Torts I Flashcards

1
Q

Intent

A

A person acts with intent to produce a consequence if

  • (a) the person acts with the purpose or desire of producing that consequence; or
  • (b) the person acts knowing with substantial certainty that the consequence will result.
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2
Q

Transferred Intent

A

The transferred intent doctrine applies where the defendant intends to commit a tort against one person but instead:

  • (a) commits a different tort against that person,
  • (b) commits the same tort as intended but against a different person, or
  • (c) commits a different tort against a different person.

Transferred intent is applicable to: (1) battery, (2) assault, (3) false imprisonment, (4) trespass to land, and (5) trespass to chattels.

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3
Q

Battery

A

An actor is subject to liability to another for battery if:

  • (1) he acts intending to cause a harmful or offensive contact with the person of other and
  • (2) a harmful contact with the person of other directly or indirectly results.

Contact is harmful if it causes actual injury, pain, or disfigurement.

Contact is offensive if it would offend a reasonable sense of personal dignity.

Single Intent (minority view) → The actor only needs the intent to make contact.

Dual Intent (majority view) → The actor needs the intent (1) make contact and (2) to harm or offend through the contact.

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4
Q

Assault

A

An assault is an unlawful incomplete attempt to commit a battery, or to touch another in a rude or angry manner. To fit the definition of an assault:

  • (1) the assailant must have the intent to cause an apprehension of imminent harmful or offensive contact;
  • (2) the circumstances must create an apprehension of imminent battery in the mind of the victim and that apprehension must be reasonable or well-founded; and
  • (3) the assailant must have an apparent present ability to commit the battery.
    • The assailant does not need to have an actual present ability to commit a battery, the situation only needs to be so that the victim can reasonably apprehend, or anticipate, the battery.
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5
Q

False Imprisonment

A

An actor is subject to liability to another for false imprisonment if, without a legal justification for doing so:

  • (1) he acts intending to confine the other or a third person within boundaries fixed by the actor,
  • (2) his act directly or indirectly results in such a confinement of the other, and
  • (3) the other is conscious of the confinement or is harmed by it.

What Constitutes Confinement(1) To make the actor liable for false imprisonment, the other’s confinement within the boundaries fixed by the actor must be complete. (2) The confinement is complete although there is a reasonable means of escape, unless the other knows of it. (3) The actor does not become liable for false imprisonment by intentionally preventing another from going in a particular direction in which he has a right or privilege to go.

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6
Q

Intentional Infliction of Emotional Distress

A

Four elements must be met to impose liability:

  • (1) the conduct must be intentional or reckless;
  • (2) the conduct must be extreme and outrageous;
  • (3) there must be a causal connection between the wrongful conduct and the emotional distress; and
  • (4) the emotional distress must be severe.

To be reckless, the defendant must act with high probability that emotional distress will result.

To be extreme and outrageous, conduct must be regarded as atrocious and utterly intolerable in a civilized society.

To be severe, the distress must be a severely disablingemotional response.

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7
Q

Trespass to Land

A

One is subject to liability to another for trespass if he, without the privilege to do so, intentionally:

  • (a) enters land in possession of the other, or causes a thing or a third person to do so,
  • (b) remains on the land after consent is terminated, or
  • (c) fails to remove from the land a thing which he is under a duty to remove after consent has been terminated.

Damage Not Required → As with most other intentional torts, damage is presumed; i.e., actual injury to the land is not an essential element of the cause of action.

Intrusions Under Mistake → Mistake as to the lawfulness of the entry is no defense as long as defendant intended the entry upon that particular piece of land. Intent to trespass is not required—intent to enter onto the land is sufficient.

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8
Q

Trespass to Chattels

A

Ways to Commit a Trespass → A trespass to chattel may be committed by intentionally:

  • (a) dispossessing another of the chattel, or
  • (b) interfering with a chattel in the possession of another.

Liability → One who commits a trespass to chattel is subject to liability to the possessor of the chattel if, but only if:

  • (a) he dispossesses the other of the chattel,
  • (b) the chattel is impaired as to its condition, quality, or value,
  • (c) the possessor is deprived of the use of the chattel for a substantial time, or
  • (d) bodily harm is caused to the possessor, or harm is caused to some person or thing in which the possessor has a legally protected interest.
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9
Q

Conversion

A

Conversion is an intentional exercise of dominion or control over a chattel which so seriously interferes with the right of another to control it that the actor may justly be required to pay the other the full value of the chattel. In determining the seriousness of the interference and the justice of requiring the actor to pay the full value, the following factors are important:

  • (1) the extent and duration of the actor’s exercise of dominion or control;
  • (2) the actor’s intent to assert a right in fact inconsistent with the other’s right of control;
  • (3) the actor’s good faith;
  • (4) the extent and duration of the resulting interference with the other’s right of control;
  • (5) the harm done to the chattel; and
  • (6) the inconvenience and expense caused to the other.
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10
Q

Express Consent

A

Express (actual) consent exists where the plaintiff has expressly shown a willingness to submit to defendant’s conduct. Consent cannot be obtained through fraud, duress, or coercion.

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11
Q

Apparent Consent

A

Apparent consent is that which a reasonable person would infer from plaintiff’s conduct. Thus, for example, somebody who voluntarily engages in a body contact sport impliedly consents to the normal contacts inherent in playing it. Such consent may also be inferred as a matter of usage or custom. Thus, for example, a person is presumed to consent to the ordinary contacts of daily life, e.g., minor bumping in a crowd.

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12
Q

Consent Implied By Law

A

In some situations, consent may be implied by law where action is necessary to save a person’s life or some other important interest in person or property. Thus, for example, consent will be implied in an emergency situation. This can happen in two ways:

  • (i) Extension doctrine → If, in the course of an operation which the patient consented, the physician should discover conditions not anticipated before the operation was commenced, and which, if not removed, would endanger the life or health of the patient, he would be justified in extending the operation to remove and overcome them.
  • (ii) Emergency doctrine → Medical care providers may act in the absence of express consent if:
    • (1) the patient is unable to give consent (unconscious, intoxicated, mentally ill);
    • (2) there is a risk of serious bodily harm if treatment is delayed;
    • (3) a reasonable person would consent to treatment under the circumstances; and
    • (4) the physician has no reason to believe this patient would refuse treatment under the circumstances.
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13
Q

Self-Defense

A

When a person has reasonable grounds to believe that he is being or is about to be attacked, he may use such force as is reasonably necessary for protection against the potential injury.

  • (1) Reasonable Belief → The actor need only have a reasonable belief as to the other party’s actions. A reasonable mistake as to the existence of the danger will not preclude a finding of self-defense.
  • (2) Retaliation Not Allowed → Self-defense is limited to the right to use force to prevent the commission of a tort. Thus, one may never use force in retaliation (where there is no longer any threat of injury).
  • (3) Retreat Not Necessary → A substantial majority of the courts hold that one need not attempt to escape, but may stand his ground (and even use deadly force when necessary to prevent death or serious bodily harm to himself). A growing modern trend would impose a duty to retreat before using deadly force where this can be done safely unless the actor is in his own home.
  • (4) Defense Not Available to Aggressor → The initial aggressor is not privileged to defend himself against the other party’s reasonable use of force in self-defense. However, if the other uses deadly force against an aggressor who had only used non-deadly force, the aggressor may defend himself with deadly force.

Extent of Force → One may only use force that reasonably appears to be necessary to prevent the harm. One may not use force likely to cause death or serious bodily injury unless he reasonably believes that he is in danger of serious bodily injury. If more force than necessary is used, the actor loses the privilege of self-defense.

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14
Q

Defense of Others

A

The actor need only have a reasonable belief that the person being aided would have the right of self-defense. Thus, even if the person aided has no privilege or was the initial aggressor, his defender is not liable as long as he reasonably believed that the person aided could have used force to protect himself.

Extent of Force → The defender, assuming he is justified, may use as much force as he could have used in self-defense if the injury were threatened to him.

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15
Q

Defense of Property

A

Generally, one may use reasonable force to prevent the commission of a tort against her property.

  • (1) Request to Desist Usually Required → A request to desist must precede the use of force, unless the circumstances make it clear that the request would be futile or dangerous.
  • (2) Effect of Mistake → Reasonable mistake is allowed as to the property owner’s right to use force in defense of property. However, mistake is not allowed where the entrant has a privilege to enter the property that supersedes the defense of property right. In such a case the property owner is liable for mistakenly using force against a privileged entrant unless the entrant himself intentionally or negligently caused the mistake (e.g., by refusing to tell the property owner the reason for the intrusion).
  • (3) Limited to Preventing Commission of Tort → Defense of property is limited to preventing the commission of a tort against the defendant’s property. Thus, once the defendant has been permanently dispossessed of the property and the commission of the tort is complete, she may not use force to recapture it. However, where one is in “fresh pursuit” of someone who wrongfully dispossessed her of her property, the defense still operates because the other is viewed as still in the process of committing the tort against the property.
  • (4) Superseded by Other Privileges → Whenever an actor has a privilege to enter upon the land of another because of necessity, right of reentry, right to enter upon another’s land to recapture chattels, etc., that privilege supersedes the privilege of the land possessor to defend her property.

Extent of Force → One may use reasonable force to defend property. However, she may not use force that will cause death or serious bodily harm, unless the invasion of property also entails a threat of serious bodily harm to the owner. Further, one may not use indirect deadly force such as a trap, spring gun, or vicious dog when such force could not lawfully be directly used.

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16
Q

Recovery of Property

A

Force may be used to recapture a chattel only when in “fresh pursuit” of one who has obtained possession wrongfully. Fresh pursuit is limited to prompt discovery of dispossession, and prompt and persistent efforts to recover the chattel. Any undue lapse of time during which the pursuit had not been commenced, or has come to a halt, will mean that the owner is no longer privileged to fight himself back into possession, but must resort to the law. The following factors must be met:

  • (1) There must first be a demand for the return of the property.
  • (2) Force used must be reasonable under the circumstances. Deadly force may only be used if there is a threat of serious bodily injury.
  • (3) The wrongdoer obtained the property by force or fraud.

Effect of Mistake → Actors taking means to recover property do not have the benefit of a reasonable mistake when possession is lost. The benefit of a reasonable mistake is only given when protecting property that is currently in the actor’s possession.

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17
Q

Necessity

A

A person may interfere with the real or personal property of another where the interference is reasonably and apparently necessary to avoid threatened injury from a natural or other force and where the threatened injury is substantially more serious than the invasion that is undertaken to avert it. There are two forms:

  • (1) Public Necessity → Where the act is to benefit the public good (e.g., shooting a rabid dog), the defense is absolute.
  • (2) Private Necessity → Where the act is solely to benefit a limited number of people (e.g., the actor ties up his boat to another’s dock in a storm), the defense is incomplete; i.e., the actor must pay for any injury he causes. Exception: The defense is absolute if the act is to benefit the owner of the land.

Possessor May Not Resist → The possessor of the land is not entitled to resist entry. If the possessor uses force to resist the privileged entry, the actor may use reasonable force to resist ejection so long as the necessity continues to exist.

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18
Q

Justification

A

Justification is a defense to an allegation of wrongful conduct that the act or omission, though admittedly committed, was not wrongful in consideration of the circumstances.

Restraint → Generally, restraint or detention, reasonable under the circumstances and in time and manner, imposed for the purpose of preventing another from inflicting personal injuries or interfering with or damaging real or personal property in one’s lawful possession or custody is not unlawful.

Discipline → A parent, guardian, or teacher entrusted with the care or supervision of a child may use physical force reasonably necessary to maintain discipline or promote the welfare of the child.

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19
Q

Unforeseeable Plaintiff Problem

A

Generally, a duty of care is owed only to foreseeable plaintiffs.

The “unforeseeable” plaintiff problem arises when defendant breaches a duty to one plaintiff (P1) and also causes injury thereby to a second plaintiff (P2) to whom a foreseeable risk of injury might or might not have been created at the time of the original negligent act. Defendant’s liability to P2 will depend upon whether the Andrews or Cardozo view in Palsgraf is adopted.

  • (a) Andrews View → The second plaintiff (P2) may establish the existence of a duty extending from the defendant to her by showing that the defendant has breached a duty he owed P1. In short, defendant owes a duty of care to anyone who suffers injuries as a proximate result of his breach of duty to someone else.
  • (b) Cardozo View → The second plaintiff (P2) can recover only if she can establish that a reasonable person would have foreseen a risk of injury to her in the circumstances, i.e., that she was located in a foreseeable “zone of danger.”

Duty to Rescuers → A rescuer is a foreseeable plaintiff as long as the rescue is not reckless; hence, defendant is liable if he negligently puts himself or a third person in peril and plaintiff is injured in attempting a rescue. Note, however, that the “firefighter’s rule” may bar firefighters and police officers, on public policy or assumption of risk grounds, from recovering for injuries caused by the risks of a rescue.

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20
Q

Basic Standard of Care

A

Defendant’s conduct is measured against the reasonably prudent person. Defendant is deemed to have knowledge of things known by the average member of the community. The individual shortcomings of the particular defendant are not considered. On the other hand, a defendant with knowledge superior to that of the average person is required to use that knowledge.

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21
Q

Professional Standard of Care

A

If an actor is a professional or has skills or knowledge that exceed those possessed by most others, the actor is required to possess and exercise the knowledge and skill of a member of the profession or occupation in good standing in similar communities.

  • The minority of jurisdictions following a modern trend have gone further and adopted a “national standard,” especially for medical specialists who are certified by a national board within their specialty areas.
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22
Q

Duty to Disclose Risks of Treatment (Informed Consent)

A

In a medical malpractice action, a patient suing under the theory of informed consent must allege and prove:

  • (1) defendant physician failed to inform him adequately of a material risk before securing his consent to the proposed treatment;
  • (2) if he had been informed of the risks he would not have consented to the treatment; and
  • (3) the adverse consequences that were not made known did in fact occur and he was injured as a result of submitting to the treatment.

As a defense, a physician may plead and prove (a) plaintiff knew of the risks, (b) full disclosure would be detrimental to the patient’s best interests, or (c) that an emergency existed requiring prompt treatment and patient was in no condition to decide for himself (Emergency Doctrine).

The materiality of the risk is determined by the patient:

  • The majority of jurisdictions follow the objective standard of a “reasonable patient.”
  • The minority of jurisdictions follow the subjective standard of the patient in question.
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23
Q

Children Standard of Care

A

(a) A child’s conduct is negligent if it does not conform to that of a reasonably careful person of the same age, intelligence, and experience.

(b) A child less than five years of age is incapable of negligence.

(c) The special rule in subsection (a) does not apply when the child is engaging in a dangerous activity that is characteristically undertaken by adults.

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24
Q

Disability Standard of Care

A

(a) The conduct of an actor with a physical disability is negligent only if the conduct does not conform to that of a reasonably careful person with the same disability.

(b) The conduct of an actor during a period of sudden incapacitation or loss of consciousness resulting from physical illness is negligent only if the sudden incapacitation or loss of consciousness was reasonably foreseeable to the actor.

(c) An actor’s mental or emotional disability is not considered in determining whether conduct is negligent, unless the actor is a child.

25
Q

Emergency Standard of Care

A

If an actor is confronted with an unexpected emergency requiring rapid response, this is a circumstance to be taken into account in determining whether the actor’s resulting conduct is that of the reasonably prudent person.

26
Q

Applicability of Statute (Duty)

A

Violation of a criminal statute may act as a substitute for the “reasonably prudent person” standard of care, in the sense that a reasonably prudent person would comply with the statute. In determining whether the statute applies, the court must determine each of the following:

  • (1) The plaintiff is a member of the class the legislature intended to protect.
  • (2) The hazard that caused the injury was one the legislature intended to protect against.
  • (3) Whether it is appropriate to impose tort liability for violations of the statute. This is done at the discretion of the judge, and includes determining the following:
    • (a) Whether the statute clearly defines the prohibited or required conduct.
    • (b) Whether applying it would create liability without fault.
    • (c) Whether it would impose ruinous liability disproportionate to the seriousness of the defendant’s conduct.
27
Q

Hand Test (Breach)

A

If the probability of harm is P; the resulting injury is L; and the burden of adequate precautions is B, liability will depend on whether B is less than P multiplied by L (B). So long as the costs of avoiding an injury are less than the costs of the injury, the failure to take the precaution that would avoid the injury is negligence, for the reasonably prudent person will spend the money necessary to avoid the injury.

28
Q

Custom (Breach)

A

An actor’s compliance with the custom of the community is evidence that the actor’s conduct is not negligent, but does not preclude a finding of negligence. Likewise, an actor’s departure from the custom of the community in a way that increases risk is evidence of negligence, but does not require a finding of negligence.

29
Q

Violation of Statute (Breach)

A

There are three different effects that a violation of statute has:

  • (1) The majority of courts take the position that when a statute applies to the facts, an unexcused violation is negligence per se, which must be declared by the court and not left to the jury. A violation of statute is excused and not negligence if:
    • (a) the violation is reasonable in light of the actor’s childhood, physical disability, or physical incapacitation;
    • (b) the actor exercises reasonable care in attempting to comply with the statute;
    • (c) the actor neither knows nor should know of the factual circumstances that render the statute applicable;
    • (d) the actor’s violation of the statute is due to the confusing way in which the requirements of the statute are presented to the public; or
    • (e) the actor’s compliance with the statute would involve a greater risk of physical harm to the actor or to others than noncompliance.
  • (2) A few states treat violation of a statute as giving rise to a presumption of negligence, which becomes negligence as a matter of law unless the presumption is rebutted. Since it usually can be rebutted only by showing an excuse for the violation, this appears to come out at the same place as the negligence per se rule.
  • (3) A minority of states hold that the violation is only evidence of negligence, which the jury may accept or reject as it sees fit.
30
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitur (Requirements)

A

RIL requires the plaintiff to show the following:

  • (1) Plaintiff must establish that the accident causing his injury is the type that would not normally occur unless someone was negligent.
  • (2) Plaintiff must establish evidence that this type of accident ordinarily happens because of the negligence of someone in defendant’s position.
  • (3) Plaintiff must also establish that the injury was not attributable to him, but may do so by his own testimony.
31
Q

Res Ipsa Loquitur (Effects)

A

A plaintiff’s claim for RIL has three different effects, depending on the jurisdiction of the court:

  • (1) It warrants an inference of negligence which the jury may draw or may not, as their judgement dictates. This is the majority view, which places the burden of proof on the plaintiff.
  • (2) It raises a presumption of negligence which requires the jury to find negligence if defendant does not produce sufficient evidence to rebut the presumption. Burden of proof is on the plaintiff.
  • (3) It not only raises such a presumption but also shifts the ultimate burden of proof to defendant and requires him to prove by a preponderance of all the evidence that the injury was not caused by his negligence.
32
Q

But-For Test (Actual Cause)

A

An act or omission to act is the cause in fact of an injury when the injury would not have occurred but for the act.

The “but for” test may apply where several acts combine to cause the injury, but none of the acts standing alone would have been sufficient (e.g., two negligently driven cars collide, injuring a passenger). But for any of the acts, the injury would not have occurred.

33
Q

Substantial Factor Test (Concurrent Causes)

A

Where several concurrent causes commingle and bring about an injury—and any one alone would have been sufficient to cause the injury—it is sufficient if defendant’s conduct was a “substantial factor” in causing the injury.

34
Q

Alternative Causes Approach (Actual Cause)

A

A problem of causation exists where two or more persons have been negligent, but uncertainty exists as to which one caused plaintiff’s injury. Under the alternative causes approach, plaintiff must prove that harm has been caused to him by one of them (with uncertainty as to which one). The burden of proof then shifts to defendants, and each must show that his negligence is not the actual cause.

35
Q

Proximate Cause

A

Generally, an actor’s liability is limited to those harms that result from the risks that made the actor’s conduct tortious.

In other words, if one of the reasons that make defendant’s act negligent is a greater risk of a particular harmful result occurring, and that harmful result does occur, defendant generally is liable. This test is based on foreseeability.

36
Q

“Thin-Skull” Doctrine (Proximate Cause)

A

When an actor’s tortious conduct causes harm to a person that, because of a preexisting physical or mental condition or other characteristics of the person, is of greater magnitude or different type than might be reasonably expected, the actor is nevertheless subject to liability for all such harm to the person.

In other words, the defendant takes the plaintiff as is, and is liable for all harm that results from the negligence, even if it was caused by an unforeseeable preexisting condition.

37
Q

Intervening Acts v. Superseding Causes

A

Whether an intervening force will cut off defendant’s liability for plaintiff’s injury is determined by foreseeability. For an intervening act to become a superseding cause, it must be highly extraordinary, breaking the chain of causation. If it is reasonably foreseeable, it is an intervening act and the defendant will still be liable. This is measured by the reaction expected by normal persons. The way in which the harm occurs is irrelevant to the act; it is only the foreseeability of the type of risk that is taken into account.

38
Q

Rescuers (Intervening v. Superseding)

A

Generally, rescuers are viewed as foreseeable intervening forces, and so the original tortfeasor usually is liable for their negligence if it causes harm to a rescuer.

39
Q

Enhanced Harm From Medical Aid (Intervening v. Superseding)

A

The original tortfeasor is usually liable for the aggravation of plaintiff’s condition caused by the malpractice of plaintiff’s treating physician.

40
Q

Subsequent Accident (Intervening v. Superseding)

A

Where the plaintiff suffers a subsequent injury following her original injury, and the original injury was a substantial factor in causing the second accident, the original tortfeasor is usually liable for damages arising from the second accident.

41
Q

Criminal Acts of Third Person (Intervening v. Superseding)

A

If defendant’s negligence created a foreseeable risk that a third person would commit a crime or intentional tort, defendant’s liability will not be cut off by the crime or tort.

42
Q

Suicide (Intervening v. Superseding)

A

When tortious conduct by the defendant causes the plaintiff to commit suicide, the defendant will only be liable if the suicide was the result of a sudden, “irresistible impulse,” within the chain of causation. If there is any evidence of deliberateness by the plaintiff to commit suicide, it will be a superseding cause and cut off liability.

43
Q

Contributory Negligence

A

Contributory negligence is an affirmative defense to negligence that the plaintiff’s failure to comply with the standard of care was the cause of his own injury. This makes the plaintiff’s conduct a superseding cause. The standard of care required is the same as that for ordinary negligence cases. It cannot be used as a defense to intentional torts.

At common law, plaintiff’s contributory negligence completely barred his right to recover. This was so even though the degree of defendant’s negligence was much greater than that of plaintiff.

44
Q

Last Clear Chance

A

Permits the plaintiff to recover despite his own contributory negligence. Under this rule, the person with the last clear chance to avoid an accident who fails to do so is liable for negligence. In effect, last clear chance is plaintiff’s rebuttal against the defense of contributory negligence. Many cases distinguish between “helpless” and “inattentive” peril situations in applying last clear chance rules.

  • Helpless Plaintiff → Helpless peril exists where plaintiff, through his contributory negligence, puts himself in a position of actual peril from which he cannot extricate himself. In many states, defendant is liable under these circumstances if she had either actual knowledge of plaintiff’s predicament or if she should have known of plaintiff’s predicament.
  • Inattentive Plaintiff → Inattentive peril exists where plaintiff, through his own negligence, is in a position of actual peril from which he could extricate himself if he were attentive. Almost all courts require actual knowledge of plaintiff’s predicament on defendant’s part.
45
Q

Comparative Negligence

A

The vast majority of states now permit a contributorily negligent plaintiff to recover a percentage of his damages under some type of comparative negligence system. In every case where contributory negligence is shown, the trier of fact weighs plaintiff’s negligence against that of defendant and reduces plaintiff’s damages accordingly. States follow one of three kinds of comparative negligence:

  • Pure Comparative Negligence → Plaintiff can recover for the percentage of damages for which he was not at fault. If the trier of fact determines that plaintiff was 90% at fault, he can recover 10% of the damages. This is the minority rule.
  • Modified Comparative Negligence → The majority of comparative negligence jurisdictions will bar the plaintiff’s recovery if his negligence passes a threshold level. Depending on the jurisdiction, this will be applied in two different ways:
    • 49% Rule → Plaintiff may only recover if his negligence was less than defendant’s negligence.
    • 50% Rule → Plaintiff may only recover if his negligence was not greater than defendant’s negligence.
46
Q

Express Assumption of the Risk

A

The risk may be assumed by express agreement. Such exculpatory clauses in a contract, intended to insulate one of the parties from liability resulting from his own negligence, are closely scrutinized but are generally enforceable. There are two basic issues involved when defendant asserts that plaintiff expressly assumed the risk:

  • (1) Was the injury within the unambiguous terms of the agreement? There are no “magic words” required. Use of the word “negligence” is not necessary if language is otherwise clear and unequivocal.
  • (2) Does the agreement violate public policy? Three exceptions have been identified where the public interest will render an exculpatory clause unenforceable:
    • (1) when the party protected by the clause intentionally causes harm or engages in acts of reckless, wanton, or gross negligence;
    • (2) when the bargaining power of one party to the contract is so grossly unequal so as to put that party at the mercy of the other’s negligence; and
    • (3) when the transaction is “patently offensive” to the public interest.
      • This may occur when the defendant provides an essential service. For example, the overwhelming majority of jurisdictions have found that exculpatory agreements for medical treatment are invalid.
47
Q

Implied Assumption of the Risk

A

Implied assumption of the risk requires three factors to be met:

  • (1) plaintiff must have subjective knowledge of the risk;
  • (2) plaintiff must have an appreciation of the magnitude of the risk; and
  • (3) plaintiff must voluntarily encounter the risk.
    • The act will not be voluntary if the defendant left the plaintiff no other choice but to encounter the risk.

Types of implied assumption of the risk:

  • (A) Primary → Occurs when the defendant is not negligent, either because he owed no duty to the defendant or because he did not breach a duty owed.
  • (B) Secondary → Affirmative defense to an established breach of duty owed by the defendant to the plaintiff. This defense can be further divided into strict and qualified assumption of the risk.
    • (a) Strict → Involves conduct which is reasonable, but nonetheless bars recovery.
    • (b) Qualified → Conduct that is unreasonable and bars recovery. Such conduct can just as easily be characterized as contributory negligence.
48
Q

Discovery Doctrine (Statute of Limitations)

A

The statute of limitations begins to run when a person gains sufficient knowledge of facts that would put a reasonable person on notice of the existence of a problem or potential problem such that he would inquire further about it.

49
Q

Interspousal Immunity

A

Most states have abolished interspousal immunity. Those that have kept it have limited it and allow tort suit for situations where there is no reason for immunity:

  • (a) After divorce or marital dissolution, spouses are permitted a claim for torts that occurred prior to and, in some jurisdictions, during the marriage.
  • (b) When the tort occurred prior to the marriage, some states allow the claim.
  • (c) When the tort is an intentional one such as battery, assault, or false imprisonment, most states allow the claim.
50
Q

Parental Immunity

A

A slight majority of states have abolished parent-child immunity; however, these states generally grant parents broad discretion in the parent’s exercise of parental authority or supervision. Some states retain the immunity unless the parent has violated a “reasonable parent” standard. Some states retain parent-child immunity but do not apply it in the following cases:

  • (a) When the action is for personal injury inflicted intentionally, or is willful or wanton.
  • (b) When the relationship has been terminated before suit by the death of the parent or child or both.
  • (c) When the child has been legally emancipated.
  • (d) When the defendant is a stepparent who has not adopted the child.
    • For a stepparent to retain immunity, the stepparent must be in loco parentis to the child.
  • (e) Many jurisdictions have abolished the immunity in the context of automobile accident cases, where the relationship is coincidental to the conduct.
51
Q

Discretionary v. Ministerial Acts (Governmental Immunity)

A

The immunity is not waived for acts characterized as “discretionary,” as distinguished from those acts termed “ministerial.” In general, discretionary activity is that which takes place at the planning or decision making level, while ministerial acts are performed at the operational level of government (e.g., repairing traffic signals, driving a vehicle).

Actions by a government employee may be deemed discretional if: (i) there was an element of discretion or judgement and (ii) the judgement is of the kind the exception was designed to shield. This is true if it accomplishes social, economic, or political goals.

52
Q

Joint and Several Liability Situations

A

There are three types of factual situations in which joint and several liability is usually imposed:

  • (1) When the tortfeasors acted in concert. A tortfeasor may be liable for encouraging or inciting the assailant. Tortfeasors will be deemed to have acted in concert if they acted within the common scope of design.
  • (2) When defendants fail to perform a common duty to the plaintiff. This may include cases where the tortfeasors may be liable based on their relationship to each other (employer/employee, master/servant, etc.)
  • (3) Defendants who acted independently to cause an indivisible harm.
53
Q

Release (Joint and Several Liability)

A

At common law, a release of one joint tortfeasor released all tortfeasors from liability. This rule has been changed by decision or statute in most states:

  • (a) Some states distinguish between a release and a covenant not to sue, and hold that the release necessarily releases other tortfeasors, but the covenant does not unless the full compensation has been paid.
  • (b) Some states hold that a release with express reservation of rights against other tortfeasors is to be treated as a covenant not to sue, regardless of the words of the release.
  • (c) Some states hold that even a release without such a reservation does not release other tortfeasors unless it shows an intention to do so or full compensation has been paid.
  • (d) Statutes in some states have provided that a release with an express reservation of rights against other tortfeasors does not release them.
54
Q

Contribution (Joint and Several Liability)

A

The rule of contribution, adopted in some form in most states, allows any tortfeasor required to pay more than his share of damages to have a claim against the other jointly liable parties for the excess. Thus, contribution is a device whereby responsibility is apportioned among those who are at fault. At common law, there could be no contribution among joint tortfeasors.

  • (a) Comparative Contribution (Comparative Fault)Most states have a comparative contribution system, whereby contribution is imposed in proportion to the relative fault of the various tortfeasors.
  • (b) Equal Shares (Common Law) → A minority of states require all tortfeasors to pay equal shares regardless of their respective degrees of fault.
55
Q

Indemnity (Joint and Several Liability)

A

Indemnity involves shifting the entire loss between or among tortfeasors, in contrast to apportioning it as in contribution. Indemnity is available in the following circumstances: by contract, vicarious liability, strict products liability, and when there is a difference in the degree of fault.

56
Q

Privity of Contract (Duty)

A

Nonfeasance (No Duty) → In general, when there is only the promise and the breach, only the contract action will lie, and no tort action can be maintained.

Misfeasance (Duty) → When the defendant mis performs the contract, the possibility of recovery in tort is greatly augmented.

Election and Gravamen → In many cases it is possible to maintain an action in either tort or contract. When this is true, courts have proceeded along two different lines:

  • (a) One is to permit the plaintiff to choose the theory of his action and dispose of the particular question accordingly.
  • (b) Some courts will not give plaintiff such latitude. Rather, the court will determine the gravamen or gist of the action on which plaintiff’s claim rests.
57
Q

Assumption of Duty (Failure to Act)

A

One who gratuitously acts for the benefit of another, although under no duty to do so in the first instance, is then under a duty to act like an ordinary, prudent, reasonable person and continue the assistance.

Example: Defendant, under no duty to aid Plaintiff who has been injured, picks her up and carries her into a room. He then leaves her there unattended for seven hours and Plaintiff’s condition is worsened. Defendant, having acted, may be considered to have breached his duty to act reasonably.

58
Q

Special Relationship (Failure to Act)

A

An actor in a special relationship with another owes the other a duty of reasonable care with regard to risks that arise within the scope of the relationship. Special relationships within this scope may include an innkeeper with its guests, a carrier with its passengers, a school with its students, a landlord with its tenant, or an employer with its employee. An employer may not have a duty, however, when the employee is injured outside the workplace.

59
Q

Duty to Prevent Harm from Third Persons

A

Generally, there is no duty to prevent a third person from injuring another. In some situations, however, such an affirmative duty might be imposed. In such cases, it must appear that the defendant had the actual ability and authority to control the third person’s action. It is generally required for imposition of such a duty that the defendant knows or should know that the third person is likely to commit such acts as would require the exercise of control by the defendant.