Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Operative > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the healthiest drink for babies teeth during the day and at night

A

breast milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

remineralization can be increased with what two things

A

fluoride application and diet modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

gatorade is as much cariogenic as coke and other soft drinks true or false

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dry mouth resulting from reduced or absent saliva

A

xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which secretion contain the digestive enzyme in saliva

A

serous secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which secretions contain the lubricating aid in saliva

A

mucus secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

all of the following are what

thyocynate, lysozyme, immunoglobulins, lactoferrin and transferrin

A

antimicrobial consituents of saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

alteration of taste, plaque formation, increase risk of caries and root surface caries is an example of what disease

A

xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Autoimmune disease featuring inflammation of the salivary glands and the lacrimal glands, characterized by dryness of the mouth and eyes, found commonly in postmenopausal women

A

sjogren’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

epitheloid granulomas in the salivary glands is characterized by what disease

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

amyloid deposits in the salivary glands is characterized by what disease

A

amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sjoogrens syndrome, sarcoidosis and amyloidosis all can cause what

A

xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Antihistamines, Antidepressants, Antihypertensive, Antipsychotics are all medication that can cause what

A

xerostomia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A biofilm consisting of a gelatinous mass of bacteria adhering to the tooth structure is called

A

bacterial plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An acellular structureless coating comprised of amino acids and carbohydrates derived from saliva is called

A

acquired pellicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

acquired pellicle protects teeth from what

A

acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

acquired pellicle may provide matrix for what

A

remineralization process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  • Contains antibacterial factors
  • May provide matrix for remineralization process
  • Protects enamel
  • Reduces friction between teeth

All of the following are examples of what’s function

A

acquired pellicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pellicle forms within what time frame

A

30 min -2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

As plaque matures bacteria become primarily what

A

anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most of the microbial bacteria in mouth is not what

A

cariogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Capable of producing significant amounts of acid is called what

A

acidogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A bacteria that is Tolerant of an acidic environment is called

A

aciduric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Acidogenic bacteria in the presence of fermentable carbohydrates produce

A

acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

acids dissolve what

A

calcium phosphate in tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

zone 1 of enamel demineralization is characterized by what

A

translucent, deepest advancing front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

zone 4 of enamel demineralization is characterized by what

A

surface zone, unaffected and usually intact enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

region of dentin deepest and closest to pulp, no bacteria present, not usually removed is called

A

affected dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

area of dentin closer to surface, that has bacteria present

A

infected dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the three caries causing bacteria

A

Strep. mutans, lactobacillus and actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Generally associated with the initial onset of caries is what type of bacteria

A

strep mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

this is generally the bacteria that leads to the progression of carious lesions

A

lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which bacteria is highly prevelant in root caries

A

actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is more important than quantitiy when it comes to dietary factors leading to caries

A

frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

in order what is the succeptibility of tooth surfaces to caries

A

pit/fissure, smooth surface and root caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how does the lesion spread in pit and fissure caries

A

starts as a narrow point on surface of enamel and spreads wider as it approaches DEJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how does the lesion spread in smooth surface caries found interproximally

A

Begin as broad area which narrows to a point as it approaches the DEJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

root caries are what class

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what caries are Common with gingival recession and/or decreased saliva flow

A

root caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tend to be U shaped due to lack of enamel what type of caries

A

root caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is pH for dentin and cementum caries to begin and what is it for enamel

A

6.4, 5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Complete remineralization is possible until

A

cavitation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Assumes all plaque is pathogenic and has similar bacterial composition is which etiology theory of caries

A

non-specific plaque theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Plaque assumed to be pathologic only when there is evidence of disease present is which etiology theory of caries

A

specific plaque theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how is non specific plaque theory managed

A

eliminate plaque (brushing flossing), restoring tooth surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Interaction between organisms and their environment, Deals with role of sugar, fluoride, pH and microbial homeostasis in plaque is which theory of etiology of caries

A

ecological plaque theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

High levels of saliva have what effect

A

cariostatic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Disease, Sjögren’s Syndrome, Sarcoidosis, Radiation, Surgery, Medications, Eating disorders, Anxiety are all factors effecting what

A

salivary flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Decreased salivary flow leads to more caries- susceptibility is which test

A

salivary flow test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Direct antimicrobial effect on S. mutans by inhibition of glycolysis and glucose uptake is a role of what

A

fluoride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

fluoride acts as a catalyst to enhance what

A

remineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

fluoride is not as effective on what type of caries but is effective on what type of caries

A

pit and fissure, smooth surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fluorosis is caused by what

A

excessive fluoride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Chlorhexidine; Listerine are examples of what

A

antimicrobial agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Effective as they are immediately toxic to bacteria and will not get resistance built up

A

antimicrobial agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

which lesions occur on the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth (incisors and canines)

A

Class 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Class three do not involve what area of tooth

A

incisal angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

where does cavity generally occur in type 3

A

gingival to contact point (below contact point

59
Q

cavitated enamel caries are past the point of what, not like incipient caries that are not cavitated

A

remineralization

60
Q

class 3 preps are done using what bur

A

2 round bur (quarter round bur)

61
Q

Outline form of a class three prep forms what shape with rounded line angles

A

“C-shaped”

62
Q

where do you put a retention groove in a class three, and away from what

A

gingivally and away from root canal region

63
Q

best approach for a class three is which direction so you dont have to worry about shades

A

lingually

64
Q

what is depth axially of prep

A

1 mm

65
Q

what is done to all enamel margins, which is simply knocking the edges down (smoothing)

A

beveling

66
Q

what is the shape and degree of beveling

A

round or football, 45 degree or greater

67
Q
  • Remove unsupported enamel rods
  • Expose the ends of the enamel rods
  • Provide for a smooth transition from restorative material to tooth, better blend of shades

These are reasons for doing what

A

beveling

68
Q

where do you place class 3 amalgam preps

A

teeth that are distal to canines

69
Q

dont put the retention groove in which wall

A

axial

70
Q

what connects the handle to the blade on a hand piece

A

shank

71
Q

what are the different shank angles

A

straight, monangle, multiple angle (biangle, triangle and quadrangle)

72
Q

Angles of the shank are designed so the cutting edge of the blade lies within_____mm of the axis of the handle

A

2-3 mm

73
Q
  • resists rotation
    – increases effectiveness of the
    blade
    – reduces potential damage of tooth/soft tissue

All of the following assist in what property of the shank

A

balance

74
Q

Refers to a shank in which two or more angles are required to bring the working end of the instrument to near alignment with the axis of the handle this is called

A

contra angled instrument

75
Q

what is another name for a blade

A

nib

76
Q

the blade is the cutting edge, is it beveled

A

yes

77
Q

Primary cutting edge is at right angle to long axis of blade refers to which instrument formula

A

three number formula

78
Q

Primary cutting edge is not at a right angle to the long axis of the blade, Curved instruments is which instrument formula

A

four number formula

79
Q

In the three number formula what is the first second and third numbers refer to

A
  1. width of blade in tenths of a mm
  2. Length of blade in mm
  3. Angle of blade to handle in centigrade
80
Q

which trimmer or carver has a four number formula

A

gingival marginal trimmer

81
Q

In the four number formula what is the first, second, third and fourth numbers refer to

A
  1. Width of blade in tenths of millimeter (mm)
  2. Angle of cutting edge to long axis of handle in centigrade
  3. Length of blade in mm
  4. Angle of blade to handle in centigrade
82
Q

what is the difference between the centigrade and astronomical circles

A

centigrade is divided into 100 parts and astronomical is divided into 360 parts

83
Q

Cutting instruments are known as

A

excavators

84
Q

In non cutting instruments what is the blade replaced by

A

nib

85
Q

what cutting instrument has a straight blade and cutting edge are on a plane with the long axis of the handle, used for enamel

A

enamel hatchet

86
Q

Off-angle, Blades rotated 45 degrees from the plane of the long axis of the handle, Primarily used on maxillary teeth

A

off angled hatchet

87
Q

what cutting instrument is used to remove carious dentin

A

spoon excavator

88
Q

what cutting instrument is Intended primarily for cutting/smoothing enamel Angle (<12.5 centigrade) of blade to handle

A

chisel

89
Q

what cutting instrument plays a role in Planning preparation walls, Forming line angles Angle (>12.5 centigrade) of blade to handle, flat rectangular blade

A

hoe excavator

90
Q

which cutting instrument is designed to produce a proper bevel on gingival enamel margins of proximal-occlusal preparations

A

gingival marginal trimmer

91
Q

what are three different carvers called that are considered non cutting instruments

A

cleod/discoid carver, 1/2 hollenbeck, interproximal carver

92
Q

what non cutting instrument is used to Condense, smooth, and finish amalgam/composite margins

A

burnisher,( football and beaver tail)

93
Q

Double/single-ended instrument to carry triturated amalgam to preparation is called

A

amalgam carrier

94
Q

what grasp is used in patient’s mouth for increased control and Commonly used in laboratory (straight handpieces)

A

palm thumb grasp

95
Q

what is most common grasp of instruments

A

pen/modified/inverted pen grasp

96
Q

what bur do we used for both low and high speeds called

A

fissure bur

97
Q

what are the two common material for burs, which one is more common and why

A

tungsten carbide, diamond —tungsten carbide because it is much less expensive

98
Q

what are the numbers to a straight fissure bur

A

55-62

99
Q

what are the numbers to a round bur

A

1/4-11

100
Q

tapered bur allows for what kind of walls where as the pear bur allows for what kinds of walls

A

divergent vs convergent

101
Q

what are the numbers to the pear shaped bur

A

329-332

102
Q

what are the numbers to the tapered bur

A

168-171

103
Q

the bur head is equivlant to what length

A

1 mm

104
Q

regarding dental burs what Side of bur is toward the direction of cutting (clockwise)

A

rake face

105
Q

regarding dental burs what Side is away from direction of cutting

A

clearance face

106
Q

what part of the bur Transmits rotational and translational forces to the bur head and can easily bend

A

bur neck

107
Q

short bur shanks are used in what part of dentistry

A

pediatrics

108
Q

long bur shanks are used in what part of dentistry

A

laboratory and surgery

109
Q

molded abrasives are used in what type of hand piece

A

slow speed

110
Q

Low speed hand piece, medium and high speed have what RPM’s

A

Low= less than 20,000 rpm
Medium 20,000-100,000 rpm
High greater than 200,000 rpm

111
Q 
• Caries removal
• Finishing and polishing
restorations
• Prophylaxis (polishing teeth)
• Laboratory

All of the following are used for what type of handpiece

A

slow speen hand piece

112
Q
  • No air/water sensitivity
  • Higher torque than high-speed handpiece
  • Increased perceptual touch

Are these disadvantages or advantages to what hand piece

A

advantage to slow speed

113
Q
  • Slower (lower rpm)
  • Increased vibration
  • Heat, pressure sensitivity to patient
  • Cannot effectively cut enamel

These are disadvantages or advantages to which handpiece

A

disadvantage to slow speed

114
Q

• Tooth preparation, Outline form (enamel/dentin) , Removing old restorations, these involve which type of hand piece

A

high speed

115
Q

Less vibration, heat, and pressure to the patient, Longer instrument life are advantages to which type of hand piece

A

high speed

116
Q
  • Noise
  • Air/water sensitivity
  • Less perceptual touch

These are disadvantages to what type of hand piece?

A

high speed

117
Q

minimally invasive dentistry deals with preservation of tooth structure and emphasizes what technique over what technique

A

repair rather then replace

118
Q

for a healthy tooth what do Non-­‐surgical interventions include

A

preventing plaque formation and protecting the tooth surface from acid.

119
Q

which approach of MID deals with mechanical removal of plaque (brushing and flossing), modify plaque cariogenicity, diet evaluation, and stimulation of salivary flow

A

biological approach

120
Q

which approach includes fluoride, calcium phosphate, and antibacterial agents such as chlorhexidine and xylitol.

A

chemical approach

121
Q

which approach of MID deals with protecting the tooth surface from acid by using materials such as pit & fissure sealant.

A

physical approach

122
Q

what is the predominant MID molecule used to prevent caries and what molecule assists in remineralization

A

fluoride, calcium phosphate

123
Q

Pit and fissure sealant is a physical barrier to prevent caries in pit and fissure areas where ____is not effective

A

fluoride

124
Q

White spot lesions can be reversed by what? (the surface is still intact for white spots)

A

remineralization

125
Q

The concept of minimally invasive dentistry emphasizes

A

non surgical intervention

126
Q

what technique uses low-­‐viscosity resin mixtures to penetrate and occlude the porous structures of incipient enamel lesions, and thus blocks further acid demineralization in the interproximal region

A

Infiltration technique

127
Q

the metabolic activity of biofilm is disrupted when what occurs

A

shedding of primary teeth

128
Q

The key decision for surgical intervention is the presence of

A

cavitation

129
Q

The first technique to promote the minimal intervention was described by R.J. Simonsen in 1987 is called

A

Preventive Resin Restoration’ (PRR)

130
Q

is among the most drastic changes in treatment philosophy from Dr. G.V. Black’s concept of Extension for Prevention.

A

Preventive Resin Restoration

131
Q

The PRR requires removing the decay from the pits and sealing the remaining grooves with resin-­‐based sealant. T/F where as amalgam you have to do what to the groove

A

True, remove entire groove

132
Q

what is an alternative methods that can be helpful with removing the right amount of carious dentin

A

detection dye

133
Q

Also, there is doubt if the dye is specific for infected dentin, because it also stains the normal

A

circumpulpal dentin and sound dentin near the DEJ.

134
Q

The last principle of minimal intervention is to avoid or delay

A

replacing restoration

135
Q

Instead of replacing, defective restorations they can be fixed by

A

resealing, refinishing, repairing

136
Q

70% of replaced restorations resulted in a larger cavity size and an increased number of restored surfaces. T/F

A

T

137
Q

both the non-­‐surgical intervention and minimal surgical intervention will be clinically successful only when what two things are changed in the oral cavity

A

the oral environment is changed and the risk factors for dental caries have been controlled,

138
Q

what kind of material preserve tooth structure

A

adhesive materials

139
Q

sclerotic dentin is affected dentin that is good to keep and can remineralize T/F

A

T

140
Q

what doesnt have to be done to Brown spots or arrested lesions because of remineralization

A

does not need to be filled

141
Q

sound dentin and enamel must be cut away to obtain correct outline form is known as ________for the recurrence of decay

A

extension for preservation

142
Q

Replacement of the tooth structure with restorative composite and sealing of adjacent unprepared pits and fissure with sealant is what technique

A

preventative resin restoration

143
Q

What is the measurement of the actual bevel

A

0.5 mm

Operative (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions