Torts Flashcards

1
Q

What is a tort?

A

A civil wrong committed against another

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2
Q

What conduct does torts arise from?

A

Defendant’s (1) intentional conduct, (2) negligent conduct, or (3) conduct that creates liability without fault (strict liability)

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3
Q

How to analyze a torts question

A

(1) Identify prima facie elements of tort, apply to facts, (2) consider any defenses supported by the facts, and (3) consider any supplemental rules that may apply (multiple parties)

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4
Q

Intentional torts

A

Battery
Assault
False imprisonment
Intentional infliction of emotional distress
Tresspass to land
Trespass to chattel
Conversion

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5
Q

To which intentional torts does transferred intent apply?

A

Battery
Assault
False imprisonment
Trespass to land
Trespass to chattels

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6
Q

What is the doctrine of transferred intent?

A

Defendant’s intent will transfer when he intends to commit a tort against one person and instead:
- commits a different tort against that person
- commits the intended tort against a different person
- commits a different tort against a different person

Both the intended and committed tort must be battery, assault, false imprisonment, or trespass to land/chattels

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7
Q

Battery

A

(1) Harmful or offensive contact (contact to which plaintiff has not consented)
(2) with plaintiff’s person (inc. things connected to their person)
(3) intentionally caused by defendant
- nominal damages available

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8
Q

Assault

A

(1) Intentional creation by the defendant
(2) of a reasonable apprehension (expectation) of immediate harmful or offensive contact (plaintiff must be aware of D’s act at time of occurrence)
(3) to the plaintiff’s person
*words alone generally not enough

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9
Q

False imprisonment

A

(1) An intentional act or omission by the defendant
(2) that causes the plaintiff to be confined or restrained to a bounded area
- threats of force, false arrests, failure to provide a means of escape when under a duty to do so
- Plaintiff must not know of any reasonable escape
- Actual damages not required, nominal ok
- Punitive damages available if D acted maliciously

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10
Q

Intentional infliction of emotional distress

A

(1) Intentional extreme and outrageous conduct (recklessness is sufficient)
(2) by the defendant
(3) that causes the plaintiff to suffer severe emotional distress
- Physical injury not required
- Actual, not nominal, damages required
- Fallback tort, so choose a different alternative if it will also allow plaintiff to recover over this

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11
Q

Can a bystander recover under IIED?

A

If the defendant intended his conduct for a third person and a bystander plaintiff suffers severe emotional distress, plaintiff must prove:
- prima facie elements of IIED, OR
(1) they were present when injury occurred
(2) the distress resulted in bodily harm or plaintiff is a close relative of the (intended) third person, and
(3) defendant knew these facts

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12
Q

Trespass to land

A

(1) an intentional act by the defendant
(2) that causes a physical invasion of the plaintiff’s real property
*Only intent to do the act of entering needed, not intent to trespass

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13
Q

Trespass to chattels

A

(1) an intentional act by the plaintiff
(2) that causes an interference with the plaintiff’s right of possession in a chattel (damage, intermeddling, dispossession)
(3) resulting in actual damages to possessory right/harm to chattel/loss of use
* only intent to do act that causes interference needed, not intent to trespass
*is conversion more appropriate?

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14
Q

Conversion

A

(1) an intentional act by the defendant
(2) that causes a serious interference to plaintiff’s possession in a chattel (a forced sale of the chattel such that D has to pay its full value)
*only intent to do act that causes conversion needed, not intent to convert

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15
Q

What are acts of conversion?

A
  • Wrongful acquisition (theft)
  • Wrongful transfer
  • Wrongful detention
  • Substantially changing, severely damaging, misusing a chattel
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16
Q

How may a plaintiff recover under conversion?

A
  • Damages in the amount of fair market value at time of conversion
  • Replevin (possession)
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17
Q

Defenses to intentional torts

A

Consent (express or implied)
Self defense
Defense of others
Defense of property
Necessity

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18
Q

Consent

A
  • Express or implied (apparent/by law)
  • Plaintiff must have had capacity to consent
  • Defendant must not exceed bounds of consent
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19
Q

Self defense

A
  • Defendant must reasonably believe a tort is being/about to be committed against himself (already committed torts don’t apply)
  • Only reasonable force may be used (deadly force only if reasonably believed necessary to prevent serious bodily injury)
  • Defendant’s conduct is prompted by plaintiff
  • Reasonable mistake allowed
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20
Q

When is self-defense available to the initial aggressor?

A

Only when the other party responds to the aggressor’s non-deadly force with deadly force

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21
Q

When may self-defense extend to third-party injuries?

A

If the third party’s injuries were caused while actor was defending himself, and if actor deliberately injured the third person in trying to protect themself

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22
Q

Defense of others

A
  • Defendant must reasonably believe a tort is being/about to be committed against a third person (already committed torts don’t apply)
  • Defendant must reasonably believe other party could have used force to defend themselves
  • Only reasonable force may be used (deadly force only if reasonably believed necessary to prevent serious bodily injury)
  • Defendant’s conduct is prompted by plaintiff
  • Reasonable mistake allowed
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23
Q

Defense of property

A
  • Defendant must reasonably believe a tort is being/about to be committed against his property (already committed torts don’t apply)
  • Only reasonable force may be used (deadly force never allowed to defend only property)
  • Necessity/other privilege trumps property owner’s right to defend property
  • Defendant’s conduct prompted by plaintiff
  • Reasonable mistake allowed re if an intrusion has occurred or if request to desist required, not re if entrant/plaintiff has a privilege trumping defense
  • General duty to request to desist before using force unless such request would be pointless
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24
Q

When may indirect deadly force be used?

A

One may not use indirect deadly force such as a trap, spring gun, or vicious dog when such force could not lawfully be directly used

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25
Q

When is there a duty to retreat?

A
  • Majority rule - never
  • Modern trend - before using deadly force if retreat can be done safely, unless actor is in their home
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26
Q

What is the shopkeeper’s privilege?

A

Permits reasonable detention (as to length and manner of detention) of a person shopkeeper reasonably believes has shoplifted goods

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27
Q

Privilege of public necessity

A

If defendant’s property tort was justified by public necessity, this is an absolute defense (trumps property owner’s right to defend property)

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28
Q

Privilege of private necessity

A

A person may interfere with real/personal property of another when interference is reasonably and apparently necessary to avoid threatened injury from natural/other force and threatened injury is substantially more serious than invasion undertaken to avert it.
- Private necessity –> qualified defense (D must pay for any damage caused)

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29
Q

Recapture of chattels

A

Defense to trespass of chattels
- When another’s possession of owner’s chattel began lawfully, owner may use only peaceful means to recover the chattel
- Force may be used to recapture chattel only when in “hot pursuit” of one who obtained possession wrongfully, and timely demand to return must precede force

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30
Q

What are the prima facie elements of an intentional tort?

A

(1) Defendant’s act (volitional movement)
(2) Defendant’s intent
(3) Causation of result/damage to plaintiff by defendant’s act

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31
Q

What is tortious intent?

A

The intent to bring about the forbidden consequences that are the basis for the tort (not the intent to cause the specific injury that results)
- Incapacity not a defense

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32
Q

What is harmful contact?

A

Direct or indirect contact that causes actual injury, pain, or disfigurement

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33
Q

What is causation?

A

Defendant’s conduct was a substantial factor in bringing about plaintiff’s injury/result

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34
Q

What is offensive contact?

A

Direct or indirect contact that would be considered offensive to a reasonable person and that has not been consented to/permitted

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35
Q

What are the prima facie elements of negligence?

A

(1) Duty of defendant
(2) Breach of duty by defendant
(3) Causation (actual AND proximate) between breach and plaintiff injury
(4) Damages

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36
Q

General duty of care

A

Duty to act as a reasonably prudent person in avoiding creating an unreasonable risk of injury to foreseeable plaintiffs
- Objective standard; mental deficiencies/inexperience not considered
- Reasonable person expected to have same physical characteristics as defendant if relevant to claim
- Minimum standard of care; defendant with superior skills/knowledge required to exercise that experience

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37
Q

What is the duty of care of children

A

Subjective test, held to standard of child of like age, intelligence, and experience
- Child under 5 is without capacity to be negligent
- Children engaging in potentially dangerous adult activities may be held to adult standard

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38
Q

What is the duty of care of professionals?

A

Required to possess knowledge and skill of average member of profession or occupation in good standing

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39
Q

What are the duties of care of doctors?

A
  • Doctors must possess knowledge and skill of average member of their profession in good standing
  • Doctors have a duty to disclose risk of treatment (enabling patient to give informed consent) (breached if undisclosed risk so serious as to cause reasonable person in patient’s position to withhold consent on learning of risk)
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40
Q

To whom is a duty of cared owed?

A

All foreseeable plaintiffs

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41
Q

When is a rescuer a foreseeable plaintiff?

A

When the defendant negligently put themselves or a third person in peril (danger invites rescue)

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42
Q

What is the firefighter’s rule?

A

Firefighters and police officers are barred from recovering for injuries caused by the inherent risks of their jobs

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43
Q
A
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44
Q

What is a possessor of land’s duty of care?

A

Depends on trespasser’s status as
- Unknown trespasser
- Known trespasser
- Lincensee
- Invitee

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45
Q

What is a possessor of land’s duty of care to unknown trespassers?

A

No duty owed to undiscovered trespasser

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46
Q

What is a possessor of land’s duty of care to known trespassers?

A

As to discovered/anticipated trespassers, land possesser must warn/make safe any conditions that are:
- artificial
- highly dangerous (risk of death/serious bodily harm
- concealed
- known to land possessor in advance

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47
Q

What is a possessor of land’s duty of care to licensees?

A

Land possessor has duty to warn of/make safe any hazardous conditions that are:
- Concealed
- Known to land possessor in advance
- Land possessor must exercise reasonable care in conduct of operations on property (no duty to inspect/repair)

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48
Q

Who is a licensee?

A

One who enters onto land with possessor’s permission for their own purpose or business (rather than for possessor’s benefit)
- inc. social guests
- Police and firefighters owed no duty of care regarding risks inherent to their jobs

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49
Q

Who is an invitee?

A

One who enters onto land in response to invitation by possessor of land
- Purpose connected with business of land possessor
- Enter as members of public for purpose for which land is held open to public
- Will lose invitee status if exceed scope of invitation

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50
Q

What is a land possessor’s duty of care to invitees?

A

Landowner/occupier owes duty to invitees regarding hazardous conditions that are:
- concealed
- known to land possessor in advance or could have been discovered by reasonable inspection

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51
Q

What is the attractive nuisance doctrine?

A

Special duty of care owed by landowner/possessor to children
- Dangerous artificial condition on land that owner is/should be aware of
- Owner knows/should know children might trespass on land
- Condition likely to cause injury (dangerous because of child’s inability to appreciate risk)
- Expense of remedying situation is slight compared with magnitude of risk

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52
Q

What is a landowner’s duty of care to recreational land users?

A

If no fee for public use of land for recreational purposes, no liability for injuries caused unless landowner maliciously and willfully failed to guard against/warn of dangerous condition/activity

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53
Q

When is a general duty of care replaced by a statutory standard of care?

A
  • Clearly stated specific duty imposed by statute providing for criminal penalties
  • Plaintiff within protected class
  • Statute designed to prevent type of harm suffered by plaintiff
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54
Q

When is a person excused from violating a statutory standard of care?

A

Where compliance would cause more danger than violation, or where compliance would be beyond defendant’s control

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55
Q

What is the effect of a statutory violation?

A

Unexcused violation is negligence per se (conclusive presumption of duty and breach of duty)
- (1) specific duty imposed by the statute must be clearly stated; plaintiff also must show that: (2) she is in the class intended to be protected by the statute, and (3) the statute was designed to prevent the type of harm that the plaintiff suffered
- While violation may be negligence, compliance doesn’t establish due care

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56
Q

When is there an affirmative duty to act?

A
  • Special relationship between parties (parent-child, spousal)
  • Parties that gather public for profit (common carrier, innkeeper) to aid/assist patrons
  • Peril to others due to own conduct
  • Assumption of duty by acting
  • To prevent harm from third person if one has ability to control their actions and knows/should know person likely to commit acts that require exercise of this control
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57
Q

What is the duty of care owed by innkeepers and common carriers?

A

Liable for slight negligence (very high standard) if plaintiff is passenger/guest

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58
Q

What duty is owed by an automobile driver to passenger?

A

Duty of ordinary care
- Guest statute states, one is liable to nonpaying passengers only for reckless tortious conduct

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59
Q

What is the duty of cared owed in a bailment relationship?

A
  • Bailor transfers to bailee possession of chattel but not title
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60
Q

What is the duty of care owed in emergency situations?

A

Defendant must act as reasonably prudent person would under same emergency conditions
- Emergency not to be considered if of defendant’s own making

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61
Q

Negligent infliction of emotional distress

A

Breached when:
- Defendant creates foreseeable risk of physical injury to plaintiff
- Plaintiff within zone of danger (sufficiently close to defendant as to be subject to high risk of physical impact)
- Plaintiff’s emotional distress manifested as physical symptoms

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62
Q

Negligent infliction of emotional distress to bystander

A
  • Plaintiff is outside zone of danger, distress caused by seeing D negligently injure another
  • Plaintiff and injured person closely related
  • Plaintiff present at scene of injury and personally observed/perceived event
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63
Q

Negligent infliction of emotional distress in special relationship

A

D may be liable for directly causing P severe emotional distress when duty arises from special relationship (commercial in nature) such that D’s negligence has great potential to cause emotional distress (physical symptoms not required)

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64
Q

What constitutes breach of duty in negligence cases?

A

D’s conduct falls short of that level required by applicable standard of care owed to P
- Question for trier of fact

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65
Q

Under which theories can plaintiff prove breach in negligence cases?

A
  • Custom or usage of others (reasonable prudence standard)
  • Violation of statute (negligence per se)
  • Res Ipsa Loquitur
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66
Q

What is res ipsa loquitur?

A
  • Very occurrence of event tends to establish breach of duty
  • Accident causing injury is type that would not normally occur without negligence
  • Negligence probably attributable to defendant
  • Can be shown by evidence that instrumentality causing injury was in exclusive control of defendant
  • Prevents directed verdict
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67
Q

When should a defendant’s motion for directed verdict be granted?

A

When P has failed to establish res ipsa loquitur and failed to present some other evidence of breach of duty

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68
Q

When should a plaintiff’s motion for directed verdict be granted?

A

When P has established negligence per se through violation of applicable statute AND no issues of proximate cause

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69
Q

What is the “but for” test?

A

Used to prove factual/actual causation where several acts (each insufficient to cause injury alone) combine to cause P’s injury, and injury would not have occurred but for D’s act/omission
- D can refute by showing injury would have happened even without act/omission

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70
Q

What is the substantial factor test?

A

Used to prove factual/actual causation where multiple sufficient causes for injury present, and D’s conduct was substantial factor in causing injury
- Both parties acted negligently and both parties caused harm

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71
Q

What is the “unascertainable causes” approach?

A

Used to prove factual/actual causation where there are two acts, only one of which causes injury, but unknown which one
- Burden shifts to D, and each must show their negligence not actual cause
- Both parties acted negligently, one party caused harm

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72
Q

What is the doctrine of proximate cause?

A

Limits defendants’ liability to harmful results that are the normal incidents of and within increased risk caused by their negligent acts
- Foreseeability
- If any issue of foreseeability/proximate cause for trier of fact, motion for summary judgment should be denied

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73
Q
A
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74
Q

What are common foreseeable intervening forces?

A

Forces occurring after and combining with D’s negligent act to produce reactions/create risks foreseeable from D’s negligence
- Medical malpractice
- Negligence of rescuers
- Protection or reaction forces to D’s conduct (inc. efforts to protect person/property)
- Disease/accident substantially caused by original injury
- Intervening forces the harm from which was increased by D’s negligence (negligence of third persons, crimes/intentional torts of third persons, acts of God

75
Q

What are superseding forces?

A

Intervening forces that produce unforeseeable results (results not within increased risk created by D’s negligence)
- Relieve D from liability by breaking causal connection between D’s initial negligence and P’s ultimate injury

76
Q

Damages from negligence

A
  • Actual harm/injury required; economic and non-economic (nominal damages not available)
  • Essential element of prima facie case of negligence, so never presumed
  • D liable for all damages; extent/severity of harm need not have been foreseen
77
Q

What is the eggshell plaintiff rule?

A

Defendant liable for all damages, including aggravation of existing condition, even if extent/severity of damages unforeseeable

78
Q

What are a personal injury plaintiff’s damages?

A
  • Past, present, future
  • Economic and non-economic
  • Damages for resulting emotional distress if suffered physical injury
79
Q

What are property damages?

A

Reasonable cost of repair, or fair market value at time of incident if property totally/nearly destroyed

80
Q

What are defenses to negligence?

A
  • Contributory negligence
  • Comparative negligence (pure, partial)
  • Assumption of risk
81
Q
A
82
Q

What is contributory negligence?

A

Plaintiff’s own negligence contributes to injury and bars recovery
- Defense to negligence proved by D’s violation of statute, unless statute to protect class of P’s from their incapacity and lack of judgment
- Negated by D’s last clear chance
- Never defense to intentional torts

83
Q

What is comparative negligence?

A

A defense to negligence whereby plaintiff’s recovery is decreased by her own negligence contributing to her injury

84
Q

What is a pure comparative negligence defense?

A

Negligent P will recover damages reduced by percentage of her fault (even if she was primarily at fault)

85
Q

What is a partial comparative negligence defense?

A

Negligent P can recover reduced damage so long as she was 50% or less responsible/comparatively negligent
- If P’s comparative negligence is above the designated cutoff, she is barred from recovery

86
Q

What is the “last clear chance” doctrine?

A

Person with last clear chance to avoid accident who fails to do so is liable for negligence
- D must have been able, but failed, to avoid harming P at time of accident
- P’s rebuttal to defense of contributory negligence (P can still recover despite contributory negligence)

87
Q

When will a third party’s contributory negligence be contributed to plaintiff?

A

Only when relationship between third party and P is such that court could find P vicariously liable for third aprty’s negligence
- Imputed between employer/employee, partner/joint venturer relationships
- Not imputed between spouses, parent/child, and auto owner/driver

88
Q

What is the assumption of risk defense?

A

P is aware of a risk and voluntary assumes it
- Comparative negligence states apply comparative negligence rules to implied assumption of risk cases

89
Q

When is assumption of risk N/A?

A
  • Where there is no available alternative to proceeding in face of risk
  • Situations involving fraud, force, emergency situations
  • Common carriers/public utilities can’t limit liability with disclaimers
  • Class members protected by statute never deemed to have assumed risk
90
Q

What is strict liability?

A

Liability without fault

91
Q

What situations impose strict liability?

A
  • Owner of wild animal or abnormally dangerous domestic animal, for injuries caused by animal
  • One engaged in abnormally dangerous activity
92
Q

Strict liability for wild animals

A

An owner of a wild (nondomestic) animal, even as a pet, will be strictly liable for the damage caused by the animal, so long as person injured did nothing, voluntarily or consciously, to bring about the injury.
- includes liability for the harm that results when a person is attempting to flee from what is perceived to be a dangerous animal

93
Q

Strict liability for domestic animals

A

Owners of domestic animals not strictly liable for injuries they cause unless owner has knowledge that animal has abnormally dangerous propensities not common to that species
- No strict liability for injury caused by normally dangerous characteristics of domestic animal

94
Q

Strict liability for trespassing animals

A

An owner is strictly liable for reasonably foreseeable damage done by a trespass of his animals

95
Q

Is strict liability available for trespassers?

A

Generally not imposed in favor of trespassers.
- To recover for injuries from wild animal, trespasser must prove owner’s negligence

96
Q

What is an abnormally dangerous activity?

A

An activity that (1) creates a reasonably foreseeable risk of serious harm, even when reasonable care exercised by all actors, and (2) is not a matter of common usage in the community

97
Q

What is the extent of a defendant’s strict liability?

A
  • D liable only to foreseeable Ps
  • Harm must result from kind of danger to be anticipated from dangerous animal/activity
  • Many states apply comparative fault rules to strict liability cases
  • N/A where injury caused by something other than dangerous aspect of activity/animal
98
Q

What is products liability?

A

Liability for defective products arising when commercial supplier supplies product in defective condition (manufacturing, design) unreasonably dangerous to users

99
Q

Theories of product liability

A
  • Intent
  • Negligence
  • Implied warranties of merchantability and fitness for particular purpose
  • Representation theories
  • Strict liability (easiest to prove)
100
Q

What is a manufacturing defect?

A

Product varies from other products in manufacturing process and is dangerous beyond expectation of ordinary consumer

101
Q

What is a design defect?

A

All products in line have dangerous characteristics because of mechanical features or packaging

102
Q

What is an information defect?

A

Users of a product are given inadequate warnings/instructions, and a less dangerous modification/alternative was economically feasible

103
Q

What is a breach of duty under negligent product liability?

A

Negligent conduct by defendant that leads to supplying defective product to plaintiff

104
Q

Elements of strict products liability?

A

(1) D is a merchant/commercial supplier of product
(2) Product is defective
(3) Product not substantially altered since leaving D’s control
(4) P was making foreseeable use of product at time of injury

105
Q

Effect of compliance with safety standards

A
  • Noncompliance with government safety standards establishes defect
  • Compliance with safety standards (inc. labeling requirements) evidence, but not conclusive, that product is not defective
106
Q

What constitutes foreseeable use?

A

D will not be held liable for dangers not foreseeable at time of marketing
- misuse of product may be foreseeable

107
Q

Recovery under strict products liability

A
  • Requires proof of physical injury or property damage
  • Recovery denied if sole claim is for economic loss
  • Disclaimers irrelevant if proper damages occur
108
Q

What is a nuisance?

A

A type of harm (interference) that may be based on intent, negligence, or strict liability; public or private

109
Q

What is a private nuisance?

A

a substantial, unreasonable interference with another person’s use or enjoyment of her property

110
Q

What is a public nuisance?

A

An act that unreasonably interferes with the health, safety, or property rights of the community

111
Q

What remedies are available under nuisance?

A
  • Damages (usual)
  • Injunctive relief may be available for continuing nuisance
112
Q

Is coming to the nuisance a defense to nuisance?

A

No, one who has just moved onto land adjacent to a nuisance may bring a nuisance action

113
Q

What is vicarious liability?

A

D may be vicariously liable for the tort of another based on relationship between D and tortfeasor
- Whether or not vicarious liability applies, D can be liable for his own negligence

114
Q

What is the doctrine of respondeat superior?

A

Employer is liable for torts of employee occurring within scope of employment relationship

115
Q

When is a principal liable for torts of his independent contractor?

A
  • Independent contractor is engaged in inherently dangerous activity
  • Principal’s duty can’t be delegated because of public policy considerations (inc. duty of a business to keep its premises safe for customers)
116
Q

What relationships may give rise to vicarious liability?

A
  • Employer-employee
  • Principal-independent contractor
  • Auto owner-driver
  • Parent-child
117
Q

When is an auto owner liable for the negligence of the driver?

A

If state has adopted:
- permissive use statute - liability for torts of anyone driving w/ permission
- family purpose doctrine - liability for torts of family member driving w/ permission

118
Q

When is a parent liable for the negligence of their child?

A

If a state has adopted a statute imposing liability for child’s intentional torts
- Never at common law

119
Q

What is joint and several liability?

A

When 2+ tortious acts combine to proximately cause an indivisible injury to P, each tortfeasor is jointly and severally liable for the injury
- P can recover entire damages from any one
- Many states abolished for tortfeasors less at fault than P/all tortfeasors for noneconomic damages

120
Q

How may a tortfeasor who paid more than his share of damages recover the excess?

A

If joint and several liability applies, contribution allows such a tortfeasor to recover excess from other tortfeasors in proportion to their fault

121
Q

What is a survival statute?

A

Statute that preserve’s victims cause of action after his death, except for torts involving intangible personal interests (defamation)

122
Q

What is a wrongful death statute?

A

Statute that permits personal representative or surviving spouse to recover damages from tortfeasor for loss of decedent’s support/companionship

123
Q

What is an intra-family tort immunity?

A

One family member could not sue another in tort for personal injury
- abolished in most states
- children generally cannot sue their parents for their exercise of parental supervision

124
Q

What are governmental immunities?

A

Governments immune from discretionary acts (acts involving considerations of political/economic policy)
- Govs generally have waived their sovereign immunity from suit for ministerial acts (operational level, no exercise of judgment)

125
Q

What are harms to economic and dignitary interests?

A
  • Defamation
  • Invasion of privacy
  • Misrepresentation
  • Interference with business relations
  • Malicious prosecution
126
Q

What relationships may give rise to vicarious liability?

A
  • Employer-employee
  • Principal-independent contractor
  • Auto owner-driver
  • Parent-child
127
Q

What is the prima facie case for defamation?

A

(1) Defamatory Language
(2) Concerning the Plaintiff
(3) Published to third person
(4) that causes Damage to plaintiff’s Reputation
(5) Falsity of the statement, and
(6) Fault by defendant
- Libel is spoken
- Slander is written

128
Q

When is damaged presumed in defamation?

A

If damage is libel or slander within a per se category (business/profession, loathsome disease, crime of moral turpitude, sexual misconduct)

129
Q

What damages are required for defamation?

A

Special (pecuniary) damages

130
Q

When do/what constitutional requirements for fault apply?

A
  • If P is public official/figure - P must prove statement was false, and actual malice (with knowledge of its falsity/reckless disregard of truth/falsity)
  • If defamation involves matter of public concern - P must prove (1) statement was false, (2) at least negligence as to truth/falsity, and (3) actual injury (no presumed damages)
131
Q

Defenses to defamation

A
  • Truth (when P not obligated to prove falsity)
  • Absolute privilege (for statements in judicial/legislative/executive proceedings)
  • Qualified privilege (for matters in interest of publisher/recipient; may be lost if statement outside scope of privilege/made with actual malice)
132
Q

What relationships may give rise to vicarious liability?

A
  • Employer-employee
  • Principal-independent contractor
  • Auto owner-driver
  • Parent-child
133
Q

Types of invasion of privacy

A
  • Appropriation/unauthorized use of P’s picture/name for D’s commercial advantage
  • Prying/intruding on P’s private affairs/seclusion that would be highly offensive to RP
  • Publication of facts placing P in false light in public eye in way highly offensive to RP (+ actual malice if publication in public interest)
  • Public disclosure (rising to publicity) of private facts about P so as to be highly offensive to RP
134
Q

Defenses to invasion of privacy

A
  • Consent
  • Absolute privilege
  • Qualified privilege
135
Q

What is intentional misrepresentation?

A

Misrepresentation by D with scienter (knowledge of falsity/reckless disregard as to truth/falsity) + intent to induce reliance, causation (actual reliance), justifiable reliance, and damages
- D has no duty to disclose material facts but may be liable for active concealment

136
Q

What is negligent misrepresentation?

A

Misrepresentation by D in business/professional capacity + breach of duty to plaintiff + causation (actual reliance on misrep), justifiable reliance, and damages
- D owes duty only to those to whom misrepresentation was directed/those who D knew would rely on it

137
Q

What is misrepresentation?

A
138
Q

What is justifiable reliance?

A
139
Q

What constitutes interference with business relations?

A

(1) Valid contractual relationship/business expectancy of P and third party
(2) D’s knowledge of relationship
(3) Intentional interference by D
(4) Inducing breach/termination of relationship, and
(5) Damages
- D’s conduct may be privileged if proper attempt to obtain business/protect D’s interests

140
Q

What is malicious prosecution?

A

(1) Initiating a criminal proceeding against P ending in P’s favor
(2) Absence of probable cause for prosecution
(3) Improper purpose, and
(4) damages

141
Q

What relationships may give rise to vicarious liability?

A
  • Employer-employee
  • Principal-independent contractor
  • Auto owner-driver
  • Parent-child
142
Q

What is misrepresentation?

A
143
Q

What is justifiable reliance?

A
144
Q

When are punitive damages available?

A

If D’s conduct is wanton and willful, reckless, or malicious

145
Q

Does a plaintiff have a duty to mitigate damages in negligence cases?

A

Yes

146
Q

What is the collateral source rule?

A

Damages not reduced just because P received benefits from other sources (i.e. health insurance)

147
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Q

Is strict liability available to trespassers?

A