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Microbiology > Unit 5 Study Guide > Flashcards

Unit 5 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

n. What is a multivalent vaccine?

A

i. Immunizes against two or more strains of the same microorganism, or against two or more microorganisms

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2
Q

ii. Antigenic shift?

A
  1. Two strains of Type A enter the same cell and recombine to form a new influenza Type A virus 2. Shift only happens in Type A
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3
Q

d. What are the typical hosts for Ebola and Marburg?

A

i. Thought to be bats

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4
Q

c. Which is the rarest type of polio?

A

i. Paralytic accounts for less than 2% of cases

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5
Q

b. What virus causes hepatitis B?

A

i. Orthohepadnavirus

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6
Q

c. What are adhesins?

A

i. Related to pertussis ii. Filamentous hemagglutinin and pertussis toxin

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7
Q

e. S. pneumonia: What is it?

A

i. Bacterial meningitis ii. Known as Pneumococci iii. Grows as opportunistic infection out of normal flora iv. Leading cause of meningitis in adults

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8
Q

a. What 3 conditions must be satisfied for HIV infection to qualify as AIDS?

A

i. HIV+ ii. AIDS-defining condition iii. CD4 < 200

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9
Q

b. Which type(s) of botulism are most fatal?

A

i. Foodborne and wound (10% fatality rate)

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10
Q

c. What are the meningitis pathogens?

A

i. N. meningitidis ii. S. pneumoniae iii. H. influenza iv. L. monocytogenes v. S. agalactiae

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11
Q

f. How can chickenpox and shingles be prevented?

A

i. Vaccine

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12
Q

e. What is the polio pathogen?

A

i. Poliovirus (a species of Enterovirus) (family Picornaviradae)

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13
Q

HIV iv. What is integrase?

A
  1. After ssRNA has become dsDNA, integrase inserts the dsDNA into the human chromosome
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14
Q

Rabies ii. How does the virus get from the muscular system into the nervous system?

A
  1. Crosses neuromuscular junctions into neurons
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15
Q

e. What are the 4 stages of pertussis and what happens during each stage?

A

i. Period of incubation ii. Catarrhal phase (2 weeks) 1. Presentation of cold-like symptoms iii. Paroxysmal phase (2-4 weeks) 1. Increase mucous 2. Coughing increases to severe iv. Convalescent phase (2-4 weeks) 1. Potentially still infectious

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16
Q

c. Describe the shape of the rabies virus particle:

A

i. Capsid shape 1. Helical capsid supercoiled into cylinders ii. Envelope shape 1. Bullet-shaped envelopes

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17
Q

f. What is the preventative measure for pertussis?

A

i. Vaccine

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18
Q

b. What pathogen causes malaria?

A

i. Genus Plasmodium

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19
Q

b. What are the signs and symptoms of bacterial meningitis?

A

i. Headache, cold symptoms, fever, confusion, stiffness in neck (due to inflammation of meninges)

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20
Q

h. Why are there so many strains of influenza virus?

A

i. Mutations and recombinations in the genes coding for HA and NA

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21
Q

c. What is the pathogenesis of shigellosis?

A

i. Attaches to epithelial cell of colon ii. Triggers endocytosis iii. Replicates inside epithelial cells iv. Actin filament/tail propels to neighboring cells v. Abscess forms (causes dysentery)

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22
Q

b. Which species produces shiga toxin?

A

i. S. dysenteriae

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23
Q

d. How does the pathogenesis of the disease tie into the signs/symptoms of the 4 types of polio?

A

i. Polio is most commonly found in water, so when contaminated water is ingested the disease replicates in the throat and small intestine, causing initial symptoms of sore throat and nausea. In most cases, the disease ends here.

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24
Q

b. What are the viruses which cause Ebola and Marburg?

A

i. Family Filoviridae ii. Genus Ebolavirus and Marburgvirus

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25
Q

a. What are the signs/symptoms of hepatitis?

A

i. Related to damage of the liver ii. Yellowing of skin and eyes (jaundice), abdominal pain and distension, dark urine, light-colored stools, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, fever, and weight loss

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26
Q

b. Which one is most common type of polio?

A

i. 90% of cases are asymptomatic

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27
Q

e. What are the 3 types of tuberculosis?

A

i. TB ii. MDR-TB iii. XDR-TB

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28
Q

HIV v. What is protease?

A
  1. Once outside of the cell, protease cleaves a polypeptide within the capsid to release functional proteins 2. Protease inhibitors are a primary drug used to treat HIV+ patients
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29
Q

a. What are some signs and symptoms of Ebola and Marburg? What causes these signs and symptoms?

A

i. Fever, fatigue, dizziness, muscle pain and exhaustion, followed by minor petechiae (spots on the skin) ii. Later progresses to severe internal hemorrhaging and bleeding from other orifices iii. Death from shock, seizures, or kidney failure

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30
Q

i. What is a Dane particle?

A

i. Complete, infectious virions associated with hepatitis B

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31
Q

g. How are the incubation periods for the hepatitis B and hepatitis C viruses different (which one is longer? Which one is shorter?)

A

i. B: 70-100 days ii. C: 42-49 days

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32
Q
  1. What is bacteremia
A

a. Bacteria in the blood

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33
Q

a. What are the signs and symptoms of necrotizing fasciitis?

A

i. Hot, intense pain, sunburn-like rash ii. Subsequent fever, fatigue, and muscle aches iii. Ultimately blood pressure drops and leads to coma and death

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34
Q

a. What are the signs and symptoms of rabies?

A

i. Pain and itching at site of infection, fever, headache, malaise, and anorexia ii. Once it reaches the CNS, symptoms include hydrophobia (due to pain involved in attempts to swallow), seizures, disorientation, hallucinations, and paralysis iii. Death results from respiratory paralysis and other neurological complications

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35
Q

c. What are the 3 phases of the Plasmodium life cycle? Describe each phase.

A

i. Liver phase (in human) 1. Sporozoites enter the blood and invade liver cells 2. Undergo schizogony, and after two weeks, the cells rupture and release 30,000-40,000 merozoites into the blood ii. Erythrocytic cycle (in human) 1. Merozoites enter erythrocytes and become trophozoite rings 2. They undergo schizogony again, happens cyclically every 48-72 hours iii. Sporogonic phase (in mosquito)

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36
Q

l. What is the pathogenesis of influenza?

A

i. Enters the body via the respiratory route ii. Epithelial cells in lung endocytize the virus

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37
Q

d. N. meningitides: What is it?

A

i. Meningitis ii. Known as Meningococcus (meningococcal meningitis) iii. Blebbing is shedding of cell wall, which contains Lipid A iv. Virulence: fimbriae, capsule, cell wall

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38
Q

i. Which species of meningitis are most prevalent?

A

i. S. pneumoniae leading cause ii. N. meningitidis most common in college-age students

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39
Q

c. Ebola: What causes the hemorrhaging in humans?

A

i. Virus triggers a malfunction of the blood-clotting system, in which infected macrophages trigger localized blood clotting that in turn depletes the serum of clotting proteins, thereby making the body susceptible to massive bleeding/hemorrhaging

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40
Q

f. What is the botulism pathogen? What makes this pathogen virulent?

A

i. Clostridium Botulinum ii. Endospores can survive improper canning of non-acidic foods iii. Produces extremely deadly neurotoxins

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41
Q

d. What is cord factor and how does it make the pathogen virulent?

A

i. Cord factor produces daughter cells that surround and protect it

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42
Q

a. What are the other names for chickenpox and shingles?

A

i. Varicella

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43
Q

c. Structure of HIV: i. Does it have an envelope?

A
  1. HIV has an envelope
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44
Q

d. What is the pathogenesis of malaria (This will help explain what causes the various signs and symptoms)

A

i. Anemia, weakness, fatigue, and jaundice due to the damage to liver and erythrocytes

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45
Q

e. What is the treatment and the fatality rates of Ebola and Marburg?

A

i. Ebola fatality rate: 90% ii. Marburg fatality rate: 25% iii. No antiviral drugs to treat iv. Treatment focuses on replacing lost fluids and electrolytes, maintaining blood oxygenation and pressure, replacing lost blood, and treating any secondary infections or complications

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46
Q

c. What are the major virulence factors associated with pseudomonas and what does each one do?

A

i. Fimbriae/adhesins 1. Biofilms ii. Capsule iii. Elastase 1. Breaks down elastic fiber iv. Endotoxin (Lipid A) v. Exotoxin A and Exoenzyme S 1. Inhibit eukaryotic protein synthesis 2. Cells die within 3-4 days without protein synthesis vi. Pyocyanin 1. This is the blueish-green pigment 2. Triggers formation of reactive forms of oxygen (i.e., superoxide radical)

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47
Q

d. Describe the steps in the replication cycle of HIV (8 steps)

A

i. Attachment ii. Entry iii. Uncoating iv. Synthesis of DNA v. Integration (ssDNA enters the nucleus) vi. Synthesis of RNA and polypeptides vii. Release (forms an immature virion) viii. Assembly and maturation (protease)

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48
Q

f. How are hepatitis B/C viruses transmitted?

A

i. Sexual (anal) intercourse, needles, razors, toothbrushes, or contact with blood and open sores

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49
Q

g. How does the botulism toxin impair normal nerve/muscle signaling? What are the treatments?

A

i. The botulism toxin binds irreversibly to the terminal end of the axon, preventing the release of ACh

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50
Q
  1. What is toxemia
A

a. Toxins in the blood b. (Also refers to pre-eclampsia)

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51
Q

f. H. influenza: What is it?

A

i. Meningitis (not flu) ii. Pleomorphic – changes shape iii. Obligate parasite – requires heme for growth

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52
Q

e. How can pathogenesis of chickenpox lead to shingles: where does the virus stay dormant? How does reactivation of the virus lead to the signs/symptoms of shingles?

A

i. Virus lies dormant in nerve ganglia and can reactivate, usually after age 45 ii. Reactivated virus travels down the nerve to the skin and manifests as lesions of shingles in the band of skin innervated by that nerve

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53
Q

c. What are the virulence factors of necrotizing fasciitis and what does each one do?

A

i. Deoxyribonuclease 1. Breaks down DNA ii. Hyaluronidase iii. Streptokinase iv. M. protein 1. Disrupts phagocytosis v. Toxins: Streptolysin S and Exotoxin A 1. Damage cells and tissue

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54
Q

c. What virus causes hepatitis C?

A

i. Hepacivirus

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55
Q

j. What are spherical and filamentous particles?

A

i. Empty particles associated with hepatitis B, meant to confuse the immune system

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56
Q

a. What are some signs and symptoms of Malaria?

A

i. Symptoms are associated with immune response against the parasites, cellular debris, and toxins ii. Fever, chills, diarrhea, headache, and occasionally pulmonary or dardiac dysfunction iii. Eventually anemia, weakness, and fatigue iv. Possible jaundice

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57
Q

d. Why is hepatitis B referred to as serum hepatitis?

A

i. Released by exocytosis (rather than cell lysis) which continually releases virions

58
Q

e. Which type(s) of botulism are caused by a toxin, rather than the bacteria itself?

A

i. Foodborne is consumption of botulism toxin ii. Infant and Wound are growth of the bacteria

59
Q

g. L. monocytogenes: What is it?

A

i. Meningitis ii. Rarely pathogenic in healthy adults iii. Can cause infection in pregnant women, fetuses, newborns, the elderly, and immunocompromised patients iv. From contaminated food and drink

60
Q

b. What are the signs/symptoms of influenza?

A

i. Sudden fever (39-41C, 102-106F), pharyngitis, congestion, dry cough, malaise, headache, and myalgia (muscle pain) ii. Fever is the distinguishing factor from a cold

61
Q

HIV: ii. What are the attachment molecules?

A
  1. Gp120 (primary attachment molecule) 2. Gp41 (promotes fusion of the viral envelope with cytoplasmic membrane of CD4)
62
Q

f. Is there polio in the US?

A

i. There have been no cases of polio in the US since 1979

63
Q

i. What is antigenic drift?

A
  1. Mutations and recombinations in the genes coding for HA and NA spikes 2. Drift happens in both Type A and Type B
64
Q

b. What is the pertussis pathogen?

A

i. Bordetella pertussis

65
Q
  1. What is septicemia
A

a. Blood poisoning, especially that caused by bacteria or toxins

66
Q

d. What is the pathogenesis of chickenpox?

A

i. Infection begins in the mucous membrane of the respiratory tract and spreads to the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes via blood and lymph

67
Q

b. What is the TB pathogen?

A

i. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

68
Q

j. How often do outbreaks from antigenic drift occur?

A
  1. Regularly
69
Q

g. How are influenza virus strains named?

A

i. Subtypes of hemagglutinin and neuraminidase ii. E.g., H5N1 has hemagglutinin subtype five and neuraminidase subtype one

70
Q

a. What is the leading disease killer in the world?

A

i. Tuberculosis

71
Q

d. What are the toxins produced by this pertussis and what do they do?

A

i. Pertussis toxin 1. Increases mucous production ii. Adenylate cyclase toxin 1. Increases mucous production 2. Inhibits phagocytosis iii. Dermonecrotic toxin 1. Localized constriction of blood vessels 2. Tissue death in respiratory system iv. Tracheal toxin 1. “Freezes” cilia escalator

72
Q

g. Where is polio still endemic?

A

i. Polio remains endemic in Pakistan and Afghanistan

73
Q

a. What species are the pathogens that cause shigellosis?

A

i. S. dysenteriae (shiga toxin) ii. S. flexneri (developed nations) iii. S. boydii (both) iv. S. sonnei (industrial nations)

74
Q

HIV iii. What type of genome does it have?

A
  1. ssRNA
75
Q

c. What family of viruses do influenza viruses belong to?

A

i. Orthomyxoviruses ii. Type A and B

76
Q

HIV vi. What is reverse transcriptase?

A
  1. Transcribes dsDNA from the ssRNA
77
Q

i. What are some preventative measures for TB?

A

i. Immunization in countries where it is common ii. PPE for healthcare workers

78
Q

a. What are the 3 types of Botulism?

A

i. Foodborne botulism ii. Infant botulism iii. Wound botulism

79
Q

a. What are the 4 types of polio? What are their signs and symptoms?

A

i. Asymptomatic ii. Minor polio – Nonspecific symptoms, 5% of cases iii. Nonparalytic polio – polio invades meninges and CNS – Muscle spasms and back pain iv. Paralytic polio – Virus invades spinal cord and primary motor cortex – Paralysis of respiratory system or other muscle systems

80
Q

b. What is the rabies pathogen?

A

i. Genus Lyssavirus (family Rhabdoviridae)

81
Q

e. Describe the steps in the pathogenesis of AIDS (5)

A

i. Primary infection – flu-like symptoms ii. Antibodies produced, HIV levels fall iii. Clinical latency iv. HIV production climbs v. Death

82
Q

j. Which species of meningitis has the highest mortality rate?

A

i. N. meningitidis 1. 100% death rate without treatment 2. 11% fatality with treatment

83
Q

Rabies iii. What are the reservoirs for rabies? Which one is most prevalent in WI?

A
  1. Primary reservoir of rabies in urban areas is dogs 2. In WI, bats and skunks are primary reservoirs (Wisconsin DHS)
84
Q

a. What is the leading bacterial infection of CNS worldwide

A

i. Bacterial meningitis

85
Q

a. What are the signs and symptoms of pseudomonas infection?

A

i. Fever, chills, and shock ii. Green pigmentation

86
Q

e. Why is it difficult for the immune system to clear the hepatitis C virus from the body?

A

i. It replicates RNA without proofreading, causing many genetic strains within the patient

87
Q

k. For which of the meningitis species can you receive a vaccine?

A

i. N. meningitidis

88
Q

b. What is the most common pathogen that causes necrotizing fasciitis?

A

i. Streptococcus pyogenes

89
Q

h. S. agalactiae: What is it?

A

i. Leading cause of meningitis in infants

90
Q

c. Which type(s) of botulism have the highest incidence?

A

i. Foodborne and wound

91
Q

b. What are the signs and symptoms of chickenpox and shingles?

A

i. Slight fever, skin lesions

92
Q

h. How is tuberculosis diagnosed?

A

i. Skin test ii. Chest X-ray for active TB

93
Q

d. What is the pathogenesis of pseudomonas?

A

i. Burn wounds are primary entryway

94
Q

a. What is the main symptom of pertussis?

A

i. Persistent, violent coughing spells followed by high-pitched, wheezing inhalation (whoop)

95
Q

e. How is a patient diagnosed with a P. aeruginosa infection?

A

i. Difficult to diagnose because its presence in a culture frequently represents contamination of the specimen (since it is found everywhere in the environment)

96
Q

d. What is the pathogenesis of the disease: i. What cells are infected first?

A
  1. Rabies attaches to skeletal muscle and triggers its own endocytosis
97
Q

e. How do you treat rabies?

A

i. Site of infection is thoroughly cleaned ii. Human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV) iii. Subsequent treatment involves human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG)

98
Q

e. What are hemagglutanin and neuraminidase?

A

i. Glycoprotein spikes on orthomyxoviruses (influenza)

99
Q

f. What are the 2 types of influenza virus?

A

i. Type A and B

100
Q

d. Influenza: how many pieces of genome are there?

A

i. Eight different ssRNA molecules

101
Q

c. What is mycolic acid and how does it make the pathogen virulent?

A

i. Slow-growing ii. Mycolic acid is a waxy lipid, which protects from lysis iii. Capable of intracellular growth iv. Resistance to gram staining v. Resistance to many antibiotics

102
Q

What are Negri bodies?

A
  1. Found in the cytoplasm of nerve cells infected with rabies
103
Q

b. What is the causative agent of a Pseudomonas infection?

A

i. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

104
Q

f. What is the most common infection in burn patients?

A

i. Psudomonas infection

105
Q
  1. What is meant by Acquired (secondary) immunodeficiency
A

a. Develops later in life as a direct consequence of some other recognized cause, such as malnutrition, severe stress, or infectious disease

106
Q

h. What are the two vaccines against polio? How are they different? What are the advantages/disadvantages to each?

A

i. Salk vaccine – inactivated polio vaccine (IPV), and Sabin vaccine – attenuated, oral polio vaccine (OPV)

107
Q

k. How often do outbreaks from antigenic shift occur?

A

i. Once a decade

108
Q

h. How can hepatitis B be diagnosed?

A

i. Presence of Dane particles, spherical particles (empty), and filamentous particles (empty)

109
Q

c. What virus causes chickenpox and shingles?

A

i. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) (genus Varicellovirus) causes both

110
Q

d. How do the signs and symptoms of the types of botulism differ?

A

i. Foodborne: Weakness, dizziness, fixed dilated pupils, dry mouth, constipation, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain – followed by progressive paralysis of all skeletal muscles ii. Infant: Crying, constipation, and failure to thrive iii. Wound: Similar to foodborne, but longer incubation period (4+ days)

111
Q

a. What categories are influenza and the common cold in?

A

i. Cold – Viral disease of the upper respiratory system ii. Flu – Viral disease of the lower respiratory system

112
Q

The majority of cases of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome occur in

A

menstruating women

113
Q

A small puncture wound on a woman’s arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intensely painful. There is tissue necrosis, but it is not “gassy,” and under the microscope Gram-positive cocci in chains are present. Which of the following microbes is likely to be responsible?

A

S. pyogenes

114
Q

Diagnosis of hepatitis B infection is made by the observation of which of the following in the patient’s body fluids?

A

Dane particles

115
Q

A child is brought to the hospital with a high fever, nausea, and vomiting, and complaining of headache. The cerebrospinal fluid collected by spinal tap is cloudy and contains spherical cells which stain Gram-positive. These signs and symptoms are consistent with

A

B) bacterial meningitis probably due to Streptococcus

116
Q

Bordetella pertussis produces which toxins

A

Pertussis toxin

Adenylate cyclase toxin

Dermonecrotic toxin

Tracheal toxin

117
Q

Which of the following diseases is a major problem for AIDS patients? A) brucellosis B) Lyme diseas C) hemorrhagic fevers D) Chagas’ disease E) toxoplasmosis

A

Toxoplasmosis

118
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by

A

E. both streptococcus pyogenes and staphylococcus aureus

119
Q

What member of the human intestinal microbiota occasionally causes life-threatening disease?

A

E) Clostridium difficile

120
Q

A nursing student develops a positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test. A history reveals possible exposure to patients with tuberculosis. A sputum sample is acid-fast negative. When asked for vaccination records, the student reports that childhood vaccination records were lost when the family emigrated from a southeast Asian country. What is the best explanation for the test results?

A

A) The student has been exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis or was vaccinated with BCG vaccine

121
Q

Which of the following is/are antiphagocytic? A) M protein B) leukocidin C) protein A D) both protein A and M protein E) protein A, M protein, and leukocidin

A

E

122
Q

A young woman being treated for serious burns develops severe diarrhea accompanied by intense abdominal pain. She passes several watery, foul-smelling, bloody stools a day. A colonoscopy reveals patches of yellowish lesions in the large intestine. The probably causative agent is

A

C) Clostridium difficile

123
Q

Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding the common cold? A. Cold viruses are frequently spread by contaminated fomites B. Only coronaviruses cause the common cold C. Cold viruses reproduce most effectively at 37 degrees celsius D. The viruses can infect both upper and lower respiratory tracts E. The immune system cannot develop an effective response to cold viruses

A

A

124
Q

A rash characterized by macules which swell, fill with fluid and then pus, then rupture and become crusty lesions, is characteristic of

A

B) poxvirus infection.

125
Q

The rash described as “teardrops on rose petals” is characterized as

A

chickenpox

126
Q

Botulism toxin disrupts motor control by

A

C) blocking the release of acetylcholine by motor neurons

127
Q

The typical signs and symptoms of flu are a result of

A

E. cytokines released as part of the immune response

128
Q

Schizogony is an important aspect of which of the following pathogens? (what disease is this associated with?)

A

C. Plasmodium species (malaria)

129
Q

A person is brought to the emergency room with constant high fever, extensive edema, low blood pressure, and petechiae. Which of the following may the person be suffering from?

A

Septicemia

130
Q

The disease known as cryptococcal meningitis results from

A

E) results from exposure to bird droppings and begins as a lung infection

131
Q

Care in the handling and disposal of diapers in day care centers may prevent the spread of which of the following?

A

B. Giardia intestinalis

132
Q

What is the primary determinant of virulence in Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

B) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule

133
Q

What is foodborne botulism classified as

A

D) it is an intoxication disorder

134
Q

A pneumonia caused by Gram-positive diplococci is known as

A

D) pneumococcal pneumonia

135
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding tuberculosis? A. Only virulent strains of Mycobacterium tuberculosis produce mycolic acid? B. It remains viable in dried aerosol droplets for up to eight months C. The immune system is not affected by the infection D. It occurs only in the lungs E. Several hundred cells are required for infection

A

B

136
Q

Smallpox was the first human disease to be A) analyzed and studied on the genetic level B) identified as a viral disease C) treated with antiviral drugs D) globally eradicated E) re-created in an experimental animal

A

D

137
Q

The type of bacterial meningitis that becomes epidemic among adults is caused by

A

D) Neisseria meningitidis

138
Q

Of the following, who is most likely to develop a chronic infection with hepatitis B virus? A) newborns B) young adults C) children between the ages of 2 and 12 D) the elderly E) females at puberty

A

A

139
Q

Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough by

A

C) interfering with the activity of ciliated epithelial cells in the trachea

140
Q

A pigment produced by an opportunistic pathogen that contributes to tissue damage is

A

A. pyocyanin

141
Q

Slow deterioration of muscle function occurring over many years occurs in

A

D. postpolio syndrome

Microbiology (6 decks)

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