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Human Biology > Unit 1 > Flashcards

Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What name is given to human body cells that are not involved in reproduction?

A

Somatic cells.

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2
Q

How many chromosomes are found in somatic cells?

A

46.

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3
Q

By what process do somatic cells produce more somatic cells?

A

Mitosis.

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4
Q

What name is given to the human cells involved in producing gametes for reproduction?

A

Germline cells.

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5
Q

How many chromosomes are found in germline cells?

A

46.

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6
Q

By what process do germline cells produce more germline cells?

A

Mitosis.

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7
Q

In which part of the body are germline cells found?

A

Ovaries and testes.

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8
Q

By which process do germline cells produce the gametes (egg and sperm)?

A

Meiosis.

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9
Q

How many egg or sperm are produced when a germline cell divides by meiosis?

A

4.

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10
Q

What are the two types of stem cell?

A
  • Embryonic

* Tissue

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11
Q

What word is used to describe the ability of embryonic stem cells to divide into almost any cell type?

A

Pluripotent.

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12
Q

What word can be used to describe the ability of tissue stem cells to divide into a limited range of cell types?

A

Multipotent.

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13
Q

Name 5 uses of stem cells.

A
  • Model cells to investigate how diseases develop
  • Model cells to investigate how drugs work
  • Corneal repairs
  • Skin grafts
  • Bone marrow transplants in the treatment of leukaemia
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14
Q

What signals do cancer cells fail to respond to?

A

Regulatory signals.

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15
Q

What name is given to the abnormal mass of cells formed by uncontrolled cell division of cancer cells?

A

Tumour.

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16
Q

To which carbon attachment points do bases and phosphates attach in a DNA nucleotide?

A

Carbon 1 and carbon 5.

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17
Q

What name is given to the backbone of a DNA strand formed from deoxyribose sugar and phosphate?

A

Sugar phosphate backbone.

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18
Q

What type of bonds form between bases on two complimentary strands?

A

Hydrogen bonds.

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19
Q

What term is used to describe the fact that the two strands of DNA run in opposite directions to each other?

A

Antiparallel.

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20
Q

Name the two ends of one DNA strand.

A

3’ and 5’.

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21
Q

What name is given to the strand that is found on the left hand side on a DNA strand that runs from 3’-5’?

A

Leading strand.

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22
Q

What name is given to the short sequence of nucleotides that attach to the 3’ end of the parental strand about to be replicated?

A

Primer.

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23
Q

What name is given to the enzyme needed to replicate the strands during DNA replication?

A

DNA polymerase.

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24
Q

How is the replication of the leading strand described because it is replicated without any interruptions?

A

Continuous.

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25
Q

What name is given to the strand opposite the leading strand?

A

Lagging strand.

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26
Q

How is replication of the lagging strand described because it is replicated in fragments?

A

Discontinuous.

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27
Q

Name 5 requirements of DNA replication.

A
  • DNA template
  • ATP
  • DNA nucleotides
  • Primers
  • Enzymes (DNA polymerase and ligase)
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28
Q

What name is given to the technique that can be used to create many copies of a piece of DNA outside the body?

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

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29
Q

What word is used to describe the fact you are making multiple copies of a piece of DNA in PCR?

A

Amplification.

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30
Q

Describe the first stage of PCR.

A

Heat the DNA strand to 92-98 degrees to break the hydrogen bonds and separate the strands.

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31
Q

The next stage of PCR after heating involves cooling the DNA down to between 50-65 degrees. Why does DNA have to be cooled down?

A

So that primers can attach.

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32
Q

Lastly the DNA is heated to 70-80 degrees to allow an enzyme to replicate the strand. Name the enzyme involved.

A

Heat-tolerant DNA polymerase.

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33
Q

Name 3 uses of amplified DNA through PCR.

A
  • Forensic (crime scene investigation)
  • Medical (generic disorder diagnosis)
  • Paternity disputes
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34
Q

Describe three differences between DNA and RNA.

A
  • DNA is double stranded, whilst RNA is single stranded
  • DNA has the sugar, deoxyribose sugar in its nucleotides, whereas RNA has ribose sugar in its nucleotides
  • The bass partner for adenine in DNA is thymine, whereas it is uracil in RNA
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35
Q

Name the two stages involved in gene expression.

A

Transcription and translation.

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36
Q

In which region of the cell does transcription take place?

A

Nucleus

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37
Q

Name the region on the DNA strand where transcription begins.

A

Promoter region.

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38
Q

Name the enzyme involved in transcription.

A

RNA polymerase.

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39
Q

Name the region on the DNA strand where transcription ends.

A

Terminator region.

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40
Q

What name is given to the strand formed initially after transcription?

A

Primary transcript of mRNA

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41
Q

What process follows the formation of the primary transcript of mRNA?

A

Splicing.

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42
Q

Where does the process of splicing occur?

A

Nucleus.

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43
Q

During splicing what parts are cut out?

A

Coding regions called exons.

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44
Q

The same piece of DNA can be used to make several proteins due to the fact that on occasions different regions can act as introns and exons. What name is given to this?

A

Alternative RNA splicing.

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45
Q

In which part of the cell does translation occur?

A

Ribosome.

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46
Q

Where are tRNA molecules found?

A

Cytoplasm.

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47
Q

What name is given to every 3 bases on a mRNA?

A

A codon.

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48
Q

What name is given to the three bases at one end of a tRNA molecule?

A

An anticodon.

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49
Q

The anticodon acts as a code word to attach something to the other end of the tRNA. What is it that attaches?

A

An amino acid.

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50
Q

How many amino acids exist?

A

20.

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51
Q

A mRNA strand attaches at a ribosome binding site, where does the process of translation begin?

A

Start codon.

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52
Q

What type of bonds form between the codons and anticodons as they pair up?

A

Hydrogen bonds.

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53
Q

Amino acids start to align with one another when tRNA anticodons join up with mRNA codons. What type of bond forms between adjacent amino acids?

A

Mainly peptide bonds.

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54
Q

When does the process of translation stop?

A

When a stop codon is reached.

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55
Q

What happens to the tRNA and mRNA at the end of translation?

A

It detaches from the ribosome and is released back into the cytoplasm for reuse.

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56
Q

What other type of bond can be found between a polypeptide apart from peptide bonds?

A

Hydrogen bonds.

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57
Q

Name some functions of the proteins produced in gene expression.

A
  • Enzymes
  • Hormones
  • Antibodies
  • Structural proteins
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58
Q

What combination of factors determine the overall phenotype of an individual?

A

Genotype and environmental factors.

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59
Q

What name is given to an individual affected by a mutation?

A

Mutant.

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60
Q

Name some mutagenic agents.

A
  • X-rays
  • Gamma rays
  • Mustard gas
  • UV light
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61
Q

Name three point mutations which are single gene mutations.

A
  • Substitution
  • Insertion
  • Deletion
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62
Q

Name two point mutations that cause the frameshift effect.

A

Insertion and deletion.

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63
Q

Substitution usually results in only one amino acid being changed. It has a mild effect on the individual. When could a substitution cause a major effect on the individual?

A

When the substitution causes a codon to become a stop codon. Translation is stopped prematurely and the protein produced is missing many amino acids as a result.

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64
Q

What name is given to proteins that still function but have had only slight changes to their structure? (They still make sense but not the original sense).

A

Missense.

65
Q

What name is given to proteins that do not make any sense at all and are unable to function?

A

Nonsense.

66
Q

What name is given to a mutation where introns are retained in error due to splicing?

A

Splice site mutations.

67
Q

Name 4 examples of chromosome mutations.

A
  • Deletion
  • Duplication
  • Inversion
  • Translocation
68
Q

What name is given to the mutation where some genes are deleted from the chromosome?

A

Deletion.

69
Q

What name is given to the mutation where some genes are repeated?

A

Duplication.

70
Q

What name is given to the mutation where some of the genes from one chromosome break off and join with the genes on a completely different chromosome?

A

Translocation.

71
Q

What name is given to a mutation when some of the genes rotate 180 degrees on a chromosome?

A

Inversion.

72
Q

What name is given to the study of the human genome?

A

Human genomics.

73
Q

What name is given to the fusion of molecular biology, statistical analysis and computer technology in the study of the human genome?

A

Bioinformatics.

74
Q

What name is given to the complete sequencing of a persons DNA bases?

A

Personalised genome sequencing.

75
Q

What name is given to the use of genomic information in choosing pharmaceutical drugs?

A

Pharmacogenetics.

76
Q

What are the advantages of pharmacogenetics?

A

It allows for more effective treatment by selecting a suitable drug and the correct dosage.

77
Q

What type of sequences make up the genome?

A

Coding sequences and non-coding sequences.

78
Q

What name is given to the thousands of biochemical reactions that occur in living cells?

A

Metabolism.

79
Q

The quantity of energy consumed by an organism per unit time is a measure of what rate?

A

Metabolic rate.

80
Q

Name two types of metabolic pathway.

A

Anabolic and catabolic pathway.

81
Q

Which type of metabolic pathway involves the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones?

A

Catabolic.

82
Q

Which type of metabolic pathway involves the build up of complex molecules from simpler ones?

A

Anabolic.

83
Q

Which type of metabolic pathway releases energy as it is breaking down complex molecules?

A

Catabolic.

84
Q

Which type of metabolic pathway requires energy as it builds up small molecules to complex molecules?

A

Anabolic.

85
Q

In a metabolic pathway, what do two opposing arrows mean?

A

The reaction is reversible.

86
Q

Metabolic reactions sometimes have places where steps can be bypassed. What are these pathways known as?

A

Alternative routes.

87
Q

Give three properties of a catalyst.

A
  • Lower activation energy
  • Remains unchanged at the end
  • Increases the rate of reaction
88
Q

What name is given to biological catalysts?

A

Enzymes.

89
Q

What state is reached when two reactants have bonds broken and they are in a position that is unstable and ready to form a product?

A

Transition state.

90
Q

What substance are enzymes made of?

A

Protein.

91
Q

What name is given to the area on an enzyme that meets with the substrate?

A

Active site.

92
Q

What determines the shape of the active site?

A

The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide that makes up the enzyme molecule.

93
Q

Give the word that is used to describe the fact that one enzyme fits one substrate.

A

Specific.

94
Q

Give the term that is used to describe the fact that the active site has a strong attraction for the substrate.

A

High affinity.

95
Q

Once the enzyme has broken the substrate down/ built it up and formed the product, how is the attraction for the active site described?

A

Low affinity.

96
Q

In order for the enzymes active site to fit the substrate more closely, the shape of the active site and enzyme change slightly. What is this called?

A

Induced fit.

97
Q

Fill in the gap, “ The shape of the active site determines the o_______________ of reactants”.

A

Orientation.

98
Q

In an enzyme controlled reaction, the reaction rate will increase as the substrate concentration increases up until a certain point. After that the rate of reaction doesn’t increase. Why is this?

A

All of the active sites on the enzyme are occupied.

99
Q

What can be done to increase the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction once all of the active sites on the enzyme are occupied and substrate has already been increased?

A

Add more of the enzyme to the reaction.

100
Q

What name is given to a substance that decreases the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction?

A

An inhibitor.

101
Q

Name two types of inhibitor.

A

Competitive inhibitor and non competitive inhibitor.

102
Q

Which inhibitor binds to the active site and competes with the substrate in an enzyme controlled reaction?

A

Competitive inhibitor.

103
Q

Why is the competitive inhibitor able to join to the active site of an enzyme?

A

Because it has a similar shape to the substrate.

104
Q

What happens to the rate of reaction in an enzyme controlled reaction that is affected by a competitive inhibitor?

A

Decreases the rate of reaction but doesn’t stop it all together because the substrate can still bind sometimes.

105
Q

How could the effects of a competitive inhibitor be reversed?

A

Increase the substrate concentration.

106
Q

Where does a non competitive inhibitor bind to?

A

An allosteric site (away from the active site).

107
Q

What does a non competitive inhibitor do to the shape of an enzymes active site?

A

Changes the shape of the active site.

108
Q

Why does a reaction affected by a non competitive inhibitor stop altogether?

A

Because the shape of the active site has changed permanently and it no longer recognises the substrate.

109
Q

When an end product is made in a metabolic pathway some of the product goes back and inhibits an enzyme at the start of the pathway, what is this called?

A

End product inhibition.

110
Q

What name is given to the series of metabolic pathways that bring about the release of energy from foodstuff and the regeneration of ATP?

A

Respiration.

111
Q

A molecule of ATP is composed of what two components?

A

Adenosine and three molecules of inorganic phosphate.

112
Q

When ATP breaks down what is formed?

A

ADP and Pi.

113
Q

What is released during the breaking of the terminal bond in ATP?

A

Energy.

114
Q

Name 3 processes in the body that require ATP.

A
  • Muscle contraction
  • Nerve impulses
  • Protein synthesis
115
Q

What name is given to the process by which phosphate is added to ADP?

A

Phosphorylation.

116
Q

Name the 3 stages in respiration.

A
  • Glycolysis
  • Citric acid cycle
  • Electron transport chain
117
Q

Name the two phases of glycolysis.

A
  • Energy investment phase

* Energy pay-off phase

118
Q

Where in the cell does glycolysis take place?

A

Cytoplasm.

119
Q

How many ATPs need to be invested in the energy investment phase of glycolysis?

A

2 ATPs.

120
Q

How many ATPs are made during the energy pay-off phase to give a net gain of 2 ATPs?

A

4 ATP.

121
Q

What enzymes remove hydrogen ions and electrons from glucose?

A

Dehydrogenase enzymes.

122
Q

Name the coenzyme molecule that acts as a carrier of the hydrogen ions and electrons.

A

NAD.

123
Q

What does NAD become when H+ ions and electrons are picked up by it?

A

NADH.

124
Q

Where are all the H+ ions and electrons taken to by the NADH?

A

The electron transport chain.

125
Q

Is oxygen required for glycolysis?

A

No.

126
Q

Under what conditions will the next stage, the citric acid cycle, take place?

A

If oxygen is present.

127
Q

What is the final product of glycolysis that passes to the citric acid cycle?

A

Pyruvate.

128
Q

Where does pyruvate diffuse into to take part in the citric acid cycle?

A

The central matrix of the mitochondria.

129
Q

What does pyruvate combine with to form citrate in the citric acid cycle?

A

Oxaloacetate.

130
Q

What gas is released as a waste gas during the citric acid cycle?

A

Carbon dioxide.

131
Q

What does citrate break down into during the citric acid cycle?

A

Oxaloacetate.

132
Q

What do dehydrogenase enzymes do during the citric acid cycle?

A

Remove hydrogen ions and electrons.

133
Q

Name the carrier that transports the hydrogen ions and electrons into the third stage of respiration.

A

NAD.

134
Q

How many ATPs are made during the citric acid cycle?

A

1 ATP.

135
Q

What does the electron transport chain consist of?

A

A series of electron receptors.

136
Q

What is used to pump hydrogen ions across the inner membrane of the mitochondria?

A

Electrons.

137
Q

There is enough energy released to drive the reaction between ADP and Pi how many times?

A

35 times.

138
Q

What enzyme is used to join ADP and Pi during the electron transport chain?

A

ATP synthase.

139
Q

What is the name of the final electron acceptor?

A

Oxygen.

140
Q

Whenever hydrogen ions combine with oxygen during the electron transport chain what is formed?

A

Water.

141
Q

Is oxygen needed for the electron transport chain?

A

Yes because it acts as the final electron acceptor.

142
Q

Why is it that at any given time, the body has a fairly constant amount of ATP, some 50g, yet it is constantly being made?

A

It is being broken down just as fast as it is being made.

143
Q

During strenuous exercise, what type of respiration does the body carry out?

A

Lactate metabolism.

144
Q

Which two stages of respiration do not occur because of a lack of oxygen?

A

Citric acid cycle and electron transport train.

145
Q

How many ATPs are made during lactate metabolism?

A

2 ATPs.

146
Q

During lactate metabolism what does the pyruvate get turned into after glycolysis?

A

Lactic acid (lactate).

147
Q

What debt is said to have built up during lactate metabolism?

A

Oxygen debt.

148
Q

When is the oxygen debt built up during lactate metabolism paid back?

A

During the recovery period.

149
Q

What substance is reformed following the oxygen debt being repaid?

A

Pyruvate.

150
Q

Name the two types of skeletal muscle fibre.

A

Slow twitch and fast twitch muscle fibre.

151
Q

Which type of fibre is used during endurance events like a long distance run or cycle?

A

Slow twitch muscle fibres.

152
Q

Which type of fibre is used during power events like a sprint or heavy weight lifting?

A

Fast twitch muscle fibres.

153
Q

Name the oxygen storing protein present in muscle cells.

A

Myoglobin.

154
Q

Which oxygen storing protein has a higher affinity for oxygen, haemoglobin or myoglobin?

A

Myoglobin.

155
Q

Which type of muscle fibre contains many mitochondria, tire slowly, contract over a long period of time and have lots of blood capillaries and myoglobin?

A

Slow twitch muscle fibres.

156
Q

Which type of muscle fibre contains low numbers of mitochondria, tire easily, contract quickly and have low levels of blood capillaries and myoglobin?

A

Fast twitch muscle fibres.

157
Q

What is the major storage fuel used by fast twitch muscle fibres?

A

Glycogen.

158
Q

What is the major storage fuel used by slow twitch muscle fibres?

A

Fats.

Human Biology (3 decks)

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