Unit 5 - B Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a key reason why non-human animals, rather than human beings, are often used to study the effects reinforcement history?

a. A previous history with the response and the reinforcer is not a problem with animals
b. Non-human animals have less capacity for reinforcement or punishment
c. Non-human animals typically have a shorter life span resulting in shorter learning histories
d. Extra-experimental variables with non-human animals can be more easily controlled

A

d. Extra-experimental variables with non-human animals can be more easily controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Experimenters study the effects of reinforcement history by looking at how past experience with different reinforcement schedules can impact the _____ responding of various experimental subjects.

a. Current
b. Continuous
c. Past
d. Future

A

a. Current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Each of the following is very likely an effect of a specific reinforcement history, except:

a. Contingency-shaped behavior that exhibits an extinction-burst
b. Behavior that persists in some contexts during extinction
c. Rule-governed behavior that does not match current contingencies
d. Responding that occurs at unpredictably high or low rates

A

a. Contingency-shaped behavior that exhibits an extinction-burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Each of the following is a characteristic of a fixed Interval schedule that makes it particularly sensitive to the effects of reinforcement history, except:

a. Response rates can vary widely without affecting reinforcement rate
.b FI schedules do not select against particular rates or patterns of responding
c. Responses during the interval do not influence the delivery of the reinforcer
d. FI schedules result in a steady, moderate response pattern that is easily altered

A

d. FI schedules result in a steady, moderate response pattern that is easily altered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Weiner demonstrated which of the following reinforcement history effects on responding during FI schedules?

a. Exposure to FR schedules before FI dramatically affected FI performance
b. Current contingencies influence on response rate is independent of history
c. Distinct stimuli correlations may decrease influence of history
d. Remote history does not affect future responding

A

a. Exposure to FR schedules before FI dramatically affected FI performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Alleman & Zeiler (1974) found that response rates tended to exhibit which of the following patterns?

a. No difference during FT after exposure to either a DRL or FR
b. High during FT after exposure to a DRL
c. Low during FT after exposure to a FR
d. Low during FT after exposure to a DRL

A

d. Low during FT after exposure to a DRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A previous history of reinforcement is necessary in order to utilize a(n):

a. Time-based schedule
b. Interval schedule
c. Extinction schedule
d. Ratio schedule

A

c. Extinction schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following tends to be easiest for caregivers to implement?

a. These would all be equally difficult to implement
b. Interval-based schedule
c. Ratio-based schedule
d. Extinction schedule

A

b. Interval-based schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Research on schedules of reinforcement, and the effect of various histories of reinforcement, suggests that which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. After using DRA with a ratio schedule to establish a reinforcement history, a shift to an interval schedule may successfully maintain appropriate behavior
b. Response rates on an interval schedule can be manipulated by arranging for particular reinforcement histories in individual learners
c. Ratio schedules are far easier to implement than interval schedules, and require less staffing resources in most settings
d. Effects of reinforcement history can be utilized and manipulated to improve intervention outcomes

A

c. Ratio schedules are far easier to implement than interval schedules, and require less staffing resources in most settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Operant extinction is, in part, defined by:

a. Voluntary responses and broken contingencies
b. Involuntary responses and negative contingencies
c. Involuntary responses and broken contingencies
d. Voluntary responses and negative contingencies

A

a. Voluntary responses and broken contingencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Eva appropriately raises her hand. Her teacher responds to the other children yelling out answers in class, but does not call on Eva when she has her hand raised. After several days, Eva stops raising her hand, and begins to yell out her answers in class. The change in Eva’s hand raising is the result of:

a. DRI
b. Operant Extinction
c. Respondent extinction
d. The high-P procedure

A

b. Operant Extinction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is a difference between operant and respondent extinction?

a. One is based on function, while the other is based on topography
b. One decreases while the other increases frequency of responding
c. Each distinct type works on different types of responses
d. Each distinct type works on different behavioral topographies

A

c. Each distinct type works on different types of responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Operant extinction is a component of which of the following procedures?

a. DRO
b. High- P
c. Prompt fading
d. Punishment

A

a. DRO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The essential feature of the ______ of extinction is discontinuation of the contingency between the response and the reinforcer.

a. Plan
b. Procedure
c. Punishment
d. Process

A

b. Procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Charlotte’s yelling at the grocery store appeared to be maintained by receiving candy. The BCaBA instructs mom to no longer provide candy when Charlotte yells. Charlotte continues to yell for four more weeks with a gradual reduction in duration of this behavior. The gradual reduction in duration of yelling represents ______ of extinction.

a. A side effect
b. A schedule
c. The procedure
d. The process

A

d. The process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In comparison to a target behavior for reduction that is simply annoying or irritating, dangerous or destructive problem behavior is:

a. Almost always more difficult to consistently treat with extinction procedures
b. Far less difficult to address, and far more likely to be reduced by extinction
c. Equally difficult to effectively reduce, but more likely to exhibit an extinction burst
d. Unethical to address through a combination of reinforcement of alternative behavior and extinction

A

a. Almost always more difficult to consistently treat with extinction procedures

17
Q

The implementation of extinction procedures typically produces a(n) ______ reduction in responding.

a. Variable
b. Consistent
c. Immediate
d. Gradual

A

d. Gradual

18
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a response-generative effect of extinction?

a. Aggression
b. Response reduction
c. Emotional outbursts
d. Response variation

A

b. Response reduction

19
Q

Which of the following behaviors is most likely respondent behavior elicited by the initiation of extinction procedures?

a. Initial burst in response rate of target behavior
b. Resurgence of previously extinguished behavior
c. Extinction-induced aggression
d. Response variation

A

c. Extinction-induced aggression

20
Q

Response variation forms the basis for:

a. Teaching response generalization
b. Shaping new behavior
c. Reducing the use of extinction
d. Eliminating aggression

A

b. Shaping new behavior

21
Q

The “response-generative” effects of extinction are also known as the ____ effects of extinction.

a. Primary
b. Positive treatment
c. Side
d. Respondent

A

c. Side

22
Q

When the target behavior treated by extinction returns in a different context, even though extinction procedures are still in effect, this phenomenon is known as:

a. Repetition
b. Return
c. Renewal
d. Resurgence

A

c. Renewal

23
Q

Which of the following is true regarding treatment integrity? Errors of commission are:

a. Defined as occurring when a treatment component is inappropriately applied
b. Seen when the treatment component is not applied when it should have been
c. The only type of treatment integrity error related to extinction
d. Caused by treatment integrity problems, and always lead to treatment relapse

A

a. Defined as occurring when a treatment component is inappropriately applied

24
Q

Which of the following is not a way to plan for extinction-induced aggression?

a. Make sure the treatment procedures selected are functional and doable for the caregiver
b. Immediately place aggression on extinction; supervise caregivers in ignoring all functional equivalents
c. Inform the caregivers of the possible side effects, such as aggression, when implementing extinction
d. Outline possible treatment procedures for controlling and managing aggression

A

b. Immediately place aggression on extinction; supervise caregivers in ignoring all functional equivalents

25
Q

The reduction in a target response placed on extinction can occur much more quickly when combined with ______ procedures targeting alternative responses.

a. All of these are correct
b. Punishment-based
c. Reinforcement-based
d. No other

A

c. Reinforcement-based

26
Q

“PREE” refers to a phenomenon where response reduction typically happens more quickly after ______ reinforcement rather than ______ reinforcement.

a. Fixed; variable
b. Continuous; intermittent
c. Intermittent; continuous
d. Variable; fixed

A

b. Continuous; intermittent

27
Q

Studies cited in this unit demonstrated that the partial reinforcement extinction effect is:

a. Likely to be unethical under all circumstances
b. Unpredictable and potentially influenced by a variety of variables
c. Very likely in operant extinction, but not in respondent extinction conditions
d. Likely to occur whenever intermittent reinforcement follows continuous reinforcement

A

b. Unpredictable and potentially influenced by a variety of variables

28
Q

An unexpected finding in the study of PREE by Lerman and colleagues was the fact that two of the experimental subjects exhibited which of the following?

a. A conclusive PREE effect during baseline
b. A complete lack of responding
c. No PREE effect whatsoever
d. A reverse PREE effect

A

d. A reverse PREE effect

29
Q

All of the following are potential reasons a behavior analyst may want to consider briefly reinforcing problem behavior on a FR1 prior to extinction, except:

a. It directly assesses the reinforcement history of the individual
b. It might be done as part of an experimental functional analysis
c. More rapid extinction effects could be produced
d. The overall response rate could be reduced

A

a. It directly assesses the reinforcement history of the individual

30
Q

The durability of history effects varies significantly across various studies. This is most likely a result of:

a. Treatment integrity issues with some of the studies
b. Differences in experimental procedures or extra-experimental histories
c. The response topography being examined
d. Unreasonable expectations of the experimenters

A

b. Differences in experimental procedures or extra-experimental histories

31
Q

An extreme case of sequential confounding can be characterized as _____.

a. Multiple causation
b. Treatment relapse
c. Skill erosion
d. Irreversibility

A

d. Irreversibility

32
Q

Sequential confounding in the reversal experimental design typically occurs when one phase follows another, and:

a. The effects of the current phase cannot be separated from the history with the previous phase
b. Responding remains the same across multiple phases, producing no effect
c. The sequence of several confounds in an experimental design is ambiguous and unclear
d. Two different schedules of reinforcement are rapidly alternated

A

a. The effects of the current phase cannot be separated from the history with the previous phase

33
Q

Multielement designs may be more prone than other designs to which of the following?

a. Extra-experimental history
b. All of these are problems specific to the multi-element design
c. Carryover/alternation effects
d. Poor discrimination between conditions

A

c. Carryover/alternation effects

34
Q

According to Dr. St. Peter, multiple baseline designs may be desirable clinically, but can have problems in:

a. Treatment integrity
b. Experimental control
c. Sequential irreversibility
d. Accurate data collection

A

b. Experimental control

35
Q

Use of a changing criterion experimental design may help to avoid which of the following problems?

a. Ratio strain
b. Irreversibility
c. Carryover
d. Dependent responding

A

a. Ratio strain