Unit 1 Flashcards

1
Q

in a fast scan what does the sonographer assess for in chest/abdomen/pelvis

A
hemperitoneum (internal bleeding)
Parenchymal injury
-kidney fracture
-liver laceration
-splenic hematome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does FAST stand for

A

Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Free fluid usually indicates

A

hemoperitoneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what areas examined during a FAST scan

A

subxiphoid/subcostal
RUQ/Morison’s puch
LUQ/Splenorenal
Pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the most dependent areas of fluid collection

A

morison’s pouch

pouch of douglas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

diagnostic technique used in certain cases of blunt abdominal trauma used to sample intraperitoneal space for evidence of damage to viscera and blood vessels

A

peritoneal lavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the three types of fluid to look for in a FAST scan

A

intra-peritoneal fluid
pericardial fluid
pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the normal amount of intra-peritoneal fluid

A

100cc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when imaging in the coronal view that structure at the top of the screen is considered

A

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the most dependent portion of the lower abdomen and pelvis in males

A

rectovesicle pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

build up of blood or other fluid inside the sac around the heart, the pericardium.

A

Cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does cardiac tamponade do

A

causes pressure against walls of the heart and restricts its ability to allow blood to fill the ventricular chambers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what view do you use to look for cardiac tamponade

A

subxiphoid view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the digestive tract is also known as the

A

alimentary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how long is the digestive system tract

A

8 meters in length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is another name for the cardiac sphincter

A

gastroesophageal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the function of the cardiac sphincter

A

prevents reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the folds of mucosa and submucosa called in the stomach

A

ruggae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ruggae is located in what part of the stomach

A

antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the 4 sections of the duodenum

A

superior, descending, transverse, ascending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where do we see valvulae conniventes

A

dudodenum and jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the divisions of the small bowel

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

this has the keyboard sign appearance

A

valvulae connivente

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the normal wall thickness of the ileum

A

<3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

normal outer to outer wall measurement of the appendix measures

A

<6mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

normal wall thickness of the colon is

A

<4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the three main arteries that supply the large intestine

A

CA, SMA, IMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

most of the digestive processes take place in the

A

small bowel (duodenum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what stimulates the gastric glands

A

gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is released when fat is present in the intestine

A

cholecystokinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is releases in the small bowel and stimulates secretion of bicarbonate to decrease the acid content of the intestine

A

secretin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the sonographic evaluation of normal bowel

A

compressible with probe pressure, peristalsis, multiple layers of carrying echogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

directly contacts the intraluminal contents, lined with epithelial folds

A

mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

contains blood vessels and lymph channels

A

submucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

bands of fiber

A

muscularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

thin loose connective tissue

A

serosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

covers intraperitoneal bowel loops

A

mesothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

these are embryological mistakes in the upper tract

A

duplication cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

duplication cysts arise from the

A

pancreas and duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what gender do duplications cyst happen more often in

A

women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

duplication cysts are found on the

A

greater curve of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

movable intraluminal masses of concealed ingested materials

A

gastric bezoars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

hair balls in young women

A

trichobezoars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

vegetable matter masses

A

phytobezoars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

inorganic materials causing masses

A

concretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

outgrowth of tissue from mucous membrane

A

polyp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

most common benign tumor of the stomach

A

leiomyoma

48
Q

gastric carcinoma are more common in

A

older men

49
Q

what sign do you look for with gastric carcinoma

A

pseudo kidney sign

50
Q

what layer of the stomach would mets be found

A

submucosal

51
Q

rare, accumulation of mucoid substance within the lumen

A

appendiceal mucocele

52
Q

tumor implants on peritoneal surfaces and producing adhesions

A

pseudomyxoma peritonei

53
Q

remnant vitelline duct projecting from anterior side of ileum

A

meckel’s diverticulum

54
Q

a recurrent granulomatous inflammatory disease that affects the terminal ileum, colon, or both at any level

A

crohn’s disease

55
Q

dilated loops of bowel without peristalsis caused by an accumulation near the area of inflammation

A

paralytic ileus

56
Q

what is paralytic ileus associated with

A

pancreatitis

57
Q

swollen bowel with target patterns and creeping fat suggest

A

crohns disease

58
Q

primary malignancy derived from glandular tissue and most common in the colon

A

adenocarcinoma

59
Q

serous membrane that covers the abdominal organs

A

peritoneum

60
Q

what forms the peritoneum

A

mesothelium

61
Q

what layer of the peritoneum covers the abdominal wall

A

parietal

62
Q

what layer of the peritoneum covers the abdominal organs

A

visceral

63
Q

what organs are in the peritoneal

A
liver
gallbladder
spleen
pancreas tail
stomach 
small intestine
colon (transverse and sigmoid)
64
Q

potential space between the parietal and visceral layers of the peritoneum

A

peritoneal cavity

65
Q

two layer fold of peritoneum, attaches part of the intestines to the posterior abdominal wall

A

mesentery

66
Q

a double layer fold of peritoneum and joins two viscera

A

omentum

67
Q

this is the primary compartment anterior and inferior to the stomach

A

greater sac

68
Q

located behind lesser omentum, posterior to the stomach

A

lesser sac

69
Q

less sac attaches

A

liver to stomach

70
Q

greater sac attaches

A

stomach to transverse colon

71
Q

another name for lesser sac

A

omental bursa

72
Q

lesser sac is connected with the greater sac through an opening called

A

epiploic foramen

73
Q

another name for epiploic foramen

A

foramen of winslow

74
Q

divided into left and right anterior spaces by the falciform ligament

A

subphrenic spaces

75
Q

transudative ascites is caused by

A

hepatic, cardiac, and renal failure associated with hypoalbuminemia

76
Q

anterior displacement of the kidneys and dilated ureters is confirmed to be

A

retroperitoneal tumor

77
Q

omental peritoneal lesions are most commonly

A

secondary lesions

78
Q

mesenteric lesions are most commonly

A

benign

79
Q

peritoneal abscess if common from

A

ovaries, stomach, colon

80
Q

what is the sign when lymphoma encases SMA/CA

A

sandwhich sign

81
Q

forms a central anterior attachment for abdominal muscle layers

A

linea alba

82
Q

where external oblique, internal oblique and transverse abdominis meet

A

linea semilunaris

83
Q

what muscle provides pelvic stability

A

transverse abdominis

84
Q

formed by the aponeuroses of the muscles of the lateral muscle group

A

rectus sheath

85
Q

protusion of a peritoneal lined sac through a defect in the weakened abdominal wall

A

abdominal wall hernia

86
Q

this type of hernia is located periumbilical but midline abdomen

A

ventral

87
Q

what type of hernia occurs along the semi lunaris

A

spigelian

88
Q

herniation medial to the inferior epigastric artery and does not extend deep into the inguinal ring

A

direct

89
Q

herniation lateral to the inferior gastric artery and enters deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal and into the scrotum or labia

A

indirect

90
Q

occur below the inguinal ligament through the femoral canal

A

femoral hernia

91
Q

what type of hernia is more common in women

A

femoral

92
Q

this is a rare protrusion of contents through obturator foramen this is more common in multiparous women or older women with recent weight loss

A

obturator hernia

93
Q

when the defect is not allowing herniated contents to be reduced

A

incarcerated

94
Q

defect is cutting off blood supply to contents and becomes necrotic

A

strangulated

95
Q

what is the treatment of hernia

A

surgery

96
Q

acute or chronic collection of blood either in the rectus muscle or between the muscle and its sheath

A

rectus sheath hematoma

97
Q

benign fibromatous tumor arising from muscular sheath and presents as palpable mass

A

desmoid

98
Q

lymphnodes follow the ____ throughout the body

A

circulatory system

99
Q

lymph nodes maintain

A

homeostasis

100
Q

most common primary retroperitoneal tumor

A

lymphoma

101
Q

non hodgkins disease involves

A

abdominal lymph nodes

102
Q

hodgkins lymphoma involves the

A

spleen

103
Q

form of non-hodgkins lymphoma that affects pediatrics and is very aggressive

A

Burkitt’s tumor

104
Q

movable thick structure that extends from the diaphragm to the thoracic inlet and the root of the neck

A

mediastinum

105
Q

what image artifact can be seen within the diaphragm

A

mirror artifact

106
Q

connects the medial borders of the two crura as they cross anteriorly to the aorta

A

median arcuate ligament

107
Q

area of thinning in the diaphragm dome

A

diaphragm eventration

108
Q

prominent muscle bands indenting the liver and has a scalloped appearance

A

diaphragmatic slip

109
Q

one side of the diaphragm is paralyzed

A

diaphragm paralysis

110
Q

what appearance is seen with diaphragm paralysis

A

wave-like

111
Q

accumulation of fluid in the pleural space

A

pleural effusion

112
Q

draining of pleural fluid

A

thoracentesis

113
Q

absence of air in all or part of lung

A

atelectasis

114
Q

wedge-shaped, echogenic mass with mobile floating lung

A

atelectasis

115
Q

lung filled with fluid/cells, wedge shaped, echo-poor mass motion with inspiration

A

lung consolidation