAJOR = prolapsed cord

  • Infection
  • Abruptio placenta
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51
Q

What are three major risks for an amniotomy?

A
  • prolapsed cord
  • placental abruption
  • infections
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52
Q

What are the things you would do as a nurse for an amniotomy?

A
  • obtain baseline fetal heart rate (20-30 mins before procedure)
  • assist with the amniotomy (place absorbent pads under buttocks)
  • provide after care
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53
Q

What type of after care is provided after an amniotomy?

A
  • FHR is assessed for at least one full minute
  • quantity, color and odor of amniotic fluid are charted
  • the woman’s temp should be assess at least every 2-4 hours after the membranes rupture
  • provide comfort
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54
Q

what are the artificial methods to stimulate uterine contractions?

A

induction and augmentation

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55
Q

___ is performed when a continued pregnancy may jeopardize the health of the woman or fetus and labor and vaginal birth are considered safe.

A

induction of labor

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56
Q

What are some contraindications for induction of labor?

A
  • placenta previa
  • vasa previa
  • umbilical cord prolapse
  • abnormal fetal presentation
  • fetal presenting part above the pelvic inlet
  • previous surgery in the upper uterus
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57
Q

what are some indications for induction of labor?

A
  • hostile intrauterine environment
  • post-term pregnancy
  • SROM
  • chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac)
  • HTN
  • abruptio placentae
  • maternal medical conditions that worsen with continuation of the pregnancy
  • fetal death
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58
Q

What are the risks to induction and augmentation of labor?

A
  • hypertonic uterine activity
  • uterine rupture
  • maternal water intoxication
  • greater risk for chorioamnionitis
  • greater risk for cesarean birth
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59
Q

labor is ____ induced if term gestation, fetal lung maturity, or both are not established unless a compelling reason exists

A

not

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60
Q

What are techniques to induction and augmentation of labor?

A
  • cervical ripening
  • oxytocin administration
  • serial induction of labor
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61
Q

What are some medical methods to cervical ripening?

A
  • prostaglandin
  • cervidal
  • cytotec
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62
Q

What are some mechanical methods to cervical ripening?

A

-foley balloon

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63
Q

Oxytocin Administration:

A
  • dilute in isotonic solution
  • secondary (piggyback) infusion
  • insert oxytocin into the primary IV line
  • start slowly, increase gradually
  • monitor uterine activity, FHR, and fetal heart patterns frequently
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64
Q

Nursing considerations for induction and augmentation of labor:

A
  • observe the woman and fetus for complication and takes corrective actions if abnormalities are noted
  • observe fetal response
  • observe the mothers response
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65
Q

What are the two types of versions?

A
  • external

- internal

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66
Q

The goal of __ is to change the fetal position from a breech, shoulder (traverse lie), or oblique presentation

A

external cephalic version

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67
Q

___ change the position of a second twin a vaginal birth

A

internal version

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68
Q

Contraindications for performing a Version

A
  • Uterine malformations
  • Previous cesarean
  • Fetal size ≥4000 g
  • Cephalopelvic disproportion
  • Multifetal gestation
  • Oligohydramnios
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69
Q

What is a precipitate labor and what is a precipitate birth?

A

Precipitate labor - birth occurs within 3 hrs of its onset

Precipitate birth - Occurs after a labor of any length, when a trained attendant is not present to assist

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70
Q

Induction and Augmentation of Labor: Indications

A
  • Hostile intrauterine environment
  • Spontaneous rupture of the membranes (SROM)
  • Post-term pregnancy
  • Chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac)
  • Hypertension
  • Abruptio placentae
  • Maternal medical conditions that worsen with continuation of the pregnancy
  • Fetal death
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71
Q

When the water bag breaks before

___ weeks of pregnancy and labor has not started, it is considered a Preterm Premature Rupture of Membranes (PPROM)

A

37

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72
Q

What is a Premature Rupture of Membranes?

A

When a woman’s water breaks before the start of labor

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73
Q

How long after a woman’s water breaks do providers give them to got into labor without interventions?

A

12hrs

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74
Q

Risk factors associated with PPROM?

A
  • Infection
  • Previous
  • Polyhydramnios
  • Incompetent cervix
  • Multiple gestation
  • Abruptio placentae
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75
Q

The _______ test is more diagnostic of true rupture of membranes because it is less likely to be affected by vaginal infections, recent intercourse, or other factors.

A

fern

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76
Q

How can a provider determine true membrane rupture?

A
  • Perform a sterile speculum exam to look for a pool of fluid near the cervix
  • Ph swab (amniotic fluid is alkali/ urine is acidic)
  • Fern test
  • Amnisure test (99% accurate)
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77
Q

What 2 kind of drugs are given to dcrease the severity of respiratory distress syndrom in the premature neonate?

A
  • Tocolytics

- Corticosteroids

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78
Q

Management of PROM at 37 weeks gestation or greater focuses on ________

A

Delivery

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79
Q

How often do you change the pads of a woman who had a PROM ?

A

Every 2 hours (more frequently if needed)

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80
Q

A complication of PROM is Chorioamnionitis which is characterized by Chorioamnionitis, characterized by ___________ & ___________

A
  • maternal fever

- uterine tenderness.

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81
Q

3 Types of prolapsed umbilical cord?

A
  • COMPLETE cord can be seen protruding from the vagina
  • An OCCULT (Hidden) prolapse of the cord is one in which the cord slips alongside the fetal head or shoulders.
  • FORELYING - The cord cannot be seen but can probably be felt as a pulsating mass during vaginal examination.
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82
Q

Predisposing factors for a Prolapsed of cord

A
  • ROM
  • Shoulder and foot presentations
  • Prematurity
  • Polyhydraminos
  • CPD (large head)
  • Breach presentation
  • Placenta previa
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83
Q

Priority nursing interventions of a Prolapsed cord?

A
  1. Position -
    a. Knee-chest position - on her knees and lying on her chest, elevate buttocks
    b. Trendelenburg position -
    c. Hips elevated with pillows, with side-lying position maintained
  2. Push the presenting fetal part off the cord
  3. Minimize manual palpation or handling of the cord as much as possible to minimize cord vessel vasospasm.
    - Cover wet gauze on the prolapsed cord
  4. Ultrasound examination may be used to confirm presence of fetal heart activity before cesarean delivery.
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84
Q

Why can terbutaline be used during a cord prolapse?

A

to stop or slow the contractions and stop pushing the head down on the cord

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85
Q

Maternal Complications of a prolapsed cord

A
  1. infection
  2. Risk for increased blood loss from emergency delivery
  3. Fear and anxiety
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86
Q

Fetal Complications of a prolapsed cord

A
  1. Prematurity
  2. Complications resulting from hypoxia
  3. Fetal death
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87
Q

What is the appropriate oxygen administration for a women with a prolapsed cord?

A

Face mask at 8 to 10L/min

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88
Q

Definition of Preterm labor includes what 4 manifestations?

A
  1. 20 to 37 weeks of pregnancy
  2. Uterine contractions
  3. 8-% thinning of the cervix
  4. Cervical dilation > 1cm
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89
Q

Risks factors for preterm birth

A

More than one fetus

  • Hx of preterm birth
  • Abnormal uterus or incompetent cervix
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90
Q

Management of preterm labor?

A

Detect early and adminster medications to stop contractions

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91
Q

If preterm birth is suspected, the mother is given _________ to help the baby breath after birth at least ______ before birth.

A
  • Steroids (betamethasone)

- 48 hrs

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92
Q

Steroids (betamethasone) is give to premature fetus less than _____ weeks gestation.

A

37

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93
Q

Treatment approaches for preterm labor include?

A
  • bedrest
  • hydration
  • Medications
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94
Q

Medications used for preterm labor include?

A
  • terbutaline
  • toradol
  • mag sulfate
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95
Q

How can mag given to a mother in preterm labor help the fetus after birth?

A

improve neurological outcomes of premature fetus

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96
Q

Risks to the fetus in a prolonged pregnancy?

A
  1. Placental insufficiency
  2. Reduced amniotic fluid
  3. Meconium aspiration
  4. Post date growth retardation
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97
Q

How are post term babies affected by poor placental perfusion?

A
  • hyperbilirubinemia
  • Meconium (baby is stressed - craps its fluid)
  • Decrease in nutrition - decreased fat stores
  • decreased amniotic fluid
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98
Q

Why are post term babies at risk for hyperbilirubinemia ?

A

When baby becomes hypoxic, it makes more RBC to hold on to more oxygen. When these extra rbc are broken down, bilirubin is a byproduct which can accumulate

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99
Q

What are some contraindications for Version?

A
  • uterine malformation
  • previous cesarean
  • fetal size >4000g
  • cephalopelvic disproportion
  • multifetal gestation
  • oligohydraminos
  • ruptured membranes
  • cord around the fetal body
  • engagement of the fetal head
  • placenta previa
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100
Q

What are some risks to version?

A
  • few risks are present and few serious risk to fetus
  • fetus may become entangled in the umbilical cord
  • abruptio placentae may occur
  • mixing of fetal and maternal blood
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101
Q

What is the technique for external version?

A
  • non stress test to evaluate fetal well-being
  • determine gestational age beyond 37 weeks
  • administer tocolytic drug to relax uterus
  • use ultrasound to guide manipulations
  • Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) given if indicated
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102
Q

What do you do as a nurse to prepare a patient for version?

A
  • provide information
  • promote maternal and fetal health (vitals, women should be NPO at least 4 hours before procedure)
  • reduce anxiety
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103
Q

what are some indications for an operative vaginal birth?

A
  • shortened second stage of labor
  • maternal indications (exhaustion, inability to push effectively, and cardiac and pulmonary disease)
  • fetal indications (nonreassuring FHR)
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104
Q

Risks to operative vaginal birth:

A
  • trauma to maternal and fetal tissues
  • hematoma of the vagina
  • fetus may have bruising, facial nerve injury, clavicular fractures, cephlahematoma
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105
Q

Technique to operative vaginal birth:

A
  • preparation of woman (empty bladder, cervix completely dilated and membranes ruptured, adequate anesthesia)
  • classification of techniques (outlet: fetal head on perineum, Low: leading edge of fetal skull at station +2, mid: leading edge of fetal skull between 0 and +2)
  • forceps: locking blades applied to fetal head
  • vacuum extraction: cup attached to fetal head and traction applied
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106
Q

what does the nurse during and after an operative vaginal birth?

A
  • observe mother for trauma (bright red bleeding with firm fundus)
  • observe neonate for trauma after birth (facial asymmetry)
107
Q

Commonly infants that are stressed in utero have a _________ lung maturation

A

increased

108
Q

Initiation of respirations includes what four factors?

LECTURE

A
  • Chemical Factors
  • Mechanical Factors
  • Thermal Factors
  • Sensory Factors
109
Q

What role do Chemoreceptors play in the First breath?

A

The chemoreceptors in the carotid arteries and the aorta respond to changes in blood chemistry, partial pressure of oxygen and pH and partial pressure of carbon dioxide all help to stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla

110
Q

The fetus begins to produce surfactant at ___-___ weeks in small amounts and by ___-___ weeks of gestation sufficient Surfactant is produced to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.

A
  • 24-25

- 34 - 36

111
Q

If the mother has diabetes, how will the infants lungs be affected?

A
  • slower lung maturation
112
Q

When a women is at risk for a preterm birth, when and what medication is given to help the lungs begin to increase surfactant production and speed maturation

A
  • betamethasone is given prior to 34 weeks
113
Q

Four causes of initial respiration of a new born?

A

Chemical Factors
Mechanical Factors
Thermal Factors
Sensory Factors

114
Q

What are the 3 shunts in the fetal cardiovascular system and what do they do?

A
  • Ductus Venosus- Directs blood away from liver to inferior vena cava
  • Foramen Ovale - a flap valve in the septum between the right and left atria of the fetal heart. As blood flows into the right atrium, 50% to 60% crosses the foramen ovale to the left atrium
  • Ductus Arteriosus - Connects the pulmonary artery and the descending aorta
115
Q

How does chest compression in the narrow birth canal support the first breath?

A
  • Helps force fluid out of the lungs into the upper air passages during birth.
  • When the pressure against the chest is released at birth, recoil of the chest draws a small amount of air into the lungs and helps remove some of the viscous fluid in the airways.
  • This reduces the amount of negative pressure needed for the first breath after birth
116
Q

How do thermal factors support the first breath?

A

Sensors in the skin respond to a sudden change in temperature by sending impulses to the medulla that stimulate the respiratory center and breathing.

117
Q

How does a new born crying affect the respiratory process?

A

As the infant cries, pressure within the lungs increases, causing remaining fetal lung fluid to move into the interstitial spaces, where it is absorbed by the pulmonary circulatory and lymphatic systems.

118
Q

What is the most frequent cause of respiratory difficulty in the first few hours of birth ?

A

-Use of sedatives, tranquilizers, analgesics and anesthetics

119
Q

What are the 3 shunts in the fetal cardiovascular system and what do they do?

A
  • Ductus Venosus- Directs blood away from liver to inferior vena cava
  • Foramen Ovale - a flap valve in the septum between the right and left atria of the fetal heart. As blood flows into the right atrium, 50% to 60% crosses the foramen ovale to the left atrium
  • Ductus Arteriosus - Connects the pulmonary artery and the descendin aorta
120
Q

Why can cyanosis be seen in the hands and feet for 1 -2 hours after birth?

A
  • Because the oxygenated blood is shunted to vital organs immediately after birth (heart, lungs, brain)
121
Q

What changes in blood flow occurs after the umbilical cord is clamped and the newborn takes its first breath?

A
  • increase blood flow to the liver and lungs

- Decrease blood flow through the shunts

122
Q

Clamping of the umbilical cord closes which shunt?

A
  • Ductus Venosus
123
Q

When does the foramen ovale’s flap valve close?

A
  • when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than that in the right atrium.
124
Q

The babies temp should be maintained at ____F or ____ - ___ C

A

98.6 F 36.4 -37.2C

125
Q

Methods of heat loss

TEST

A
  • Evaporation
  • Conduction
  • Convection -
  • Radiation
126
Q

What occurs when heat is lost through evaporation

TEST

A

Air drying of the skin that results in cooling. Water loss from skin and respiratory tract increases heat loss.

127
Q

What occurs when heat is lost through conduction

TEST

A

Placing infants on cold surfaces or toughting them with cool objects.

Placing warm objects on them or skin to skin can warm them

128
Q

What occurs when heat is lost through convection

TEST

A

Transfer of heat to cooler surrounding air. *Keep them in a draft free area

129
Q

What occurs when heat is lost through radiation

TEST

A

Heat is lost to surrounding coller areas. Or heat from radiant warmer can warm the infant

130
Q

What is Non shivering thermogenesis?

A

Metabolism of brown fat to produce heat

131
Q

What are the hazards of cold stress?

A
  1. Increased oxygen need
  2. Decreased surfactant production
  3. Respiratory distress
  4. Hypoglycemia
  5. Metabolic acidosis
  6. Jaundice
132
Q

Manifestations of hyperthermia

A
  • metabolic rate rises, causing an increased need for oxygen and glucose and possible metabolic acidosis.
  • peripheral vasodilation leads to increased insensible fluid losses.
  • Tachypnea
133
Q

What can be the result of Metabolism of brown fat ?

A
  • Releases fatty acids which can result in metabolic acidosis
  • Elevated fatty acids in the blood can interfere with transport of bilirubin to the liver, increasing the risk of jaundice
134
Q

Infants have brown fat primarily located

A
  • around the back of the neck
  • axillae
  • around the heart, kidneys and adrenals,
  • between the scapullae
  • along the abdominal aorta.
  • Around the sternum
135
Q

How should an infant be dressed to maintain proper thermoregulation

A

Dressed in an outfit with one more layer

136
Q

This brown fat is mainly accumulated in the __________ , thus infants that are born prematurely have less brown fat and are unable to keep themselves warm.

A

third trimester

137
Q

What are some indications for an episiotomy?

A
  • shoulder dystocia
  • vacuum or forceps-assisted births
  • face presentation
  • preterm fetus
138
Q

Risks for an episiotomy?

A
  • infection

- perineal pain

139
Q

Name the two techniques for an episiotomy?

A
  • median

- mediolateral

140
Q

What does the nurse do during and after an episiotomy?

A
  • promote gradual stretching of perineum during second stage (perineum massage)
  • delay pushing until the urge is felt
  • push with an open glottis
  • observe for hematoma and edema
141
Q

What are the indications for a cesarean birth?

A
  • dystocia
  • cephalopelvic disproportion
  • HTN
  • maternal diseases
  • active genital herpes
  • fetal distress
  • umbilical cord prolapse
  • some previous uterine surgical procedures
  • persistent non reassuring FHR pattersn
  • prolapsed umbilical cord
  • fetal malpresentations
  • hemorrhagic conditions
142
Q

What are contraindications to a C-section?

A
  • fetal death
  • immature fetus
  • maternal coagulation defects
143
Q

name maternal risks associated with a C-section?

A
  • infection
  • hemorrhage
  • urinary tract infection or trauma
  • thrombophlebits
  • paralytic ileus
  • atelectasis
  • anesthesia complications
144
Q

name fetal risk associated with a C-section?

A
  • lung immaturity
  • inadvertent preterm birth
  • transient tachypnea
  • persistent pulmonary HTN of the newborn
  • traumatic injury
145
Q

What is done in preparation for a c-section?

A
  • anesthesia
  • medication
  • lab studies
  • prophylactic antibiotics
  • skin prep
  • foley catheter
  • IV insertion
  • trim pubic hair
146
Q

Name the type of incisions used for a c-section?

A
  • low transverse (can have VBAC)
  • low vertical
  • classical (not likely to have VBAC)
147
Q

Nursing considerations for a c-section?

A
  • provide emotional support
  • teach
  • promote safety
  • provide post-op care (vitals, fundal checks, care of incision, monitor i/o, assessment of bowel sounds)
148
Q

At birth the stomach holds __ml/kg

A

6ml/kg

149
Q

Peristalsis in newborns is _______

A

rapid - twice as fast

150
Q

Initial feedings should be about ____ ml and then increase very slowly

Lecture

A

20 - 25ml

151
Q

Peristalsis is rapid in newborns especially after the ingestion of _________

A
  • humane milk
152
Q

What occurs anatomically in newborns that makes them more prone to regurgitation

A

Cardiac sphincter is relaxed

153
Q

The intestines are long in proportion to infants size thus there is more surface space for absorption making infants more prone to ________

A

Rapid water loss with diarrhea

154
Q

When are bowel sounds heard in a newborn?

A

within the first hour

155
Q

Why are newborns unable to synthesize vitamin K?

A
  • B/c Vitamin K is synthesized in the intestines, but food and normal intestinal flora are necessary for this process. At birth the intestines are sterile and therefore unable to produce vitamin K
156
Q

What shot is given to newborns in order to help activate several clotting factors thus preventing hemorrhagic disease?

A
  • Vitamin K
157
Q

Newborns cannot digest complex carbs & has a hard time with fatsa but can easily digest _______ and ________.

A
  • Simple carbs
  • Proteins
158
Q

Saliva production is limited until ___ month

A

3rd

159
Q

The first meconium stool is usually passed within ___hours of life, and 99% of neonates pass meconium within 48 hours

A

12

160
Q

How does initially breastfeeding an infant help with the first meconium stools?

A

colostrum has a laxative property which helps infant pass initial meconium

161
Q

Describe a breastfed infant stool vs a formula fed infant stool

A

BREAST FED- Stools are seedy and mustard colored and have a sweet-sour smell. Mor

FORMULA - Pale yellow to light brown, firmer consistency

162
Q

What is the principal source of bilirubin?

A
  • The hemolysis of erythrocytes.
163
Q

When hemolysis of RBC’s occur, bilirubin is released in an ________ form.

A

unconjugated

164
Q

Why must bilirubin go through the conjugation process?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin, also called indirect bilirubin, is soluble in fat but not in water. Before excretion can occur, the liver must change it to a water-soluble form by a process called conjugation.

165
Q

Where is bilirubin excreted and how is it eliminated?

A
  • Duodenum

- Stool

166
Q

The liver is responsible for what functions?

A
  • Blood glucose maintenance
  • Conjugation of Bilirubin
  • Factors produced to help with blood clotting
  • Storage of iron
  • Metabolism of drugs
167
Q

What is the kernicterus?

A

Permanent neurologic injury caused by chronic bilirubin toxicity

168
Q

In the term infant, glucose levels should be ___-___ mg/dL on the first day and ____ - ____ mg/dL thereafter

A
  • 40 to 60

- 50 to 90

169
Q

Factors that increase risk for increased bilirubin?

A
  • Excess production
  • Red blood cell life
  • Liver immaturity
  • Intestinal factors
  • Delayed feeding
  • Trauma can result in increased hemolysis of
    red blood cells.
  • Fatty acids are released when brown fat is used
170
Q

______________ is a transient hyperbilirubinemia (excess bilirubin in the blood) and is considered normal.

A

Physiologic Jaundice

171
Q

Whats the main defining factors between Physiologic Jaundice vs Nonphysiologic Jaundice?

A

Nonphysiologic jaundice may occur in the first 24 hours while physiologic Jaundice never occurs before 24 hours

172
Q

Physiologic Jaundice becomes visible when the bilirubin level is greater than
___ mg/dL. and Peaks between the 2nd and 4th day of life.

A

5

173
Q

Breastfeeding or Early-Onset Jaundice presents with bilirubin levels greater than ___ mg/dL develops in 13% of breastfed infants by 1 week of age

A

12

174
Q

The most common cause of jaundice in breastfed infants is _____________.

A

Insufficient intake

175
Q

_______________ may give a reddish color to the urine that is sometimes mistaken for blood.

A

Uric acid crystals

176
Q

What immunoglobulin crosses the placenta and provides temporary immunity?

Lecture

A

IgG

177
Q

What is the first immunoglobulin produced when exposed to infection?

Lecture

A

IgM

178
Q

How does an infant receive IgA ?

Lecture

A
  • Some from colostrum and breast milk

- Must be produced by infant

179
Q

Daily intake and output in the newborn for the First 3-5 Days of Life

A

INTAKE
- 60 to 100 mL/kg (27 to 45 mL/lb)

OUTTAKE
- At least 1 to 2 voidings

180
Q

Daily intake and output in the newborn AFTER First 3-5 Days of Life

A

INTAKE:
- 150 to 175 mL/kg (68 to 80 mL/lb)

OUTPUT:
- At least 6 voidings by the fourth day

181
Q

First period of reactivity

Lecture

A
  • first period of reactivity begins at birth and lasts for 30 minutes.
  • Infants are active at this time and appear wide awake, alert, and interested in their surroundings.
182
Q

Second Period of Reactivity

Lecture

A

The second period of reactivity lasts 4 to 6 hours. Infants have alert periods, and parents may enjoy the opportunity to get to know their infant at this time. Infants become interested in feeding and may pass meconium.

183
Q

Because an infant is less effective to fighting infection due to their immature immune system, typical responses such as fever is sometimes not present. Only subtle signs such as _________, ____________, ___________ may be the only signs of sepsis. .

A
  • change in color,
  • tone
  • feeding
184
Q

When is the optimum time of discharge?

A
  • usually 24-48 hours after delivery
  • based on individuals needs
  • follow-up essential with early discharge
  • nurses maintain phone contact with family at home
  • variety of services available after discharge
185
Q

Home visits are usually schedule _____ after discharge

A

24-72 hrs

186
Q

a ___ is observed during a home visit

A

feeding session

187
Q

car safety seat considerations:

A
  • current recommendation is that rear-facing seats be used for infants until they are 2 years of age or have reached the highest weight or height allowed by the car seat manufacturer
  • shoulder straps should be at lowest position
  • restraint clip should be placed at mid-chest
  • seats should be tightly secured in car
188
Q

What are some early problems with infants?

A
  • infant crying
  • colic
  • shaken baby syndrome
  • sleep
  • concerns of working mothers
  • concerns of adoptive parents
189
Q

infant crying peaks at ____ weeks and decreases at __ months

A

6 weeks

3 months

190
Q

colic is irritable crying for no reason lasting about ___ hours a day, __ days a week, and for ____ weeks.

A

3,3,3

191
Q

infants sleep ___ hours a day

A

16-17

192
Q

infants should be placed _____ for sleeping

A

on their backs

193
Q

by ___ weeks infants sleep ___ a night

A

12 weeks

5 hours

194
Q

by __ months infants take ____ naps a day and sleep _____ hours a night

A

12 months
2 naps
10 hours

195
Q

the ____ should be checked to see if the infant is warm enough

A

abdomen

196
Q

formula fed infants generally pass ______ a day

A

one stool

197
Q

breastfed babies may pass a stool ____or, in older infants, _____

A
  • after every feeding

- every 2-3 days

198
Q

the infants should have ____ wet diapers by the fourth day of life

A

6

199
Q

the mother should be nursing ____ times a day and a formula fed infants should be fed __ a day

A

8-12 (breastfeeding)

6-8 (formula)

200
Q

transient strabismus is normal the first __ months of life

A

2-3

201
Q

______, or prickly heat, develops in infants who are too warmly dressed in any weather

A

miliaria

202
Q

_________ is a chronic inflammation of the scalp or other areas of the skin characterized by yellow, scaly, oily lesions

A

seborrheic dermatitis

203
Q

infants do not need solid food until _______ months of age

A

4-6

204
Q

the ______, in which infants push the tongue out against anything that touches it, continues until about ____.

A

extrusion reflex

4-6 months of age

205
Q

in the first 3 months, the average infant gains about ____ each day and ___ per month

A

1oz

2lb

206
Q

each month infants grow__ and have a head circumference of __

A
  1. 4”

0. 8”

207
Q

a social smile begins___

A

1-3 months

208
Q

infants “coo” at ____ and laugh at ________

A

1-4 months

3-6 months

209
Q

well-baby check-ups are done____

A

48hrs-2weeks after discharge from hospital and then 1,2,4,6,9, and 12 months of age

210
Q

what are common signs of illness in infants:

A
  • axillary temp above 100.4F
  • vomiting all of a feeding more than once or twice in a day
  • watery stools or a significant increase in the number of stools
  • blister, sores, or rashes that are unusual
  • unusual changes in behavior
  • coughing, frequent sneezing, runny nose
  • pulling or rubbing at the ear, drainage from the ear
211
Q

breastfed babies need ___kcal/kg daily and formula fed babies need ____kcal/kg daily

A

85-100

100-110

212
Q

babies may lose less than ____ of birth weight but should be evaluated after a _____ loss of weight.

A

10%

7%

213
Q

lactogenesis is defined as:

A

the composition of breast milk that changes in three phases

214
Q

begins during pregnancy and continues during the early days after giving birth, contains colostrum.

A

lactogenesis I

215
Q

begins 2-3 days after birth and last about 10 days, usually called transitional milk

A

lactogenesis II

216
Q

beings 10 days after birth and called mature milk

A

lactogenesis III

217
Q

what are the infection-promoting benefits of breast milk?

A
  • promotes growth of intestinal flora
  • protects against common intestinal pathogens
  • leukocytes
  • immunoglobulins high in colostrum
218
Q

What is the effect of the maternal diet on breast milk?

A
  • fatty acid content influenced by maternal diet
  • protein, carbs, and mineral content are the same in a malnourished mother
  • vitamins levels are affected by maternal intake and stores
  • balanced diet important for breastfeeding women.
219
Q

what are the hormonal changes at birth in relation to breast milk production?

A
  • prolactin is secreted after the delivery of the placenta and it activates milk production
  • oxytocin increases in response to nipple stimulation
220
Q

what are common infant problems that could interfere with breastfeeding?

A
  • sleepiness
  • nipple confusion
  • suckling problems
  • infant complications such as jaundice, prematurity, illness and congenital defects.
221
Q

common breastfeeding maternal concerns:

A
  • breast problems
  • illness in mother
  • medications
  • breast surgery
  • employment
  • milk expression
  • storing milk
  • multiple births
  • weaning
  • home care
222
Q

_____ is given IM to infants right after birth because they cannot synthesize it in the intestines without bacterial flora.

A

vitamin K

223
Q

infants also receive a prophylactic eye treatment to prevent ______.

A

ophthalmia neonatroum

224
Q

the normal newborn has little difficulty clearing the airway after the first few hours of life. the expected outcomes are met if:

A
  • the RR is between 30-60 breaths per minute

- the infant shows no signs of respiratory distress

225
Q

generally, the newborn’s temperature & respiratory rate are assessed every ____ until it has been stable for 2 hours.

A

30 mins

226
Q

the normal axillary temperature range for newborns is ____

A

between 97.7 - 99.5

227
Q

a common practice is to feed the newborn if the glucose screening shows __ or less to prevent further depletion of glucose.

A

40-45 mg/dl

228
Q

assess for jaundice every _____ hours along with vital signs

A

8-12

229
Q

what are some interventions for bilirubin?

A
  • identify infants at risk for hyperbilirubinemia
  • explain the importance of adequate feedings
  • explain the significance of skin color changes
  • continue to monitor during home or clinic visits.
230
Q

What are ongoing assessments and care of a newborn?

A
  • assess every 8 hours
  • provide skin care
  • bathing
  • cord care
  • cleansing the diaper area
  • feedings
  • positioning
  • protecting the infant
231
Q

what are primary ways nurses protect newborns:

A
  • ensuring that infants always go to the correct parents
  • taking precautions to prevent infant abductions
  • preventing infections or recognizing early signs
  • preventing infant falls
232
Q

what are the major benefits to circumcision?

A
  • reduces penile cancer
  • reduces UTI’s in the first year of life
  • reduces HIV infections
  • reduces the risk of transmission of other sexually transmitted diseases
233
Q

how is hep b administered to a newborn whose mother is infected?

A
  • give hep b vaccine
  • give hep b immune globulin
  • give te globulin within 12 hours of birth
234
Q

what are some newborn screening tests?

A
  • hearing
  • phenylketonuria
  • hypothyroidism
  • galactosemia
  • hemoglobinopathies
  • congenital adrenal hyperplasia
235
Q

In order for newborns to qualify for early discharge they must:

A
  • be appropriate for gestational age
  • VS wnl
  • feeding successfully
  • making transition from fetal to neonatal life
  • passed urine and stool
  • mother able to care for infant
236
Q

How do thermal factors support respiration of a newborn at birth?

Lecture

A

The temperature change that occurs with birth also stimulates the initiation of respirations.

237
Q

How do the sensory factors help stimulate the first breaths ?

Lecture

A

The stimulation of the light, sound, smell, and pain at delivery may also aid in initiating respirations.

238
Q

What role do Chemical factors play in initial respirations of a newborn?

Lecture

A

Chemoreceptors in the carotid arteries and the aorta respond to changes in blood chemistry caused by the hypoxia that occurs with normal birth. A decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen (Po2) and pH and an increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (Pco2) in the blood cause impulses from these receptors to stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla.

239
Q

What is an APGAR SCORE ?

Lecture

A

The Apgar score is a method for rapid evaluation of the infant’s cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth.

240
Q

The nurse scores the infant at __ minute and __minutes in each of five areas.

Lecture

A
  • 1

- 5

241
Q

When assessing a newborn you work in a certain direction. _____ to ____.

Lecture

A

Head to feet

242
Q

Blood sugars are monitored for babies below the ___ percentile and above the ___ percentile.

Lecture

A
  • 10th

- 90th

243
Q

During APGAR scoring, the infant is assigned a score of ___ to ___ in each of the five areas, and the scores are totaled.

Lecture

A
  • 0

- 2

244
Q

What are the 5 areas of assessed during an APGAR SCORE?

Lecture

A
  1. Heart Rate
  2. Respiratory effort
  3. Muscle tone
  4. Reflex response
  5. Color
245
Q

What do you do for APGAR score of 0 - 2

Lecture

A

Infant needs resuscitation

246
Q

What do you do for APGAR score of 3 - 6

Lecture

A
  • Gently stimulate by rubbing infant’s back while administering oxygen.
  • Determine whether mother received narcotics, which may have depressed infant’s respirations.

-Have naloxone (Narcan) available for administration.

247
Q

APGAR scores from ___ to ___ don’t require any interventions.

Lecture

A

7 - 10

248
Q

___________ is blockage or narrowing of one or both nasal passages by bone or tissue.

Lecture

A

Choanal atresia

249
Q

Central cyanosis involves the lips, tongue, mucous membranes, and trunk and indicates true hypoxia which could indicate ____________ problems

Lecture

A

Cardiovascular

250
Q

What is the difference between Caput and a Cephalhematoma?

Lecture

A

Caput - localized edema, pitting, crosses suture lines, disappears within 12-48hrs

Cephalhematoma - bleeding between the periosteum & skull, does not cross suture lines, may take 2-3 months to resolved

251
Q

________ may be present on the hard palate or gums. These small, white, hard, inclusion cysts are accumulations of epithelial cells and disappear without treatment within a few weeks.

Lecture

A

Epstein’s pearls

252
Q

A murmur in a newborn is normal and maybe heard bc ________

Lecture

A

A murmur may be heard as a result of blood flow through the partially open vessel.

253
Q

First __hours is the best time to interact and breastfeed?

Lecture

A

2

254
Q

How does Oxytocin affect breastfeeding?

Lecture

A
  • stimulates milk let down

- tells body to release prolactin thus increasing milk production

255
Q

Breastfeeding moms need to eat _____ extra calories per day and drink ___ glasses of water?

Lecture

A
  • 500

- 10

256
Q

In physiologic jaundice, the bilirubin peaks at between the second and fourth days of life and falls to normal levels by ___ - ___ days

Lecture

A
  • 5 to 7
257
Q

Pathologic jaundice can show up ______ or within _____

Lecture

A
  • at birth

- within 24 hrs

258
Q

___________ jaundice is not present during the first 24 hours of life in term infants but appears on the second or third day after birth.

Lecture

A

Physiologic

259
Q

What is important to know when cleaning an uncirumsized babies foreskin?

A

DON’T PULL BACK SKIN… ITS ATTACHED TO THE GLAND

260
Q

Screening tests should be performed between ___ - ____ hrs for more accurate results

A

24 to 48

261
Q

Fresh unrefrigerated breast milk should generally be used within __ to ___ hours of pumping. Under very clean conditions using it within 6 to 8 hours is acceptable.

A

3 - 4

262
Q

Breast milk may be stored in a refrigerator at 4°C (39°F) or below for ___ hours in usual circumstances or for 5 to 8 days under very clean situations (ABM, 2010).

A
  • 72
263
Q

If the milk is to be frozen, it should optimally be used by ___ - ____

A

6 - 12

Perinatal test (9 decks)

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