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Final Coaching > Tests & Measures and LE > Flashcards

Tests & Measures and LE Flashcards

1
Q

This test is used to assess the integrity of hearing using a tuning fork. The base of the fork is place at the midline vertex of the skull. Patient must hear the vibration equally on both ears.
a. Weber
b. Schwabach
c. Rine
d. Ticking watch

A

a. Weber

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2
Q

What is the resting position of the temporomandibular joint?
a. Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact
b. Clenched teeth
c. Limitation in mouth opening
d. None of these

A

a. Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact

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3
Q

The following vital sign values are normal for an adult, except:
a. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmhg
b. Respiratory rate of 18 cpm
c. Pulse rate of 69 bpm
d. Temperature of 39.9 degrees celcius

A

d. Temperature of 39.9 degrees celcius

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4
Q

This type of end feel occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, or in a joint that normally has a firm or hard end. This may feel boggy with fluid shift
a. Springy
b. Empty
c. Hard
d. Soft

A

d. Soft

c. Hard if in a joint that normally has a firm or SOFT end

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5
Q

According to Borg RPE, a scale of 9 is described as:
a. Hard
b. Very light
c. Very hard
d. Fairly hard

A

b. Very light

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6
Q

Which of the following is widely considered the MOST accurate body composition assessment?
a. Hydrostatic weighing
b. Eyeballing method
c. Electrical impedance
d. Anthropometric measurements

A

a. Hydrostatic weighing

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7
Q

All of the following are functional test for geriatric patients, EXCEPT:
a. Performance oriented Mobility assessment
b. Get up and go test
c. Functional reach test
d. Dynamic gait index
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

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8
Q

A first degree ligament sprain is described as ____.
a. Minimal pain and swelling
b. Protective bracing indicated
c. Structural instability
d. Pain that interferes with exercise

A

a. Minimal pain and swelling

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9
Q

Which special test is used to rule in bicipital tendinitis?
a. Yergason and Speed
b. Phalen’s Test
c. Finkelstein Test
d. Neer and Hawkins’
e. Crank Test

A

a. Yergason and Speed

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10
Q

All of the following are provocative tests performed in the cervical area, except:
a. Jackson Compression Test
b. Scalene Cramp Test
c. Pettman’s distraction Test
d. Spurling’s Test

A

c. Pettman’s distraction Test

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11
Q

The patient requires moderate assistance and expends 50-75 % of the effort. What is the patient’s FIM level?
a.2
b.3
c.4
d.5

A

b.3

7 - INDEPENDENT
1 - Total assistance

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12
Q

Which score is applicable when there is a slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch followed by a minimal resistance throughout the remainder of the range of motion
a.1
b. 1+
c. 2
d. 2+
e.3

A

b. 1+

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13
Q

This is a specific classification for epiphyseal plate fractures a. Salter Harris
b. Garden
c. Gustillo Anderson
d. Le Fort

A

a. Salter Harris

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14
Q

Lifting a 20 kg weight with the back straight and knees bent constitutes how much percentage in disc pressure at L3?
a. 150
b. 73
c. 169
d. 40

A

b. 73

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15
Q
  1. Lifting a 20 kg weight with the back straight and knees bent constitutes how much percentage in disc pressure at L3?
    a. 150
    b. 73
    c. 169
    d. 40
A

b. 73

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16
Q

This reflex is elicited by flicking the terminal phalanx of the index, middle or ring finger. A positive sign indicates increased irritability of sensory nerves in tetany and pathology in the pyramidal tract
a. Rossolimo
b. Schaeffer
c. Piotrowski
d. Hoffman

A

d. Hoffman

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17
Q
  • For the Chaddock’s test to rule in as positive, what response should be observed?
    a. Big toe extension and fanning of the toes
    b. Big toe extension only
    c. Fanning of the toes with big toe flexion
    d. Big toe extension and opposition of the toes
A

a. Big toe extension and fanning of the toes

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18
Q

A burning, pressure-like pain may arise from which of the following structure?
a. Nerve root
b. Nerve
c. Sympathetic Nerve
d. Cranial Nerve

A

c. Sympathetic Nerve

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19
Q

Which grade would describe a muscle test that can perform complete range of motion against gravity with minimal resistance?
a.3
b. 3+
c. 3-
d.4

A

b. 3+

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20
Q

What is the normal range of flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints?
a. 90 degrees
b. 100 degrees
c. 150 degrees
d. 180 degrees

A

a. 90 degrees

“MPD 919”
MCP - 90
PIP - 100
DIP - 90

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21
Q

This tests the structures around the PIP joint. The proximal interphalangeal joint is held in a neutral position while the DIP is flexed by the examiner. If the DIP joint does not flex, the retinacular ligaments or the PIP capsule are taut. If PIP joint is flexed and DIP is flexed easily, the retinacular ligaments are taut and the capsule is normal.
a. Haines-Zancolli Test
b. Bunnel Littler Test
c. Sweater Finger Sign
d. Froment Sign

A

a. Haines-Zancolli Test

22
Q

This special test is performed by the examiner locating the radial pulse and applies downward traction on the test extremity with the patient’s neck hyperextended and head is rotated on the opposite side. Absence or disappearance of pulse indicates thoracic outlet syndrome.
a. EAST test
b. Military Brace Test
c. Adson test
d. Halstead
e. Allen’s Test

A

d. Halstead

23
Q

This test is also known as the Lasegue’s Test
a. Upper limb tension
b. Prone knee bending test
c. Slump test
d. Straight leg raising test

A

d. Straight leg raising test

24
Q

A special test for upper motor neuron lesion where it assesses patient’s balance. As the patient stands with eyes closed the examiner notes for postural sway. A positive test indicates which of the following?
a. Romberg’s Test
b. Lhermitte’s test
c. Brudzinski-Kernig test
d. Marcus Gunn pupil

A

a. Romberg’s Test

25
Q

A post CVA patient can maintain standing position without external support and show limited postural sway. He can also remain standing while turning his head or trunk. What is his functional grade?
a. Fair static and dynamic
b. Good static and dynamic
c. Good static and fair dynamic
d. Fair static and good dynamic

A

c. Good static and fair dynamic

26
Q

Components of anterior pelvic tilt in weight-bearing position:
I. Hip flexion
II. Hip extension
III. Lumbar extension
IV. Lumbar flexion

a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. All of these
d. I, II, and III
e. None of these

A

a. I and III

27
Q

An adolescent female is referred to physical therapy with coxa valga. The position that the femur will be in is excessive:
a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Lateral rotation
d. Medial rotation

A

a. Abduction

28
Q

Conditions related to an increase in femoral anteversion:
I. In-toeing
II. Lateral patellar dislocation
III. Limited hip lateral rotation
IV. Increased hip medial rotation

a. All of these
b. I, II, III
c. I and III
d. None of these
e. II and IV

A

a. All of these

29
Q

Movements limited by the iliofemoral ligament, except:
I. Hip IR
II. Hip ER
III. Hip flexion
IV. Hip extension

a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. Only IV
e. All of these

A

a. I and III

AS = Ext, Add, IR

30
Q

The hip flexors connect the pelvis and the low back to the femur. The following statements are correct, except:
I. The hip flexors work as a force couple with low back muscles to rotate the pelvis anteriorly and secondarily increase lumbar lordosis
II. When moving the femur on the pelvis, the hip flexors contract synergistically with the abdominal muscles, as when performing a forceful sit up
III. Maximum isometric torque of the hip flexors is greatest when the muscles are on slight stretch as in a kicking motion when the hip begins flexing from an initial position of flexion
IV. As hip motion continues from extension to flexion, torque decreases with progressive flexion
V. If the iliopsoas muscles are paralyzed bilaterally, the person may fall forward

a. All of these
b. II and V
c. I, II, and III
d. I and III
e. Only IV

A

b. II and V

31
Q

A therapist determines that a patient is walking with a backward trunk lean with full weight on the left leg. The patient also demonstrates great difficulty going up ramps. Based on these findings which of these muscles needs strengthening?
a. Right quadriceps
b. Right iliopsoas
c. Left gluteus maximus
d. Right gluteus maximus
e. Left quadriceps

A

c. Left gluteus maximus

32
Q

A therapist is evaluating the gait pattern of a patient and notes that the pelvis drops inferiorly on the right during the mid swing phase of the right lower extremity. The patient also leans laterally to the left with the upper trunk during this phase. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this deviation?
a. Weak right gluteus medius
b. Weak right adductor longus
c. Weak left gluteus medius
d. Weak left adductor longus

A

c. Weak left gluteus medius

33
Q

What structure forms the floor of the femoral triangle?
I. Iliacus
II. Pectinues
III. Adductor longus

a. II and III only
b. I, II, and III
c. I and II only
d. I and III only

A

b. I, II, and III

34
Q

The following are true of the femoral artery, except:
I. If the common iliac artery or external iliac artery is partially occluded, the femoral
artery pulse may be diminished
II. The femoral nerve lies medial to the femoral artery
III. The femoral vein lies lateral to the femoral artery and is a clinical site for venous puncture
IV. Palpable just superior to the inguinal ligament, at a point halfway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle
V. Passes under the inguinal ligament at about its midpoint

a. II, III, IV
b. III, IV, V
c. I, II, III
d. IV only
e. None of the above

A

a. II, III, IV

35
Q

The following statements are true of the knee joint, except?
a. Stability is provided by soft tissues, ligaments, muscles, and cartilage
b. Can sustain vertical force up to six times the body weight
c. Requires co-contraction of front and back muscles to support the body weight in the erect position
d. A trochoginglimus joint with two degrees of freedom of motion

A

c. Requires co-contraction of front and back muscles to support the body weight in the erect position

36
Q

The following statements are true of the patella, except:
I. Increases the leverage of the quads
II. Decreases pressure and distribute forces on the femur
III. Prevents damaging forces on the quadriceps tendon in resisted knee flexion
IV. When the knee is flexed, it provided bony protection to the distal joint surfaces of the femoral condyles

a. All of these
b. I, II, III
c. I, III
d. II, IV
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

37
Q

The following describe the lateral meniscus:
I. The lateral meniscus is much less secure than the medial meniscus
II. May move anteriorly-posteriorly as the condyle does
III. There is an area of no point attachment to the tibia from under the anterior cruciate
ligament to the anterior margin of the tibia
IV. Has considerably less mobility than the medial meniscus and by its shape and
contour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle

a. All of these
b. I, II, III
c. I, III
d. II, IV
e. Only IV

A

b. I, II, III

38
Q

Partial tearing of the ______ ligament occurs at tits femoral or tibial attachment and is a result of forced abduction of the tibia on the femur.
a. Anterior cruciate
b. Lateral collateral
c. Posterior cruciate
d. Medial collateral

A

d. Medial collateral

39
Q

The following are true regarding the cruciate ligaments, except?
a. Both of the cruciate ligaments arise from the tibia and attach to the distal femur within the knee joint
b. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is more oblique whereas the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) follows a more vertical course
c. The ACL includes an anterolateral band and a posteromedial band
d. The cruciate ligaments maintain a relatively constant length throughout the motions of flexion and extension

A

c. The ACL includes an anterolateral band and a posteromedial band

40
Q

Which of the following is/are true about the screw home mechanism?
I. Occurs during the last 20 degrees of knee extension
II. IR of femur in closed kinematic chain motion
III. ER of tibia in open kinematic chain motion
IV. IR of tibia in closed kinematic chain motion

a. All of these
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. Only IV
e. I, II, and III

A

e. I, II, and III

41
Q

Malalignment syndrome of the knee is caused by?
I. Hypermobility of the patella
II. External tibial torsion
III. Femoral anteversion
IV. Oversupination

a. II and IV
b. I, II, and III
c. II, III, and IV
d. II only

A

b. I, II, and III

42
Q

A patient is unable to extend the knee in the sitting position or performs straight leg raising when supine. This may be due to weakened or paralyzed _____.
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Quadratus femoris
c. Iliopsoas
d. Quadriceps femoris

A

d. Quadriceps femoris

43
Q

A therapist positions the client in prone with the knee flexed to 70 degrees prior to completing a manual muscle test of the hamstrings. To isolate the biceps femoris the therapist should:
a. Place the thigh in slight medial rotation and the leg in slight medial rotation on the thigh
b. Position the knee in 120 degrees of flexion
c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh
d. Position the knee in 100 degrees of flexion

A

c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh

44
Q

Functions of pre-tibials, except:
a. The tibialis anterior is the primary dorsiflexor of the ankle
b. The extensor digitorum longus and the extensor hallucis longus extend the toes first, based on the length-tension relationship, they lose their effectiveness to also act to dorsiflex the ankle
c. When the extensor digitorum longus acts in isolation, a strong inversion of the ankle also occurs because of its lateral position relative to the subtalar axis
d. When the tibialis anterior is very weak or nonfunctioning, a limited range of dorsiflexion of the ankle is produced as the toe extensors attempt to take over the task
e. None of these

A

c. When the extensor digitorum longus acts in isolation, a strong inversion of the ankle also occurs because of its lateral position relative to the subtalar axis

45
Q

The deepest muscle of the leg inverts the foot and plantarflexes the transverse tarsal joint a. Flexor digitorum longus
b. Tibialis anterior
c. Flexor hallucis longus
d. Tibialis posterior
e. Abductor hallucis

A

d. Tibialis posterior

46
Q

The deltoid ligament of the ankle is composed of the following, except:
I. Anterior tibiotalar
II. Posterior tibiotalar
III. Tibiocalcaneal
IV. Talonavicular

a. I, II, III
b. I, III
c. II, IV
d. Only IV
e. None of these

A

d. Only IV

Keyword: TIBIA

47
Q

The medial longitudinal arch of the foot is composed of the following bones, except:
I. Talus
II. Navicular
III. Calcaneus
IV. Cuboid

a. I, II, III
b. II, IV
c. I, III
d. All of these
e. Only IV

A

e. Only IV

48
Q
  • The following are components of coupled subtalar supination in weight-bearing position:
    I. Calcaneal inversion
    II. Talar adduction
    III. Talar dorsiflexion
    IV. Tibial medial rotation

a. All of these
b. I, II, III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. Only IV

A

c. I and III ????

49
Q

Motions in the foot take place on certain joints. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Forefoot abduction and adduction take place at the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints
b. Forefoot abduction and adduction take place primarily at the midtarsal joint
c. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia and fibula within the ankle mortise
d. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia within the ankle mortise
e. Subtalar inversion and eversion take place at the talocalcaneal, talonavicular, and calcaneocuboid joints

A

d. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia within the ankle mortise

50
Q

What is the characteristic of the intrinsic muscles of the foot?
a. Their major function includes supporting the arches in walking and running
b. Their proximal attachments are either in the tibia or fibula
c. Their distal attachments are either in the tibial or fibula
d. All but one are located in the plantar surface

A

a. Their major function includes supporting the arches in walking and running

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