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Army Basic Leader Course (BLC) COPY > Training Exam Review > Flashcards

Training Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is a hazard?

A

A condition with the potential to cause:

  • illness, injury, or death to people
  • damage or loss of equipment or property
  • mission degregation
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2
Q

How do we identify hazards?

A

By considering METT-TC

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3
Q

What is residual risk?

A

Remaining risk after selecting controls for a particular hazard

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4
Q

What are the principles for implanting risk management?

A
  • Integrate CRM into all phases of mission planning
  • Manage risk at the appropriate level
  • Accept no unnecessary risk
  • Apply CRM cyclically and continuously
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5
Q

What is an AAR?

A

a discussion of events that allows soldiers and units to discover what happened and why

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6
Q

What are the steps of an AAR?

A

Plan
Prepare
Conduct
Follow-up

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7
Q

Within the preparation stage, what techniques are used to organize an AAR?

A

Present the chronological order of events, tie in war fighting functions, or develop key events/themes

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8
Q

What is the main benefit of an AAR?

A

provide leaders a critical assessment tool to plan Soldier, leader, and unit training

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9
Q

Which Army principle of unit training talks about mastery?

A

Train to standard

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10
Q

Which Army Principle of unit training talks about stewardship?

A

Train to maintain

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11
Q

Which Army principle leader development talks about leader attributes and competencies?

A

Lead by example

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12
Q

Which Army principle of leader development talks about change being inevitable?

A

Train to develop adaptive leaders

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13
Q

What training domain includes the centers of excellence and schools?

A

Institutional training domain

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14
Q

What training domain equates to assignments in the Army and generating force?

A

Operational training domain

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15
Q

What training domain equates to Soldiers filling in their skills, knowledge, and behavior gaps?

A

Self-development training domain

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16
Q

What type of unit training provides the full range of experiences needed to produce agile, adaptive leaders and Soldiers, and versatile units?

A

Collective training

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17
Q

Which principle of unit training discusses mission variables?

A

Understand the operational environment

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18
Q

Which principle of unit training discusses leaders incorporating comprehensive fitness programs into unit training and leader development?

A

Train to sustain

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19
Q

Which principle of unit training discusses change is inevitable in any operational environment?

A

Train as develop adaptability

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20
Q

Which principle of unit training discusses leaders employing critical thinking to develop sound, creative solutions rapidly?

A

Train as you fight

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21
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses leaders as role models?

A

Lead by example

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22
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses creativity in subordinates?

A

Train in the art and science of mission command

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23
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses recognizing high performers?

A

Develop subordinate leaders

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24
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses leaders sustaining sound relationships?

A

Train your leaders to know their subordinates and families

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25
Q

Which principle of leader development discusses leaders allows for an honest mistake?

A

Create a learning environment for subordinate leaders

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26
Q

What measures individual /crew/team technical proficiency?

A

Certification.

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27
Q

Which step of the operations process in unit training and leader development discusses recovery?

A

Execute.

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28
Q

What provides a mechanism for leaders and Soldiers to visualize what is supposed to happen?

A

Rehearsal.

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29
Q

What ensures training resources are used properly?

A

Efficient training.

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30
Q

Which type of evaluation takes place when leaders conduct training?

A

Informal Evaluation

31
Q

What is referred to as a clearly defined and measurable activity accomplished by individuals and organizations?

A

Task number and titled.

32
Q

What is referred to the circumstances and environment a task is to be performed?

A

Conditions.

33
Q

What is referred to the minimum acceptable proficiency required to perform the task under the specified conditions?

A

Standards.

34
Q

The conduct of Army PRT uses overarching principles as a guide. What are these overarching principles of PRT?

A

Precision, progression, and integration

35
Q

The PRT System incorporates the three components of training. What are the components?

A

Strength, endurance, and mobility

36
Q

The PRT System incorporates the three types of training. What are these three types of training?

A

On-ground training, off-ground training and combative training

37
Q

What is the purpose of the Army Physical Readiness Training (PRT)?

A

To develop and maintain a high level of unit physical readiness appropriate to duty position and for the conduct of full spectrum operations

38
Q

Once a profile expires, how long does the Soldier have before he or she is eligible to take the APFT?

A

The Soldier must be given twice the time of the temporary profile (but not more than 90 days) to train for the APFT.

39
Q

When leading Physical Readiness Training (PRT), the leader uses two kinds of commands. What are the two kinds of commands?

A

Preparatory command and command of execution

40
Q

Before assuming the starting position for the next exercise, the Soldiers in your squad must be at the position of attention. After finishing an exercise, what command do you give to bring your squad to attention?

A

Position of attention, MOVE

41
Q

Of the 10 preparatory drill exercises, only two are not performed at a slow cadence. Which are they?

A

The High Jumper and the Push-up

42
Q

You are a scorer for the Army Physical Fitness Test (APFT). When scoring the push-up event, how do you position yourself?

A

Sit or kneel three feet from the Soldier’s left shoulder at a 45-degree angle. A scorer’s head should be even with the Soldier’s left shoulder when he is in the front-leaning rest position.

43
Q

The Recovery Drill for Physical Readiness Training (PRT) consists of how many 2-position exercises?

A

5

44
Q

What is the definition of the term disease and non-battle injury (DNBI)?

A

A military person who is lost to an organization by reason of disease or injury, and who is not a battle casualty.

45
Q

What is the limit on water intake?

A

Hourly fluid intake should not exceed 11/4 quarts. Daily fluid intake should not exceed 12 liters.

46
Q

Well-being includes four dimensions. What are the four dimensions?

A

Physical, material, mental, and spiritual.

47
Q

What circumference measurements do you make when determining the body fat composition of a female?

A

Neck, waist (abdomen), and hip

48
Q

When can Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) develop?

A

After exposure to a terrifying event or ordeal in which grave physical harm occurred or was threatened.

49
Q

What is the definition of responsible drinking?

A

Drinking in a way that does not adversely affect an individual’s ability to fulfill their obligations and does not negatively impact the individual’s job performance, health, or wellbeing or the good order and discipline in a unit or organization.

50
Q

Impairment of a Soldier is at what blood alcohol content level?

A

0.05 grams of alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood.

51
Q

What is the Command Supply Discipline Program (CSDP)?

A

a compilation of existing regulatory requirements brought together for visibility purposes.

52
Q

What is the purpose of the CSDP?

A

To establish supply discipline as regulatory guidance, standardize supply discipline requirements, provide responsible personnel with a single listing of all existing supply discipline requirements, and make the U.S. Army more efficient regarding time spent monitoring subordinates’ actions.

53
Q

How will your commander achieve the purpose of the CSDP?

A

By ensuring compliance with DA supply policy and procedures, determining the adequacy of established DA supply policy and procedures, and identifying supply problems to permit timely corrective action within the chain of command.

54
Q

What are some terms and their explanation that apply to the CSDP?

A

Supervisory personnel, supply economy, supply discipline, the CSDP, repeat finding, and requirements listing.

55
Q

How do the immediate supervisors and company, battery, and troop commanders use the CSDP to support their missions?

A

To review the Requirements Listing within the CSDP (AR 710-2, appendix B) in order to become familiar with the applicable regulatory requirements, use the listing as a guide in the routine performance of their duties, and report to their immediate higher headquarters any applicable requirements you cannot complete within the listing.

56
Q

What is the intent of the CSDP?

A

Designed as a commander’s program to eliminate noncompliance with supply regulations.

57
Q

The CSDP uses what to monitor it performance?

A

Evaluations

58
Q

The CSDP is a four-fold program that addresses what?

A

(1) Responsibilities of commanders and supervisory personnel to instill supply discipline in their operations.
(2) Guidance for evaluating supply discipline.
(3) Feedback through command and technical channels for improving supply policy.
(4) Follow-up to ensure supply discipline is maintained.

59
Q

Once you complete the inventory, how will you file and distribute the results?

A

Keep one copy in the unit, give or send original copy to PBO, and when property books are at the using unit level, send a copy to next higher commander.

60
Q

You and incoming PHRH are unable to complete the joint inventory, what action will you take to correct this?

A

Submit a written request for extension to the next higher command.

61
Q

What type of information will the commander use to direct a command directed inventory?

A

Evidence of forced or unlawful entry, discovery of open or unattended storage areas, and alleged misappropriation of government property.

62
Q

How many days after each field training exercises, you will conduct an OCIE inventory for the AC, USAR, and ARNG components?

A

Within 15 days for the AC and 30 days for the USAR and ARNG.

63
Q

When do the AC, USAR, and ARNG components and AMC R&D activities conduct a weapons inventory by serial number?

A

Monthly for the AC, and quarterly for the USAR, ARNG and AMC R&D activities.

64
Q

Who is not authorized to conduct an inventory of weapons serial numbers?

A

The unit armorer.

65
Q

When inventorying consolidated arms storage facility, on what DA Form would you record the results?

A

DA Form 2062

66
Q

What do you the DA Form 2062 for?

A

To issue property book or durable items

67
Q

What TM would you normally use to describe an item in the box titled “Item Description”?

A

The operator’s technical manual (-10 series).

68
Q

When will the DA Form 2062 not have a hand receipt number?

A

During the issue of property of a personal nature

69
Q

What are the names of the three data sections on the DA Form 5988-E?

A

Equipment data, parts requested, and maintenance faults.

70
Q

On the PMCS checklist in the interval column, the letters B D P W M stand for what?

A 
Before operation
During operation
Post operation
Weekly
Monthly
71
Q

What are the three major data sections of the DA Form 5988-E?

A

Equipment data, parts requested, and maintenance faults.

72
Q

This class of supply provides you with construction materials to construct new schools in a war torn area, what is it?

A

Class IV

73
Q

Food and water pertains what class of supply?

A

Class I

Army Basic Leader Course (BLC) COPY (24 decks)

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