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BIO 1050 > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what makes up a protein?

A

amino group, carboxyl group, central carbon, and R group

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2
Q

peptide bonds link __ into proteins

A

amino acids

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3
Q

what molecules are in tails of phospholipids

A

C and H

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4
Q

water has ___ bonds

A

polar covalent

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5
Q

a protein’s shape determines its ___

A

function

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6
Q

antigens

A

sugar-coated proteins on cells

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7
Q

antibodies

A

proteins made by B cells; bind specific antigens

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8
Q

water is a __ molecule

A

polar

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9
Q

storage proteins

A

supply amino acids to developing embryos

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10
Q

denaturation

A

a process when a protein unravels, losing its specific shape and function

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11
Q

R group

A

H+ atom; consists of one or more carbon atoms w various functional groups attached

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12
Q

2 main types of amino acids

A
  1. hydrophobic

2. hydrophilic

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13
Q

hydrophobic amino acids

A

non polar R groups

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14
Q

hydrophilic amino acids

A

polar or charged R groups

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15
Q

primary structure

A

the precise sequence of aa in the polypeptide chain

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16
Q

secondary structure

A

segments of the polypeptide chain coil or fold into local patterns

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17
Q

tertiary structure

A

overall 3D shape of protein

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18
Q

quaternary structure

A

proteins w more than 1 polypeptide chain

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19
Q

plasma membrane

A

membrane enclosing cytoplasm; forms a flexible boundary between the living cell and its surroundings; amazingly thin

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20
Q

phospholipid group together to form a ___

A

phospholipid bilayer

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21
Q

fluid mosaic model

A

used by biologists to describe a membrane’s structure- diverse protein molecules suspended in a fluid phospholipid bilayer

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22
Q

selective permeability

A

it allows substances to cross more easily than others

  • Small, nonpolar molecules may diffuse across the lipid bilayer
  • Some membrane proteins are enzymes
  • Enzymes may be grouped to carry out sequential rxns
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23
Q

attachment proteins

A

proteins that attach to the ECM and cytoskeleton help support the membrane and can coordinate external and internal changes

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24
Q

receptor proteins

A

bind signaling molecules and relay the message by activating other molecules in the cell (signal transduction)

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25
Q

active transport protein

A

transport proteins allow specific ions or molecules to enter or exit the cell

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26
Q

junction proteins

A

membrane proteins may form intercellular junctions that attach to adjacent cells

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27
Q

glycoproteins

A

proteins that recognize neighboring cell; may serve as ID tags that are recognized by membrane proteins of other cells

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28
Q

codominance

A

the expression of 2 alleles in separate, distinguishable ways

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29
Q

incomplete dominance

A

the expression of one intermediate trait

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30
Q

adaptive immunity

A
  • aka acquired immunity
  • only in vertebrates
  • a set of defenses activated in response to specific pathogens
  • Provides a strong defense against pathogens
  • It acts against 1 infectious agent
  • has good memory
  • usually obtained by natural exposure to antigens but can also be achieved by vaccination
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31
Q

antigen

A

any molecule that elicits an adaptive immune response; nonself molecules that protrude from pathogens or other particles, such as viruses, bacteria, mold spores, etc
-When immune system detects this, it responds w an increase in the number of cells that either attack the invader directly or produce antibodies

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32
Q

antibody

A

an immune protein found in blood plasma that attaches to one particular kind of antigen and helps counter its effects

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33
Q

vaccination

A

aka immunization; composed of a harmless variant or part of a disease-causing microbe

  • stimulates the immune system to mount defenses against this harmless antigen
  • Once you’ve been vaccinated, ur immune system will respond fast if it is exposed to the actual microbe
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34
Q

active immunity

A

a person’s own immune system actively produces antibodies

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35
Q

passive immunity

A

receiving premade antibodies

-Temporary bc the recipient’s immune system is not stimulated by antigens

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36
Q

lymphocytes

A

white blood cells responsible for adaptive immunity; found in the blood and the lymphatic system

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37
Q

B cells

A
  • Develop in bone marrow
  • Move thru lymphatic vessels
  • Mature in lymph nodes -Make antibodies
  • bind to antigens directly
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38
Q

amino acids are __

A

absorbed

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39
Q

__ link amino acids into proteins

A

peptide bonds

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40
Q

___ makes polymers ; ___ breaks polymers

A

dehydration; hydrolysis

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41
Q

polymers change ___

A

length

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42
Q

What determines the primary structure?

A

DNA in the cell

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43
Q

what is the flow of genetic information?

A

DNA to mRNA by transcription; mRNA to proteins by translation

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44
Q

DNA is located in the __ of cells

A

nuclei

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45
Q

DNA, RNA, and proteins are all ___

A

polymers

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46
Q

what is the sugar for DNA?

A

deoxyribose

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47
Q

what is the sugar for RNA?

A

ribose

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48
Q

nucleotide structure

A
  1. Sugar (DNA; RNA)
  2. Phosphate
  3. N base (A, C, G; T in DNA and U in RNA)
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49
Q

biological macromolecules

A
  1. Carbohydrates (glucose, glycogen, starch)
  2. Lipids (phospholipids, triglycerides)
  3. Proteins (insulin, glucose channels, enzymes)
  4. Nucleic Acids (DNA, RNA)
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50
Q

lymphatic system

A

involved in both innate and adaptive immunity; consists of a branching network of vessels, lymph nodes, bone marrow, and several organ

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51
Q

lymph nodes

A

little round organs packed w macrophages and lymphocytes

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52
Q

The lymphatic vessels carry a fluid called the __, which is similar to the interstitial fluid that surrounds body cells but contain less O2 and fewer nutrients

A

lymph

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53
Q

what are the 2 main functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. To return tissue fluid to the circulatory system

2. To fight infection

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54
Q

Lymphocytes originate from __ in the bone marrow

A

stem cells

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55
Q

thymus

A

a gland above the heart

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56
Q

where do B cells develop?

A

Bone marrow

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57
Q

where do T cells develop?

A

thymus

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58
Q

what are the roles of B and T cells?

A

defend against infections in body fluids and cells

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59
Q

humoral immune response

A

defends against bacteria and viruses present in body fluids

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60
Q

cell-mediated immune response

A

defends against infections inside body cells

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61
Q

epitope

A

a small surface-exposed region of an antigen

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62
Q

antigen-binding site

A

the region on an antigen receptor/antibody that recognizes an epitope

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63
Q

primary immune response

A

occurs the first time a particular antigen enters the body and selectively activates lymphocytes

  • Slow
  • Takes many days to produce effector cells
  • Memory cells are produced
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64
Q

secondary immune response

A

when memory cells produced during the primary response are activated by a second exposure to the same antigen

  • Faster and stronger than primary response
  • Produces effector and memory cells
  • The second exposure the antigen A triggers the secondary immune response
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65
Q

herd immunity

A

community protection

-can fail if more than 5% of a population is unvaccinated

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66
Q

2 related functions of antibodies in humoral immune response

A
  1. To recognize and bind to a specific antigen

2. To assist in eliminating in that antigen

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67
Q

Dehydration and hydrolysis rxns require __ to make and break bonds

A

enzymes

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68
Q

Key to great diversity of polymers is __, variation especially

A

arrangement

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69
Q

DNA bases

A

A,T,C,G

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70
Q

RNA bases

A

A,U,C,G

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71
Q

polynucleotide

A

a nucleotide polymer chain; built from its monomers by dehydration rxns; the sugar of one nucleotide bonds to the Pi group of the next monomer, resulting in a repeating sugar-Pi backbone in the polymer

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72
Q

gene expression

A

DNA and RNA’s production of proteins

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73
Q

plasmodesmata

A

cytoplasmic channels thru cell walls that connect adjacent cells

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74
Q

nucleus

A

contains the cell’s genetic instructions encoded in DNA

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75
Q

chromatin

A

complex of roughly equal amounts of DNA and protein; when a cell is not dividing, this appears as a diffuse mass within the nucleus

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76
Q

nuclear envelope

A

double membrane that encloses the nucleus

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77
Q

nucleolus

A

a prominent structure in the nucleus; the site where a special types of RNA called ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is synthesized according to instructions in the DNA

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78
Q

mRNA

A

messenger RNA; directs protein synthesis; a transcription of protein-synthesizing instructions written in a gene’s DNA; moves into the cytoplasm, where ribosomes translate it into the aa sequences of proteins

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79
Q

genotype

A

an organism’s heritable info contained in the sequence of nucleotide bases in DNA

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80
Q

phenotype

A

physical traits

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81
Q

transcription

A

synthesis of RNA under the direction of DNA

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82
Q

translation

A

the synthesis of a protein under the direction of RNA

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83
Q

_ makes pathogens easier for immune system to target

A

agglutination

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84
Q

Nucleotides are joined to one another by __ bonds btwn the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of the next, forming a __

A

covalent; sugar-phosphate backbone

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85
Q

functional group

A

chemical group that affects a molecule’s function by participating in specific chem rxns
- Main role of functional groups in DNA is to determine which other kind of bases each base can form H+ bonds with

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86
Q

pyrimidines

A

C and T

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87
Q

purines

A

A and G

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88
Q

what is the key role of Pi in DNA?

A

sugar and Pi make the BACKBONE of DNA

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89
Q

__ bonds connect the sides of DNA (bases)

A

hydrogen

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90
Q

hydrogen bonds are __

A

FON

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91
Q

C makes __ hydrogen bonds w G

A

3

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92
Q

A makes _ hydrogen bonds w T;U

A

2

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93
Q

polar vs non polar bonds

A

polar is hydrophilic; non polar is hydrophobic

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94
Q

5’ Pi binds the _

A

3’ carbon

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95
Q

2’

A

deoxyribose or hydroxyl group

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96
Q

1’

A

N base (A,G,C,T)

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97
Q

3’

A

connecting C of sugar; sugar

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98
Q

4’

A

nothing/boring

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99
Q

5’

A

phosphate group

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100
Q

_ bonds join the 2 DNA strands

A

hydrogen

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101
Q

a H+ bond is represented as a _

A

dotted line

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102
Q

are H+ bonds weak or strong?

A

weak

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103
Q

double-stranded DNA aligns _

A

antiparallel

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104
Q

when writing a DNA sequence, 5’ goes on

A

the left side

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105
Q

DNA to RNA ___

RNA to proteins ___

A

RNA polymerase; ribosomes

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106
Q

each type of chromosome has the same genes in the __ order

A

same

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107
Q

genome defines __

A

species

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108
Q

levels of organization

A
  1. Genomes (vary across species)
  2. Chromosomes (fixed number of types per species; each type with the same genes; two copies of each type)
  3. Genes (variations different nucleotides = alleles)
  4. Codons
  5. Nucleotides (variations= A, T, G, C)
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109
Q

triplet code

A

genetic instructions for the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain are written in DNA and RNA as a series of nonoverlapping three-base “words” called codons

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110
Q

genetic code

A

the amino acid translations of each of the nucleotide triplets

  • 61 of the 64 triplets code for amino acids
  • nearly universal
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111
Q

AUG

A

codes for Met and can provide a signal for the start of a polypeptide chain

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112
Q

UAA, UGA, UAG

A

do not designate aa but they serve as stop codons that mark the end of translation

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113
Q

karyotype

A

an ordered display of magnified images of an individual’s chromosomes arranged in pairs

  1. Can detect chromosomal abnormalities
  2. Shows the chromosomes condensed and doubled, as they appear in metaphase of mitosis
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114
Q

genomics

A

the study of complete sets of genes

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115
Q

genome

A

a set of all of the genes of the organism

  • vary in size and number of genes
  • Prokaryotes generally have smaller ones
  • Number of genes varies among organisms
  • hold the key to our genetic identity
116
Q

human genome project

A

a massive, publicly funded scientific endeavor to determine the nucleotide sequence of all DNA in the human genome and identify the location and sequence of every gene

117
Q

introns

A

noncoding stretches of nucleotides

118
Q

DNA is written as a _ sequence

A

linear

119
Q

Which of the following is in the correct order from smallest to largest?

A

nucleotide, codon, gene, chromosome, genome

120
Q

In plant and animal cells, termination of transcription occurs at

A

the terminator DNA

121
Q

The molecules of tRNA in all cells are important because they

A

add the amino acid that matches the next codon to a forming protein

122
Q

Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups are found

A

between neighboring deoxyribonucleic acid monomers in a molecule of DNA

123
Q

transcription happens in

A

nucleus

124
Q

translation happens in

A

cytoplasm

125
Q

zygote

A

fertilized egg

126
Q

DNA template: TACTTCAAAATC-5’
mRNA:
Polypeptide:

A

mRNA: AUGAAGUUUUAG-3’
Polypeptide: Met-Lys-Phe

127
Q 
unity of life; 2 different species 
number of chromosomes:
types of chromosomes:
gene order on each type of chromosome:
alleles of genes:
genetic code:
nucleotides:
A 
number of chromosomes: different
types of chromosomes: different
gene order on each type of chromosome: different
alleles of genes: different
genetic code: same
nucleotides: same
128
Q 
unity of life; 1 species-2 organisms
number of chromosomes:
types of chromosomes:
gene order on each type of chromosome:
alleles of genes:
genetic code:
nucleotides:
A 
number of chromosomes: same
types of chromosomes: same
gene order on each type of chromosome: same
alleles of genes: different
genetic code: same
nucleotides: same
129
Q

When scientists process DNA samples from 2 diff people the samples will look different on the assay bc __

A

the sequence of nucleotides in the DNA of individuals is different

130
Q

How many double helices of DNA are in 23 pairs of duplicated chromosomes?

A

92

131
Q 
Transcription;
Information source
Product
Major enzyme 
Initiation at
Elongation needs 
Types of bonds formed
Termination at
Where in cell?
A 
Information source: DNA
Product: mRNA
Major enzyme: RNA polymerase
Initiation at: promoter DNA 
Elongation needs: nucleotides, RNA polymerase
Types of bonds formed: covalent bonds (sugar-phosphate bonds)
Termination at: terminator DNA
Where in cell? Nucleus
132
Q

Steps for transcription

A

Initiation: DNA splits
Elongation: RNA polymerase adds free nucleotides
Termination: DNA strands attach again; new RNA molecule

133
Q

RNA polymerase

A

adds free nucleotides to the strand; moves along the gene, forming a new RNA strand by following the base-pairing rules

134
Q

DNA replication

A

Leading strand replicates from 3’ to 5’ with DNA polymerase
*dna always has to be 5’ to 3’
*leading can easily replicate straight across
Lagging strand replicates from 5’ to 3’ w DNA polymerase
*dna replicates in okazaki fragments bc u can’t go 5’ to 5

135
Q 
Translation; 
Information source:
Product:
Major enzyme:
Initiation at:
Elongation needs:
Types of bonds formed:
Termination at:
Where in cell?
A 
Info source: mRNA 
Product: Proteins
Major enzyme: Ribosomes
Initiation at: Start codon
Elongation needs: Charged tRNA, ribosomes, mRNA
types of bonds formed: Covalent peptide bonds
termination at: Stop codon
where in cell? Cytoplasm
136
Q

there are abt __ genes per chromosome

A

1000

137
Q

there are abt __ genes in the human genome

A

23,000

138
Q

there are __ types of chromosomes

A

23

139
Q

translation

A

mRNA to proteins

  • 5’ on the left; 3’ on the right
  • Codon chart -> mRNA
  • tRNA: transfer RNA
  • Anticodon base pairs to codon
  • 64 different tRNAs
  • Charge the tRNA thru tRNA synthetase
  • Parts of Translation
    1. Initiation
    2. Elongation
    3. Termination
140
Q

the ribosome

A

-structures in the cytoplasm that coordinate the functioning of mRNA and tRNA and catalyze the synthesis of polypeptides
- rRNA: ribosomal RNA. -Ribosome aligns tRNAs to mRNA and makes peptide bonds
Parts of the ribosome:
1. Large subunit
2. mRNA binding site
3. tRNA binding site
4. Small subunit
5. Growing polypeptide

141
Q

translation: initiation at the start codon

A

-Getting the ribosome assembled
1. mRNA binds to small subunit
2. Start codon
- AUG
- First tRNA has anticodon UAC
3. A large subunit joins the small subunit
§ First tRNA in the P site
§ The A site is empty and can receive the next tRNA

142
Q

translation: elongation adds amino acids to polypeptide

A
  1. Codon recognition at A site
  2. Peptide bond formation (covalent bond, dehydration)
  3. Translocation: tRNA from A site to P site
  4. Repeated until a stop codon is reached
143
Q

translation: a stop codon terminates translation

A
  1. Completed polypeptide is released
  2. Ribosomal subunits separate
  3. mRNA is released
  4. Ribosomes and mRNA can be used again
144
Q

ribosomes translate mRNA

A
  1. Rough ER for excreted or membrane proteins

2. Free ribosomes for cytosolic proteins

145
Q

specific nucleotide sequence called a __ acts a binding site for RNA poly and determines where transcription starts

A

promoter

146
Q

terminator

A

a sequence of DNA bases that signal the end of the gene

147
Q

tRNA

A

transfer RNA; coverts codons to amino acids of proteins; to transfer aa from the cytoplasmic pool to a growing polypeptide in a ribosome

148
Q

2 functions of tRNA

A
  1. Picking up the appropriate aa

2. Recognizing the appropriate codons in the mRNA

149
Q

anticodon

A

special triplet of bases; complementary to a codon triplet on mRNA
-In translation, the anticodon on tRNA recognizes a particular codon on the mRNA by using base-pairing rules

150
Q

Final components in translation are the __

A

ribosomes

151
Q

P site

A

binding site on the ribosome that will hold the growing polypeptide

152
Q

A site

A

ther tRNA binding site; ready for next amino-acid-bearing tRNA

153
Q

translation: 3 step elongation process

A
  1. The anticodon of an incoming tRNA molecule, carrying its aa, pairs with the mRNA codon in the A site of the ribosome
  2. The polypeptide separates from the tRNA in the P site and attaches by a new peptide bond, adding one more aa to the growing polypeptide chain
  3. The P site tRNA leaves the ribosome, and the ribosome moves the remaining tRNA from the A site to the P site
    - Codon and anticodon remain hydrogen bonded
    - mRNA and tRNA move as a unit
    - Movement brings into the A site to the next mRNA codon to be translated, and the process can start all over again w step 1
154
Q

These steps in the process of translation are powered by the breakdown of __

A

GTP

155
Q

GTP

A

a molecule closely related to ATP

156
Q

cells that make a lot of proteins have a __ number of ribosomes

A

larger

157
Q

free ribosomes are in the __; bound ribosomes are in the __

A

cytosol; attached to the outside of the ER/ nuclear envelope

158
Q

endomembrane system

A
  • ER
  • Nuclear envelope
  • Golgi apparatus
  • Lysosomes
  • Various types of vacuoles and vesicles
  • Plasma membrane
159
Q

largest component of the endomembrane system is the __

A

er

160
Q

smooth er

A

outer surface lacks attached ribosomes
1. Enzymes of smooth er are important in synthesis of lipids, including oils, phospholipids, and steroids
2. Liver cells have large amounts of smooth er
3. Storage of calcium ions is in the smooth er
A specialized smooth er membrane pumps calcium ions into the interior of the er; when a nerve signal stimulates a muscle cell, calcium ions rush from the smooth er into the cytosol and trigger contraction of the cell

161
Q

rough er

A

has bound ribosomes that stud the outer surface of the membrane

1. Makes secretory proteins
2. As polypeptide is synthesized by a bound ribosome following the instructions of an mRNA, - it is threaded into the cavity of the rough er  - Short chains of sugars are often linked to the polypeptide, making the molecule a glycoprotein - When the molecule is ready for export from the er, it is packaged in a transport vesicle - Vesicle buds off from the er membrane
162
Q

transport vesicle

A

a vesicle that moves from one part of the cell to another

163
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

serves as a molecular warehouse and processing station for products manufactured by the er

164
Q

exocytosis

A

used by cell to export bulky materials such as proteins or polysaccharides

165
Q

endocytosis

A

a transport process through which a cell takes in large molecules or droplets of fluid

166
Q

phagocytosis

A

cellular eating
- A cell engulfs a particle by wrapping extensions called pseudopodia around it and packaging it within a membrane-enclosed sac called a vacuole

167
Q

receptor-mediated endocytosis

A

enables a cell to acquire specific solutes

168
Q

low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)

A

bind to receptor proteins and enter cells by endocytosis

169
Q

what is the primary function of DNA?

A

to encode and store genetic info

170
Q

As the DNA replicates, it __

A

unwinds

171
Q

mutation

A

any change to the genetic info of a cell or virus

172
Q

nucleotide substitution

A

the replacement of 1 nucleotide and its base-pairing partner with another pair of nucleotides

173
Q

silent mutation

A

substitution mutations have no effect at all

-aa stays same

174
Q

missense mutation

A

changes one aa to another

175
Q

nonsense mutations

A

change an aa codon into a stop codon

- Adding or subtracting nucleotides may alter the reading frame of the genetic message

176
Q

frameshift mutation

A

occurs whenever the number of nucleotides inserted or deleted is not a multiple of 3

  • All the nucleotides after the insertion/deletion will be regrouped into different codons
  • Most likely produce a nonfunctional polypeptide and often have disastrous effects
177
Q

spontaneous mutations

A

result from errors during DNA replication or recombination

178
Q

Other mutations are caused by physical or chemical agents called __

A

mutagens

179
Q

What order do the following steps occur during elongation of translation?

A
  1. A peptide bond is formed
  2. The anticodon of a charged tRNA makes
    complementary base pairs with the codon. A site
  3. The ribosome moves along the mRNA
  4. The uncharged tRNA falls off the mRNA
180
Q

The anticodon for translation is on the ___

A

tRNA

181
Q

Initiation of transcription vs translation

A

Initiation of transcription: polymerase binds promoter

Initiation of translation: ribosome binds to start codon

182
Q

All living organisms all have the same ___ and ___ for translation

A

codons and nucleotides

183
Q

genome varies in __

A

diversity

184
Q

point mutation (substitution)

A

Up to one amino acid will be different

There are multiple codons for most amino acids

185
Q

consequences of mutations

A

Differences in proteins
Differences in function
Evolution
The origins of the mutations often arise during replication of DNA

186
Q

3 Domains

A

bacteria, archaea, and eukarya

187
Q

prokaryotes and eukaryotes both…

A

-All cells have one or more chromosomes
-Contain ribosomes
- Inside of both cells is called the cytoplasm
In eukaryotes, this term is only referred to the region between the nucleus and plasma membrane
-cytosol
-plasma membrane

188
Q

chromosomes

A

which carry genes made of DNA

189
Q

ribosomes

A

tiny structures that make proteins according to instructions from the genes; synthesize proteins

190
Q

structure of a generalized prokaryotic cell

A
  1. DNA is coiled into a nucleoid
  2. No membranes surround the DNA
  3. Ribosomes are smaller and different than eukaryotes
  4. Contains cell wall, which protects the cell and maintains its shape
  5. Certain prokaryotes have a capsule around the cell wall, helping to glue the cells to surfaces or to other cells in a colony
  6. Some have surface projections
191
Q

surface projections

A
  • Short projections help attach prokaryotes to each other or their substrate
  • Longer projections called flagella propel a cell through its liquid environment
192
Q

fimbriae

A

attachment structures on the surface of some prokaryotes

193
Q

nucleoid

A

region where the cell’s DNA is located (not enclosed by membrane)

194
Q

cell wall

A

rigid structure outside the plasma membrane

195
Q

capsule

A

jelly like outer coating of many prokaryotes

196
Q

flagella

A

locomotion organelles of some bacteria

197
Q

eukaryotic cells have

A

nucleus and membrane bound organelles

198
Q

plant walls contain __

A

polysaccharide cellulose

199
Q

gene regulation

A

the turning on and off of genes

200
Q

A gene that is turned __ is being transcribed into mRNA, and that message is being translated into specific protein molecules

A

On

201
Q

promoter

A

a site where transcription enzyme, RNA polymerase, attaches and initiates transcription

202
Q

operator

A

DNA control sequence

determines whether RNA poly can attach to the promoter and start transcribing genes

203
Q

operon

A

cluster of genes with related functions

204
Q

In __ mode, transcription is turned off bc a repressor is present

A

off

205
Q

repressor

A

a protein that binds to the operator and physically blocks the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter

206
Q

regulatory gene

A

located outside the operon, codes for the repressor

  • Expressed continually
  • Cell always has a small supply of repressor molecules
207
Q

inducible operon

A

one that is usually turned off but can be stimulated by a molecule
ex: lac operon

208
Q

repressible operon

A

Normally turned on but can be inhibited (repressed) when a specific molecule is present in abundance
ex: trp operon

209
Q

activators

A

proteins that turn operons on by binding to DNA and stimulating gene transcription

  • Act by making it easier for RNA poly to bind to the promoter, rather than by blocking RNA poly, as repressors do
  • Helps control a wide variety of operons
210
Q

3 types of operon

A
  1. inducible
  2. repressible
  3. activators
211
Q

histones

A

small proteins that account for abt half the mass of eukaryotic chromosomes

212
Q

nucleosome

A

consists of DNA wound twice around a protein core of 8 histone molecules

213
Q

epigenetic inheritance

A

inheritance of traits transmitted by mechanisms not directly involving the nucleotide sequence

214
Q

X chromosome inactivation

A

initiated early in embryonic development, when one of the 2 chromosomes in each cell is inactivated at random

215
Q

barr body

A

Inactive X in each cell of a female condenses into a compact object

216
Q

females consist of a mosaic of 2 types of cells

A
  1. Those w the active X derived from the father

2. Those w the active X derived from the mother

217
Q

For both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, __

A

initiation of transcription is the most important stage for regulating gene expression

218
Q

regulatory proteins

A

used by eukaryotes

  • activators and repressors
  • bind to specific segments of DNA and either promote or block the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter, thus turning the transcription of genes on or off
219
Q

transcription factors

A

proteins essential for transcription of all protein-coding genes, and others specific to a few or just one gene

220
Q

enhancers

A

DNA control sequences

- usually located far away, on the chromosome from the gene they help regulate

221
Q

peristalsis

A

enables u to process and digest food even while lying down

222
Q

sphincters

A

muscular ring-like valves tht regulate the passage of food into and out of the stomach
- keeps food in stomach for 2-6 hrs

223
Q

small intestine

A

the longest organ of the alimentary canal (6m long, 2.5 cm wide) and the master organ for chemical digestion and for absorption of nutrients in the bloodstream

224
Q

duodenum

A

first 25 cm of small intestine where chyme squirted from the stomach mixes with digestive juices from the pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and gland cells in the intestinal wall

225
Q

pancreas

A

produces pancreatic juice, a mixture of digestive enzymes and an alkaline solution that neutralizes the acidity of chyme as it enters the small intestine; produces hormones that regulate blood glucose levels

226
Q

liver

A

produces a chem mixture called bile

227
Q

gall bladder

A

tores and concentrates bile until it is needed in the small intestine

228
Q

gallstones

A

biles that are crystallized

229
Q

villi

A

large circular folds w numerous small, finger-like projections

230
Q

microvilli

A

microscopic projections

231
Q

Undigested material moves slowly thru the __ for 12-24 hours

A

large intestine

232
Q

copying DNA (replication)

A
  • DNA strands are separated
  • Each single strand is a template to make a complementary strand
  • Two identical DNA double helices are produced
  • Mutations occur as 3 billion nucleotides in the genome are copied to make a sperm or egg cell
233
Q

transcription and DNA rep are similar

A
  • Polymerase (RNA polymerase or DNA polymerase)
  • Complementary base pairing
  • New nucleic acid made 5’ to 3 (BYOP- bring ur own Pi)’ causing complications for replication of lagging strand of DNA
234
Q

what is the role of tRNA synthetase?

A

charge tRNA

235
Q

how does tRNA know which aa to bind to?

A

anticodon

236
Q

what are the 2 parts of tRNA?

A

aa and anticodon

237
Q

living requires _

A

energy

238
Q

making proteins requires __ and __

A

e and raw materials

239
Q

Would it be an advantage for an organism to make every protein in every cell all the time?

A

No. It would waste e and space in the cells

240
Q

expressing a gene

A

activating transcription and translation of that gene

241
Q

gene expression pattern

A
  • which genes are being expressed

- determines which protein it has, and what it does

242
Q 
Two cells of one organism; 
 Number of chromosomes
Types of chromosomes
Gene order on each chromosome 
Allele of genes
Proteins 
Genetic code 
nucleotides
A 
Number of chromosomes: same
Types of chromosomes: same
Gene order on each chromosome: same
Allele of genes: same
Proteins: different proteins made
Genetic code: same
nucleotides: same
243
Q

With/ without lactase

A

With lactase: lactose is absorbed

No lactase: lactose to large intestine

244
Q

lac operon in bacteria

A 
Regulatory gene encodes a repressor that can bind operator 
Operator switches operon on/off
Lac operon turned off
Lactose activates the lac operon 
Lactose changes shape of the repressor
245
Q

operon

A

cluster of operator, promoter, regulatory genes

246
Q

Adding lactose causes the lac operon to __ the expression of genes that code for proteins that _ lactose

A

increase; break down

247
Q

In the bacteria with the lac operon, lactose binds to the __

A

repressor and make it fall off the operator

248
Q

__ binds to operon

A

repressor

249
Q

why is yogurt better than milk for lactose intolerant ppl?

A

Yogurt has less lactose than milk

More of lactose is eaten up by bacteria

250
Q

why is yogurt sour?

A

Bc it is acidic, a lot of H+ ions

251
Q

fermentation

A 
Glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis
Pyruvate to lactate and NADH to NAD+ by fermentation 
Anaerobic exercise in muscles 
Bacteria for yogurt
Lactic acid aka lactate
252
Q

Change pH =

A

change protein structure

253
Q

proteins’ shape depends on

A

Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure

254
Q

Why does lactase production decrease during development?

A

Adult mammals don’t nurse; no evolutionary purpose to drink milk as adult; domesticated animals allowed us to have milk as a food source; The lactase enhancer stops stimulating lactase transcription

255
Q

When does gene expression change?

A 
When the environment changes 
Nutrients, like lactose
Growth factors
Neighboring cells 
Change outside the organism (single-celled organisms)
At different stages of development 
In different tissues (multicellular organisms)
Due to diff transcription factors
256
Q

initiation of transcription

A

Similar: RNA polymerase binding to promoter in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Transcription rates are not constant
Activators bind enhancers to increase transcription rates
Repressors bind to silencers

257
Q

Activator proteins directly bind to __

A

enhancers

258
Q

gene expression cause and effect

A

Activators bound to enhancers and RNA poly bound to promoter and gene = more transcription = more mRNA = more of that protein made = same number of genes, no matter how much mRNA or protein from that gene, assuming no mutations

259
Q

Compared to a cell with very little lactase protein, a cell with a high lactase conc would have

A
  • more copies of lactase mRNA
  • same number of genes for lactase
  • more activator proteins bound to enhancers for the lactase gene
  • more RNA poly molecules on the 2 lactase genes
260
Q

Assuming no mutations, in one individual, 2 cells in different tissues..

A

different activated transcription factors and mRNA molecules w/ different nucleotide sequences

261
Q

When a transcription factor is present, transcription rates for some genes increases. A gene will be expressed more if the transcription factors binds to its __

A

promoter, enhancer, or activator

262
Q

prokaryotes

A 
No membrane-bound organelles 
Circular DNA 
Simpler DNA 
Nucleoid
Operons 
Circular chromosome
Complex cell walls
263
Q

eukaryotes

A 
Nucleus 
Complex transcription factors 
Multiple linear chromosomes 
Membrane-bound organelles
Simple cell walls (plants, some fungi)
264
Q

prokaryotes AND eukaryotes

A 
DNA 
Transcription
Translation
Chromosome(s)
Plasma membrane 
Cytoskeleton
Ribosomes 
cytosol
265
Q

structure of an amino acid

A

a central carbon atom surrounded by a hydrogen atom, a carboxyl group (COOH), an amino group (NH2), and an R-group

266
Q

antigen and antibodies for blood types

A 
type A
antigen: A antigen 
antibody: anti-B
type B
antigen: antigen B
antibody: anti-A
type AB
antigen: A and B antigen 
antibody: none
type O
antigen: none
antibody: anti-A and anti-B
267
Q

what blood types will agglutinate when exposed to type B blood?

A

type A and O

268
Q

agglutination

A

to clot

269
Q

lac operon happens in

A

prokaryotes

270
Q

major parts of the lac operon

A

genes, operator, repressor, RNA polymerase, promoter

271
Q

what happens when lactose is present?

A

it will bind to the repressor and the repressor will fall off
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter

272
Q

major parts of the DNA sequence

A

enhancers, promoter, terminator DNA, RNA polymerase

273
Q

major parts of proteins

A

other proteins, activators, RNA poly

274
Q

products of fermentation

A

NAD+ and lactate

275
Q

steps of gene expression in eukaryotes

A

1) activator binds to enhancer
2) other proteins bind to enhancer
3) RNA poly binds to the promoter makes mRNA
4) transcription stops at terminator DNA

276
Q

lac operon

A

involved in E.coli genome, codes for genes involved in the metabolism of lactose. For a cell to make use of it, it needs to absorb the lactose and split it up into simple sugars so it can use for fuel

277
Q

promoter in lac operon

A

where RNA poly would attach

278
Q

operator in lac operon

A

where repressor (lac repressor) could bind

279
Q

protein in lac operon

A

can bind and be an activator

280
Q

lac operon/ no lactose

A

The lac repressor protein is bound to operator
Won’t be able to transcribe
RNA poly won’t be able to work, no transcription
No lactose = no transcription
Won’t waste resources

281
Q

lac operon/ lactose

A

Transcription occurs
Repressor bound to allolactose= not gonna bind to operator
RNA poly can transcribe the genes and metabolize the lactose

282
Q

DNA binding proteins

A

DNA binding proteins bind to single- or double-stranded DNA, generally in the major groove if the binding is sequence-specific and help control DNA’s functions. Some examples of them are transcription factors and histones.

283
Q

gene expression prokaryotes vs eukaryotes

A

Gene expression is regulated from DNA to mRNA by transcription in the nucleus, and mRNA to proteins in the cytoplasm by translation in a eukaryotic cell. In a prokaryotic cell, transcription and translation is coupled, translation begins while the mRNA is still being synthesized.

284
Q

structure of 2 DNA strands

A

two strands are held together by H+ bonds between the bases, adenine forming a base pair with thymine, and cytosine forming a base pair with guanine.
nucleotides have sugar-pi bonds between them

285
Q

When a bacterium is in an environment with a lot of lactose

A

the lactose will be bound to the repressor

286
Q

What is a consequence of mutations in DNA?

A

proteins and phenotypes may be different.

287
Q

When a new nucleotide is added to a nucleic acid, the new monomer binds to

A

the growing end of the nucleic acid with the phosphate group of the monomer.

BIO 1050 (5 decks)

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