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Human Biology > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In which organ are sperm made?

A

Testes.

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2
Q

Where exactly in the testes are sperm made?

A

Seminiferous tubules.

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3
Q

Name the cells surrounding the seminiferous tubules in the testes.

A

Interstitial cells.

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4
Q

Name the cells that are found in the seminiferous tubules that divide by meiosis to form the sperm.

A

Germline cells.

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5
Q

Which tube carries the sperm from the testes towards the urethra?

A

Sperm duct.

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6
Q

Name the two accessory glands.

A

Seminal vesicles and prostate gland.

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7
Q

What two substances are released by the seminal vesicles?

A

A liquid rich in fructose sugar and a liquid that contains a hormone-like compound that stimulates the female reproductive tract to help the sperm swim faster towards the oviduct.

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8
Q

What substance does the prostate gland secrete?

A

A liquid rich in enzymes which maintains the fluid medium at the optimum viscosity for sperm mobility.

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9
Q

What name is given to the liquid containing sperm and the secretions of the accessory glands?

A

Semen.

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10
Q

What is the name of the structure that the egg develops in?

A

The follicle.

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11
Q

Where in the female reproductive tract does the process of fertilisation occur?

A

Oviduct.

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12
Q

What is formed when an egg and sperm fuss during fertilisation?

A

A zygote.

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13
Q

Name the glands that hormones are produced from.

A

Endocrine glands.

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14
Q

Which hormone is produced by the hypothalamus around puberty time which kickstarts the production of sperm?

A

Releaser hormone.

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15
Q

Where does releaser hormone travel to from the hypothalamus?

A

Pituitary gland.

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16
Q

Name the two hormones produced by the pituitary gland in males.

A

FSH and ICSH

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17
Q

When FSH is released from the pituitary gland in males, where does it travel to?

A

Seminiferous tubules in the testes.

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18
Q

What do the seminiferous tubules make after being stimulated by FSH?

A

Sperm.

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19
Q

What does ICSH releases from the pituitary gland do?

A

Stimulates the interstitial cells to produce testosterone.

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20
Q

What two jobs do testosterone do?

A

Stimulates the seminiferous tubules to make sperm and it also activates the accessory glands.

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21
Q

When there is a build-up of testosterone in males what happens?

A

Testosterone inhibits the production of FSH and ICSH from the pituitary gland.

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22
Q

When testosterone levels fall, the FSH and ICSH production is resumed following a period of being inhibited. What name is given to this type of regulation?

A

Negative feedback.

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23
Q

Name the hormone released from the hypothalamus in females during puberty that kickstarts the menstrual cycle.

A

Releaser hormone.

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24
Q

Name the two hormones what are released from the pituitary gland in females.

A

FSH and LH.

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25
Q

Name the hormone released by the pituitary gland that can cause the development of an egg inside the follicle.

A

FSH.

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26
Q

What ovarian hormone is released by the ovary in response to an egg developing in the follicle?

A

Oestrogen.

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27
Q

What effect does oestrogen have on the endometrium?

A

Causes proliferation.

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28
Q

As oestrogen levels build up, it sends a message back to the pituitary gland to release which hormone?

A

LH.

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29
Q

What two events does LH being released from the pituitary gland cause?

A
  • Ovulation

* Formation of corpus luteum from the follicle

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30
Q

Name the hormone released by the corpus luteum as well as oestrogen.

A

Progesterone.

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31
Q

Which two hormones are classed as ovarian hormones?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone.

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32
Q

Progesterone travels to the endometrium and causes what to happen?

A

Vascularisation of the endometrium.

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33
Q

As progesterone builds up an inhibitory message is sent back to the pituitary gland to tell it to inhibit the production of which two hormones?

A

FSH and LH.

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34
Q

If FSH and LH levels drop what other two ovarian hormone levels will drop?

A

Oestrogen and progesterone.

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35
Q

What structure will break down if oestrogen and progesterone are not there to maintain it?

A

The endometrium, resulting in a period.

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36
Q

If fertilisation does occur, which hormone will be secreted by the embryo that will maintain the corpus luteum and allow it to continue to secrete oestrogen and progesterone?

A

HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin).

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37
Q

Name the two phases of the menstrual cycle.

A
  • Follicular phase

* Luteal phase

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38
Q

What name is given to the process of the release of an egg from the follicle?

A

Ovulation.

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39
Q

What events are described in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

All the events up to ovulation.

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40
Q

What events are described in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

All the events after ovulation up to the onset of a period.

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41
Q

Which of the sexes is described as being cyclically fertile?

A

Females.

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42
Q

How is the fact that males can make sperm throughout the month described?

A

Continuously fertile.

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43
Q

Roughly how long does female fertility last per month?

A

1-2 days after ovulation.

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44
Q

What two indicators are there in females that they are entering there fertile period?

A

Temperature rises by about 0.5 degrees and the cervical mucus thins.

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45
Q

What hormone allows the body temperature in females to rise by about 0.5 degrees?

A

Progesterone.

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46
Q

Which hormone causes the cervical mucus to thin around ovulation time?

A

Oestrogen.

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47
Q

If a female fails to ovulate it may be because they fail to make FSH or LH. What treatment can be given?

A

Fertility drugs that contain FSH or LH.

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48
Q

What name is given to the fertility treatment whereby semen is introduced into the female reproductive tract in a means other than sexual intercourse?

A

Artificial insemination.

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49
Q

What name in given to the introduction of semen into the female reproductive tract naturally as a result of sexual intercourse?

A

Insemination.

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50
Q

When would artificial insemination be used as a fertility treatment?

A

If the man has a low sperm count or a sperm donor is being used.

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51
Q

What name is given to the process by which the fertilisation process occurs in a dish?

A

IVF.

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52
Q

Under what circumstances would IVF be used as a fertility treatment?

A

If the female has a blockage in the oviduct then the egg and sperm would be unable to meet.

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53
Q

What screening technique is used to check embryos during IVF for general chromosomal abnormalities?

A

PGS (Pre-implantation Genetic Screening).

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54
Q

What screening technique is used to check embryos during IVF for known chromosomal abnormalities?

A

PGD (Pre-implantation Genetic Diagnosis).

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55
Q

During IVF, if a mans sperm count is low then many of the sperm are defective. What technique can be used during IVF to overcome this?

A

Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection.

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56
Q

What is ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection)?

A

Technique which involves taking a healthy sperm and injecting it directly into an egg being held in a holding tool. It is used during IVF.

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57
Q

Name three barrier methods of contraception that would physically prevent an egg from meeting a sperm.

A

Condom, diaphragm and cervical cap.

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58
Q

Name the device inserted into the uterus that is a plastic structure with copper wound round it to irritate the lining of the uterus and prevent an embryo from implanting.

A

IUD

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59
Q

Name the sterilisation procedure in men where the sperm ducts are cut and tied to prevent sperm being released during sexual activity.

A

Vasectomy.

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60
Q

What is the equivalent of a vasectomy in females where the oviducts are cute and tied to prevent egg meeting sperm and reaching the uterus?

A

Tubal ligation.

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61
Q

Name the two hormones found in the combined pill.

A

Oestrogen and progesterone.

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62
Q

How does the combined pill prevent pregnancy?

A

High levels of oestrogen and progesterone prevent FSH and LH from being released. No egg is matured in the follicle or released during ovulation. Effectively there is no egg to fertilise.

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63
Q

Why does a period still happen when taking the combined pill?

A

A pill is taken for 3 weeks with high levels of oestrogen and progesterone. During the 4th week, no pill is taken and the levels fall. This results in menstruation.

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64
Q

Name the technique by which high frequency sounds are bounced off the fetus and converted to an image on a computer screen.

A

Ultrasound imaging.

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65
Q

Name two scans that are produced through ultrasound imaging.

A

Dating scan and anomaly scan.

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66
Q

When is a dating scan produced?

A

8-14 weeks.

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67
Q

What does a dating scan show?

A

Stage of pregnancy and due date.

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68
Q

When is an anomaly scan carried out?

A

18-20 weeks.

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69
Q

What does an anomaly scan show?

A

Serious physical abnormalities in the fetus.

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70
Q

Name a marker chemical that doctors check for the level of in a mother’s urine/ blood.

A

HCG hormone or AFP.

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71
Q

If the levels of these marker chemicals are checked at an inappropriate point in the timeline and found to be high/ low, this could lead to what types of false alarm?

A

False positives and false negatives.

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72
Q

If a fetus is wrongly diagnosed as having a condition when it doesn’t then this is what type of mistake?

A

False positive.

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73
Q

If a fetus is wrongly diagnosed as not having a condition when in actual fact it does, then this is what type of mistake?

A

False negative.

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74
Q

What name is given to the type of tests where they look at marker chemical levels and other indicators that look for signs and symptoms of a disorder, but does not tell definitively that the fetus has the disorder?

A

Screening test.

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75
Q

What name is given to a definitive test that established without doubt that the fetus has a disorder? It is usually carried out following concerns after a screening test.

A

Diagnostic test.

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76
Q

Name two diagnostic tests.

A

Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling.

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77
Q

Both diagnostic tests allow the collection of some of the baby’s cells and a photograph of the chromosomes all laid out. What name is given to a visual display of chromosomes?

A

Karyotype.

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78
Q

When is amniocentesis carried out?

A

14-16 weeks.

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79
Q

Where are the cells taken from during amniocentesis?

A

Amniotic sac.

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80
Q

What is the negative aspect of amniocentesis?

A

Risk of miscarriage.

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81
Q

When is CVS carried out?

A

As early as 8 weeks.

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82
Q

Where are the cells for CVS taken from?

A

The chorionic villus of the placenta.

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83
Q

What are the advantages of CVS and amniocentesis?

A

CVS carried out earlier in pregnancy and if there is any problem, then a termination can be considered much earlier when it is less traumatic. If parents wait until 14-16 weeks as with amniocentesis, then it is much more traumatic.

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84
Q

What name is given to the charts used by genetic counsellors to assess the degree of risk in passing on a genetic disorder to children?

A

Pedigree chart/ family tree.

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85
Q

What does a line through a symbol on a pedigree chart show?

A

The person has died.

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86
Q

Which symbol is used to represent a female?

A

A circle.

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87
Q

Which symbol is used to represent a male?

A

A square.

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88
Q

What pattern of inheritance is shown when a condition carried on the autosomes is relatively rarely expressed, skips generations and occurs more between members joined by a consanguineous marriage?

A

Autosomal recessive inheritance.

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89
Q

What pattern of inheritance is shown when a condition carried out on the autosomes appears in every generation? Each person affected has a parent who suffered from the condition and once the condition is lost from a branch of the tree it lost altogether from that branch.

A

Autosomal dominant inheritance.

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90
Q

What pattern of inheritance is shown when both alleles are expressed together and this is the most common phenotype? The number of males and females are affected in equal numbers.

A

Autosomal incomplete dominance.

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91
Q

What pattern of inheritance is shown by a condition carried on the sex chromosomes, where many more males than females are affected and none of the affected males have sons with the trait?

A

Sex-linked recessive inheritance.

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92
Q

Name a condition whereby a baby is unable to change the amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine.

A

Phenylketonuria.

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93
Q

When is the test for phenylketonuria carried out in babies?

A

A few days after birth.

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94
Q

What name is given to the type of testing that occurs in babies after they are born?

A

Postnatal screening.

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95
Q

Which 3 parts make up the cardiovascular system?

A

Blood, blood vessels and heart.

96
Q

What name is given to the area in a blood vessel that the blood flows through?

A

Lumen.

97
Q

What name is given to the lining of the lumen?

A

Endothelium.

98
Q

What are the 5 types of blood vessels?

A

Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, veins, venules.

99
Q

Which type of blood vessel carries blood at high pressure away from the heart?

A

Arterioles.

100
Q

Which type of blood vessel links veins to capillaries?

A

Venules.

101
Q

Name 3 structural differences between arteries and veins.

A

Arteries have a thick muscular wall and veins have a thinner muscular wall. Arteries don’t have valves but veins do have valves. Arteries have a narrow lumen and veins have a wider lumen.

102
Q

What name is given to the process where arterioles can narrow?

A

Vasoconstriction.

103
Q

What name is given to the process where arterioles can widen?

A

Vasodilation.

104
Q

Which blood vessels are known as the exchange vessels?

A

Capillaries.

105
Q

What substance consists of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets bathed in plasma?

A

Blood.

106
Q

What substances are dissolved in plasma?

A

Glucose, amino acids, useful ions and oxygen.

107
Q

When blood plasma leaks out of the capillaries it is known as what?

A

Tissue fluid.

108
Q

In what way is tissue fluid different from blood plasma?

A

Tissue fluid does not contain plasma proteins.

109
Q

Why does tissue fluid not contain protein?

A

It is too big to pass through the walls of the capillaries.

110
Q

Name some materials that are delivered to the cells via tissue fluid.

A

Glucose, amino acids, oxygen, hormones.

111
Q

Name a waste gas that is removed from the cells via tissue fluid.

A

Carbon dioxide.

112
Q

Name the two ways in which tissue fluid is returned to the circulatory system.

A

By osmosis directly into the capillaries as tissue fluid has a higher water concentration compared to blood plasma. It can also pass into the lymphatic system.

113
Q

What is tissue fluid known as when in the lymph vessels of the lymphatic system?

A

Lymph.

114
Q

What is the lymphatic system?

A

A series of vessels that carry lymph fluid derived from blood that eventually returns the lymph into the bloodstream.

115
Q

How does lymph eventually drain back into the circulatory system?

A

By being compressed as the body moves and passed along the lymphatic system and eventually then drains into two veins coming from the arms.

116
Q

If lymph is prevented from draining back into the lymphatic system because of parasites invading the system, then this results in a condition where fluid gathers in excessive amounts in the tissues, what is this condition?

A

Elephantiasis.

117
Q

Malnutrition can cause fluid to gather in the abdomen because there is no difference in the water concentration of tissue fluid and blood plasma, name this condition.

A

Kwashiorkor.

118
Q

Name the 4 chambers of the heart.

A

Right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, left ventricle.

119
Q

Which type of blood vessel carries blood towards the heart?

A

Veins.

120
Q

Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?

A

Arteries.

121
Q

Name the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body (one branch from the upper parts of the body and one branch from the lower half of the body) back to the heart and enters the right atrium.

A

Vena cava.

122
Q

Name the chamber that blood travels to from the right atrium.

A

Right ventricle.

123
Q

Name the valve through which blood travels as it goes from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

A

AV valve (atrioventricular valve).

124
Q

What does the AV valve on the right side of the heart prevent?

A

Backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium.

125
Q

Blood travels to the lungs from the right ventricle through which blood vessel?

A

Pulmonary artery.

126
Q

As blood travels from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, name the valve that it passes through.

A

Semi-lunar valve.

127
Q

What does the semi-lunar valve on the right side of the heart prevent?

A

Backflow of blood from the pulmonary artery to the right ventricle.

128
Q

What does blood travelling to the lungs from the pulmonary artery pick up at the lungs?

A

Oxygen.

129
Q

What name is given to blood rich in oxygen?

A

Oxygenated blood.

130
Q

What name is given to blood low in oxygen?

A

Deoxygenated blood.

131
Q

Name the blood vessel that returns blood to the left atrium of the heart from the lungs.

A

Pulmonary vein.

132
Q

Is the blood returning to the left atrium oxygenated or deoxygenated?

A

Oxygenated.

133
Q

What chamber does blood from the left atrium go to?

A

Left ventricle.

134
Q

Name the valve present between the left atrium and left ventricle.

A

AV valve.

135
Q

What does the AV valve on the left side of the heart prevent?

A

Backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

136
Q

Which ventricle wall is thicker and why?

A

Left ventricle wall is thicker because it has to withstand the pressure of blood travelling all round the body from here, whereas blood leaving from the right ventricle is only travelling a relatively short distance to the lungs, so it is not under as much pressure.

137
Q

Blood travels from the left ventricle out of the heart through which blood vessel?

A

Aorta.

138
Q

Name the valve present between the aorta and the left ventricle.

A

Semi-lunar valve.

139
Q

What does the semi-lunar valve on the left side of the heart prevent?

A

Backflow of blood from the aorta to the left ventricle.

140
Q

Name the two veins associated with the heart.

A

Vena cava and pulmonary vein.

141
Q

Name the two arteries associated with the heart.

A

Pulmonary artery and aorta.

142
Q

What is unique about the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein?

A

They are the only artery and vein in the body that switches the rule regarding arteries carrying oxygenated blood and the veins carrying deoxygenated blood. PA carried deoxygenated blood and PV carries oxygenated blood.

143
Q

What is the other term for heart rate?

A

Pulse.

144
Q

What units are used to measure heart rate/ pulse?

A

Beats per minute.

145
Q

What term describes the volume of blood expelled by each ventricle on contraction?

A

Stroke volume.

146
Q

What figure is given if the heart rate is multiplied by the stroke volume?

A

Cardiac output.

147
Q

What name is given to the pattern of systole and diastole shown by the heart in one heart beat?

A

Cardiac cycle.

148
Q

What name is given to the contraction of the heart?

A

Systole.

149
Q

What name is given to the relaxation of the heart?

A

Diastole.

150
Q

What are the three stages of the cardiac cycle?

A

Atrial systole, ventricular systole, atrial and ventricular diastole.

151
Q

Describe the state of the atria, ventricles and calves during atrial systole.

A

Atria contracting, ventricles relaxing, AV valves opened, SL valves shut.

152
Q

Describe the state of the atria, ventricles and the valves during ventricular systole.

A

Ventricles contracting, atria relaxing, AV valves closed, SL valves opened.

153
Q

Describe the state of the atria, ventricles and the valves during diastole.

A

Atria and ventricles both relaxed, SL valves closed and AV valves just about to open.

154
Q

Calculate the heart rate of someone with the following times in their cardiac cycle- AS-0.1, VS-0.3, D-0.4.

A

0.1+0.3+0.4=0.8 for one heartbeat.

60/0.8=75 for heart beats per minute.

155
Q

What does the P wave represent on an electrocardiogram?

A

The atria contracting.

156
Q

What does the T wave represent on an electrocardiogram?

A

The atria and ventricles relaxing.

157
Q

What initiates the heartbeat?

A

The SAN/ pacemaker.

158
Q

Where in the heart is the pacemaker/ SAN located?

A

The wall of the right atrium.

159
Q

When the pacemaker releases an electrical impulse, what is first to contract?

A

The atria (atrial systole).

160
Q

When the atria contract following electrical excitation, which node then picks this up?

A

AV node.

161
Q

Where is the AV node located?

A

The base of the atria.

162
Q

When the electrical impulses during conduction of the heart reach the AV node, where is the electrical impulses passed to?

A

Along two conducting fibres to the apex of the heart.

163
Q

When the electrical impulses during conduction of the heart pass along the conducting fibres to the apex of the heart, what happens to the ventricles?

A

They contract (ventricular systole).

164
Q

What name is given to the two nerves of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves.

165
Q

What word is used to describe the fact that as one nerve of the autonomic nervous system has one effect on the body the other nerve has the opposite effect?

A

Antagonistic.

166
Q

Which nerve of the autonomic nervous system causes the heart rate to increase?

A

Sympathetic nerve.

167
Q

Which nerve of the autonomic nervous system causes the heart rate to decrease?

A

Parasympathetic nerve.

168
Q

Name the hormone that can increase the rate of the pacemaker.

A

Adrenaline.

169
Q

Name the neurotransmitter released by the parasympathetic nerve.

A

Acetylcholine.

170
Q

What is the blood pressure a measure of?

A

The pressure exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels when the heart is undergoing systole and again during diastole.

171
Q

What is a typical blood pressure reading?

A

120mmHg/ 80mmHg.

172
Q

What is the instrument used to measure blood pressure?

A

Sphygmomanometer.

173
Q

In step one of using the sphygmomanometer, the cuff is inflated until the blood stops flowing in an artery. This will be detected when no pulse can be heard with a stethoscope. The cuff will then gradually be deflated to allow blood through again. How will this be detected?

A

The stethoscope will allow a pulse to be heard.

174
Q

What reading is first taken with a stethoscope when the pulse is heard for the first time during a blood pressure reading?

A

Systolic pressure.

175
Q

What reading is taken with a stethoscope when the pulse disappears after the systolic pressure is taken?

A

Diastolic pressure.

176
Q

What figures would indicate high blood pressure?

A

140mmHg/ 90mmHg and anything over.

177
Q

What is the other name for high blood pressure?

A

Hypertension.

178
Q

What problems can hypertension cause in later life?

A

Heart disease and strokes.

179
Q

What factors can contribute to high blood pressure?

A

Being overweight, not taking enough exercise, consuming too much salt, drinking excessively on a regular basis, eating a diet rich in fat especially animal fat, stress.

180
Q

Atherosclerosis is characterised by the formation of plaques, what are these called?

A

Atheromas.

181
Q

What are atheromas composed of?

A

Fatty material like cholesterol and calcium.

182
Q

What do the presence of atheromas do to the size of the lumen in blood vessels?

A

Reduces their diameter.

183
Q

What do atheromas do to blood pressure?

A

Increase blood pressure.

184
Q

What do atheromas do to the walls of arteries?

A

They cause the loss of elasticity and cause them to become hardened.

185
Q

What can the condition atherosclerosis lead to later in life?

A

Cardiovascular diseases such as coronary heart disease, strokes and heart attacks.

186
Q

What name is given to the blood vessels on the surface of the heart that provide the cardiac muscle with oxygenated blood?

A

Coronary arteries.

187
Q

If the coronary arteries get blocked it can sometimes cause a crushing pain in the centre of the chest, what is this condition called?

A

Angina.

188
Q

Angina is often the warning sign that you could suffer what event in the future?

A

Heart attack.

189
Q

In blood clotting, clotting factors are released whenever the cells suffer damage to try and prevent blood loss at a wound. Clotting factors cause the inactive enzyme prothrombin to turn into what?

A

Active enzyme called thrombin.

190
Q

The enzyme thrombin converts the soluble plasma protein fibrinogen into what?

A

Insoluble fibrin.

191
Q

What gathers at a framework of fibrin threads?

A

Platelets forming a blood clot.

192
Q

What name is given to the lining of the artery?

A

Endothelium.

193
Q

What do atheromas do to the lining of the artery (endothelium)?

A

Burst through it and damage it.

194
Q

What is the name of the blood clotting process?

A

Thrombosis.

195
Q

What is the other name for a blood clot formed in thrombosis?

A

Thrombus.

196
Q

The thrombus (blood clot) has a risk of breaking free and becoming loose, what is it known as now?

A

Embolus.

197
Q

If an embolus travels to the heart and blocks the artery in the heart, what can this result in?

A

Heart attack.

198
Q

If an embolus travels to the brain and blocks the brain arteries, what can this result in?

A

Stroke.

199
Q

What name is given to the arteries other than the carotid artery, coronary artery and aorta?

A

Peripheral arteries.

200
Q

What can a blockage of the peripheral arteries by the atheromas from atherosclerosis lead to?

A

Peripheral vascular disease.

201
Q

What part of the body does peripheral vascular disease commonly affect?

A

The leg muscles and pain is felt because they are starved of oxygen.

202
Q

What name is given to the formation of a blood clot in a vein?

A

Deep vein thrombosis.

203
Q

If an embolus blocks a blood vessel in the lungs what can it cause?

A

A pulmonary embolism.

204
Q

What is cholesterol used to make in the body?

A

The sex hormones and a component of cell membranes.

205
Q

What is cholesterol synthesised from?

A

Saturated fats.

206
Q

Where is cholesterol made?

A

In all cells but 25% of it is produced in the liver.

207
Q

What are lipoproteins made from?

A

Lipid and protein.

208
Q

Lipoproteins are found in the blood plasma but where are they made?

A

Liver.

209
Q

What is the job of lipoproteins?

A

To transport cholesterol.

210
Q

What are the two types of lipoprotein?

A

Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and high density lipoprotein (HDL).

211
Q

Which type of lipoprotein transports cholesterol from the liver towards the body cells?

A

Low density lipoproteins.

212
Q

What receptors are made on the surface of cells in order to be able to take cholesterol into the cells?

A

LDL receptors.

213
Q

When the LDL receptors bind with an LDL carrying cholesterol, they are able to deposit cholesterol in the cell. When the cell cannot take in anymore, what happens to the receptors?

A

New LDL receptors stop being made.

214
Q

Where do the LDLs carrying cholesterol end up if they cannot enter a cell that is full up with cholesterol and doesn’t have any new LDL receptors on it?

A

It gathers in the blood stream and is taken up by the endothelium of an artery.

215
Q

What happens to the cholesterol that ends up in the endothelium?

A

It causes the formation of atheromas.

216
Q

What would increase the chances of a person depositing cholesterol in atheromas under the endothelium?

A

If they eat a diet rich in saturated fats throughout their life.

217
Q

What do HDLs do?

A

Transport cholesterol from body cells to the liver for elimination.

218
Q

Are HDLs carrying cholesterol taken into the endothelium to contribute to atheromas?

A

No.

219
Q

What two factors can result in a raised HDL level?

A

Eating a diet in unsaturated fats replacing some of the saturated fats and exercising.

220
Q

Name the drugs involved in stopping the synthesis of cholesterol in the liver.

A

Statins.

221
Q

How much sugar should be in the blood plasma usually?

A

Around 5 millimoles per litre (5mmol/l).

222
Q

How much sugar can be found in the blood of a diabetic person?

A

Sometimes as much as 30 mmol/l.

223
Q

Which part of the blood vessels absorbs the excess glucose of a diabetic person?

A

The endothelium of the blood vessels.

224
Q

What happens to blood vessels that take in more glucose than usual?

A

They become weaker and burst and bleed into surrounding tissues.

225
Q

What name is given to the condition caused by blood vessels that burst due to the weight of glucose in them?

A

Micro vascular disease.

226
Q

What organs can micro vascular disease affect?

A

Retina if the eyes, kidneys and the body’s extremities like the arms and legs.

227
Q

What is glucose stored as in the liver?

A

Glycogen.

228
Q

Whenever glucose concentration rises following a meal, receptor cells in which organ detects it?

A

Pancreas.

229
Q

Which hormone is released by the pancreas following a rise in blood glucose levels?

A

Insulin.

230
Q

What organ does insulin hormone released by the pancreas go to?

A

The liver.

231
Q

What reaction is triggered in the liver by the hormone insulin?

A

Glucose -> glycogen.

232
Q

When glucose is converted to glycogen in the liver, what does this do to blood glucose levels?

A

Lowers it.

233
Q

Whenever glucose levels fall and are “gone” from the blood following a period without food or after sleeping, which organ detects it?

A

The pancreas.

234
Q

Which hormone is released by the pancreas following a gal in blood glucose levels?

A

Glucagon.

235
Q

What organ does glucagon hormone released by the liver go to?

A

The liver.

Human Biology (3 decks)

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