vaccines Flashcards

1
Q

how many deaths are avoided because of vaccinations

A

Vaccines are hailed as one of the greatest global health achievements, avoiding an estimated 2-3 million deaths per year (WHO) and significantly reduce child mortality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the purpose of vaccines

A

The primary purpose of vaccinations is to protect the individual from infectious diseases that can cause significant harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is meant by herd immunity

A

When an individual is vaccinated, they become less of a threat to others as the disease cannot spread as widely, reducing outbreaks, reducing the reservoir of susceptible people, and ultimately leading to the eradication of the disease-causing agent – this is herd immunity. Herd immunity is extremely important as it protects those who are vulnerable or cannot be vaccinated (infants, elderly, pregnant women, immunosuppressed).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what kind of people are susceptible to diseases

A

Babies lack immunity, and older people’s immunity declines over time. Some groups are more susceptible to infectious diseases, or the risk of serious harm is higher; pregnant women and those with co-morbidities. Social changes, where one is introduced to a different environment or different people increases the risk of exposure to previously unseen infectious diseases; when children start school or young people start university, vaccines are recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the side effects associated with vaccines

A

There are risks with vaccines. In most cases, the recipient will develop a mild illness in response to the vaccine (fever, rash) and pain or swelling at the injection site. Sometimes, the vaccine fails to give a sufficient immune response and in very rare cases (1 in a million), anaphylaxis will occur due to excipient or antigen related to allergen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is the prevalence of infection affected by the environment

A

The prevalence of an infectious disease is affected by the environment; in the UK, the influenza virus is common in winter because it thrives when temperatures are lower. Sudden outbreaks of a disease, prevention of other risks related to the disease and the desire for herd immunity against an infectious agent push the need for vaccines.
The cost of mass manufacturing of a vaccine must be taken into consideration against the effectiveness of the programme. If the cost is high with poor immunity rates, the vaccine will not be brought to market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why are vaccines required

A

New vaccines are required because of recent antibiotic resistance, the threat of new zoonotic pathogens, and because prophylaxis is better than a cure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how were vaccines developed by Edward Jenner and Louis Pasteur

A

Edward Jenner variolated his patients. Dried smallpox scabs were introduced to an abrasion of the skin of a boy’s arm. He then contracted a mild form of the disease. Upon recovery, the individual was immune to smallpox (tested by reintroduction). Between 1% to 2% of those variolated died as compared to 30% who died when they contracted the disease naturally.
Louis Pasteur developed weakened (attenuated) strains of Pasteurella after noticing that repeated cultures reduced its pathogenicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is meant by immunity

A

Immunity is the ability of the human body to protect itself from infectious disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is meant by innate immunity

A

Innate immunity is non-specific and non-adaptive It is the immunity that is present from birth. It includes:
• Physical barriers (e.g. intact skin and mucous membranes)
• Chemical barriers (e.g. gastric acid, digestive enzymes and bacteriostatic fatty acids of the skin)
• Biological barriers (e.g. phagocytic cells and the complement system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is meant by acquired immunity

A

Acquired immunity is generally specific to a single organism or to a group of closely related organisms. Acquired immunity is developed by active or passive processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is meant by active immunity

A

Active immunity is protection that is produced by an individual’s own immune system and is usually long-lasting. Such immunity generally involves cellular responses (cell-mediated), humoral responses (antibody-mediated) or a combination acting on the infecting organism. Active immunity can be acquired by natural disease or by vaccination. Vaccines generally provide immunity similar to that provided by the natural infection, but without the risk from the disease or its complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe how cell mediated immunity works

A

Cell-mediated immunity is controlled by a subset of lymphocytes called T lymphocytes or T cells. T cells mediate three principal functions: help, suppression and cytotoxicity.
• Cytotoxic T cells (CTLs, where CD8+ is the most common) recognise and destroy infected cells by phagocytosis to destroy pathogens.
• T-helper cells (CD4+) stimulate and modulate the immune response of other cells; they activate phagocytic macrophages by cytokines, in particular IFN-, to destroy and engulf bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe how antibody-mediated immunity works

A

Antibody-mediated responses are produced by B lymphocytes (B cells). When a B cell encounters an antigen that it recognises, the B cell is stimulated to proliferate and produce large numbers of lymphocytes secreting an antibody to this antigen. Replication and differentiation of B cells into plasma cells is regulated by contact with the antigen and by interactions with T cells (a type of lymphocyte), macrophages and complement. They provide immunity by:
• Neutralising antibodies (nABs), which block the binding of pathogens to cell-surface receptors, preventing the pathogen from becoming infective
• Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC), which makes CD8 cells target infected cells
• Opsonising, which involves coating pathogens and targeting them for phagocytosis
• Complement cascade, where the antibody-antigen complexes activate the cascade leads to destruction of pathogen via phagocytosis or bacterial membrane attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the different roles of the different subtypes of antibodies

A

IgM is a major antibody in the complement cascade. It is induced by vaccination.
IgG is systemic, found in blood, lymph nodes and tissues. It performs all major roles (nABs, ADCC, Opsonisation & complement cascade). It is induced by vaccination.
IgA is the principle isotope in mucosal secretions in the gastro-intestinal, respiratory & genital tracts. It is a less potent opsonin and a weak activator of complement but is a strong viral neutraliser.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is passive immunity

A

Passive immunity is protection provided from the transfer of from immune individuals. Naturally, immunity is passed from mother to child across the placenta (IgG) during the last 10 weeks of pregnancy and from breast milk (secretory IgA). This protects against lung and GI infections; bottle-fed babies are 60x more likely to develop pneumonia in first 3 months of life compared to breast-fed babies. However, protection provided by the cross-placental transfer of antibodies from mother to child is more effective against some infections (e.g. tetanus and measles) than for others (e.g. polio and whooping cough). This protection is temporary, lasting for only a few weeks or months.
Passive immunity can be caused by transfusion of blood or blood products including immunoglobulin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how do vaccines produce their protective effect

A

Vaccines produce their protective effect by inducing active acquired immunity and providing immunological memory; memory cells allow the immune system to recognise and respond rapidly to re-infection, which higher antibody concentrations.
For a vaccine to be effective, it must trigger the proliferation of naïve t-cells. Success depends on whether CD4+ Th1 and CD8+ responses are induced (intracellular organisms) or CD4+ Th2 responses are induced (extracelullar organisms).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how to naive T cells work to produce their protective effects

A

• Naïve T-cells proliferate in response to an antigen, forming effector cells (which deal with the present infective agent) and memory cells (which remember the infective agent so upon re-infection, the immune system can respond very quickly and potently to destroy it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how do naive B cells work to produce their protective effect

A

• Naïve B-cells proliferate in response to an antigen, forming plasma cells (which deal with the present infective agent) and memory cells (which remember the infective agent so upon re-infection, the immune system can respond very quickly and potently to destroy it).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

explain how paediatric immunity works

A

Babies are at their most vulnerable for the first 28 days of their life. Although antibody synthesis begins in foetus at 20 weeks, infants are reliant on maternal ABs for the first 2 months. Because of this, children under 8 weeks cannot be vaccinated. After 8 weeks, they can be vaccinated. However, their adaptive immune system is immature (T-cells are all naïve but do not respond to antigens) and attenuated viruses pose the risk of virulence. As a consequence, toxoids, glycoconjugates and recombinant protein vaccines can be used, with aluminium-based adjuvants. These are weakly immunogenic and require booster immunisations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when was the first paediatric vaccine given

A

The first paediatric vaccines are given at 2 months because maternal antibodies begin waning. The inactivated components of the Infanrix vaccine are safe to use, and there is a high risk of infection from pathogens contained in the vaccine. There is also a high risk of infection of Men B & Rotavirus. PCV conjugate vaccine is given because the immature immune system cannot process polysaccharide-only vaccines. Boosters are given at 12 & 16 weeks, to ensure immunity. Side effects of the Infanrix vaccine include dermatitis, restlessness, crying and disturbed sleep; the Rotarix vaccine may cause vomiting/ diarrhoea.

At 1-year, thymic T cells develop. These cope with attenuated vaccine, unless there is a malignancy/ disease where the the immune system is compromised. The MMR vaccine is given at 1-year, and the flu vaccine is given at 2-years. By age 5, the immune system is fully developed. The MMR vaccine may cause malaise (general discomfort), fever or rash.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe how elders immunity works

A

T-cells stop living after about 40 divisions due to the short length of telomeres. B-cell clones can outgrow and become malignant. T & B cell senesce results in more infections, especially respiratory tract infections. The elderly may contract shingles due to latent chickenpox virus (varicella zoster); this is a sign of secondary immunodeficiency due to malignant B-cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what characteristics must a vaccine have

A

Vaccines must be safe, with low toxicity. They must offer effective protection against infective agent to rapidly generate herd immunity and ideally, produce long-lived immunity to reduce the amount of booster doses required; this reduces the cost involved and complexity of vaccine regimens. They should be cheap, or cost-effective, as they will be administered widely.
They should contain only purified components (i.e. the key antigens only): for intracellular organisms, CTL and Abs are needed, for extracellular organisms, only Abs are needed. They should target specific epitopes (the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself), as some epitopes do not generate protective Abs/ CTLs and may cause adverse side effects.
Stimulation of mucosal immunity may be required to provide defence at the point of entry. They may have to include pre-existing antibodies to form the antigen-antibody complex which is phagocytosed (e.g. diphtheria & tetanus endotoxins) or block viral-ligand cell receptor interaction (e.g. Polio & HIV).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the different types of vaccines

A

• Monovalent vaccines offer immunity against a single antigen/strain of a pathogenic microorganism (e.g. Rotavix).
• Multivalent vaccines offer immunity against multiple strains of a pathogenic microorganism (e.g. Men ACWY).
• Combination vaccines offer immunity against multiple pathogenic microorganisms (e.g. Infanrix hexa 6-in-1).
• Heterologous vaccines offer immunity against a pathogen that shares cross-reacting antigens with the microorganism present in the vaccine (e.g. small-pox vaccinia).
Homotypic vaccines contain one component.
• Heterotypic vaccines contain many components; this may be a modified whole cell, a toxoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what viral and bacterial infections do live vaccine target

A

viral: MMR
Influenza
Rotavirus
Polio

bacterial
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (BCG)
Salmonella typhi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what viral and bacterial infections does attenuated (killed) vaccines target

A

viral: Influenza
Polio (IPV)

bacterial:
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Clostridium tetani
Haemophilus influenzae type b
Bordetella pertussis
Rickettsia spp. (typhus)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what viral and bacterial infections does purified protein and toxoids vaccines target

A

viral:Palivizumab is a monoclonal antibody that recognises Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

bacterial:
Corynebacterium diphtheriae (toxoid)
Clostridium tetani (toxoid)
Neisseria meningitidis (group B)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what viral and bacterial infections does recombinant protein vaccines target

A

viral : Hepatitis B

bacterials: Neisseria meningitidis (group B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what virus infections does the virus like vaccine target

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what bacterial infection does the polysaccharide vaccine target

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
(NHS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what bacterial infection does the Glycoconjugate vaccine target

A

Neisseria meningitidis (groups A, C, W, Y)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is a live (attenuated) vaccine

A

Attenuation is the process of losing the virulence of a pathogenic organism. Previously, the organism was attenuated via repeated passage in cells or chick embryos. Now, attenuation is achieved via mutation of a specific genes in non-human cells; the virus is isolated & grown in human cultured cells, then used to infect monkey cells. The virus acquires many mutations that enable proliferation in monkey cells, but it no longer grows well in human cells, so can be used as a vaccine. If the antigen responsible for inducing protective immunity is known, genetic manipulation allows the creation of a safe, potent vaccine. To attenuate, only 10 genomes need to be changed; this prevents virulence but give immune response. Live vaccines require cold chain (refrigeration). Attenuated vaccines are only used in those with mature immune system (aged 2-65 and non-immunosuppressed. Attenuated vaccines generally give a better immune response because it triggers both types of immunity, producing Abs & CTLs, and also gives mucosal immunity.
e.g. Oral polio vaccine (OPV) – oral drop offers lifelong immunity. In addition, the vaccine is shed in faeces, so in areas where faecal contamination is prevalent, it may offer mass immunisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is a killed vaccine

A

Virus/bacteria grown in culture and the organism can be inactivated physically (heat, radiation) or chemically (formalin). It must be tested for inactivation before use. If vaccine only contains killed microorganisms, no cold chain is required. Therefore, killed vaccines are better in less-developed countries, or hard-to-reach regions. They can be used in children, elderly & immunosuppressed. However, a limitation is that only Abs are produced; no CTLs and no mucosal immunity is produced, so multi-doses are needed (priming, boosting at specific intervals).
e.g. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV) – two injections protects 90% of the population; three injections protects 99% of the population at $25-50 per person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a purified protein vaccine

A

Pathogenic organisms may emit a toxin, which induce powerful Th2-type response (ABs). The toxin can be chemically inactivated using formalin to become toxoid, which is active as a vaccine. Immunisation with toxoids creates memory B-cells which produce nABs upon reinfection, where they bind to and complex the bacterial toxins, inactivating them.
e.g. Humanised IgG mAB, Palivizumab is used to treat severe paediatric Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) infection by passive immunisation; it binds to fusion protein on RSV, preventing the virus from binding to surface receptors on target cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is a recombinant vaccine

A

Subunit vaccines contain only specific antigens/ epitopes that induce potent & specific protective immune responses. Adverse reactions are rare, the contain specific antigens/epitopes induce protection. Once the key antigens/epitopes identified, subunit vaccines can be manufactured:

  1. Chemical fractionation of microbe
    a. purification and stabilisation of key antigens
    b. chemical linkage of antigens (if needed)
  2. If key epitopes are known
    a. Manufacture as peptides, that link amino acids in specific sequence
    b. Three-dimensional epitopes are created using “Scaffolds”
  3. Recombinant DNA technology
    a. Genetic construct coding for antigens/polyepitopes
    b. Expression as soluble proteins/ glycoproteins
    e. g. the gene responsible for Hepatitis B’s Surface Antigen is isolated and introduced into yeast, where it is modified and may be expressed as pure HBsAg.
    e. g. pertussis – four protective antigens (pertussis toxin (PT), filamentous haemagglutinin (FHA), pertactin (PRN) and fimbrial antigens were isolated and incorporated into Infanrix vaccine, replacing the whole-cell vaccine. It was as effective, few/ no side effects.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a virus like particle vaccine

A

The particles self-assemble and form a structure similar to the virus, which is recognised by APCs. e.g. Gardisil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is a polysaccharide vaccine

A

Encapsulated bacteria (see table) have a slimy layer composed of polysaccharides. This polysaccharide capsule is antigenic, producing an immune response independent of T-cells. It is useful in adults, but provides little protective immunity in children, because they cannot produce a T-cell-independent immune response or lay down memory cells. e.g. Pneumovax 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is a Glycoconjugate vaccine

A

Since polysaccharide vaccines are not effective in children, modification of antigens is needed: Chemically-coupling of the polysaccharide capsular antigens (PS) to a carrier protein (e.g. toxoid from tetanus/ diphtheria). e.g. Men ACWY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are effective deliveries of injections based on

A

Effective delivery is based on the following notions:
• efficient encapsulation (trapping) of the active
• successful ‘targeting’ of the active to a ‘specific’ region of the body & pathogen
• successful release of that active in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how is vaccines given via IM

A

Most vaccines are given via IM injection; however, this is impractical in a number of ways. Firstly, it is painful and therefore unpopular, reducing the uptake. Needles/ syringes are expensive, so the cost is driven up, and it is laborious for mass immunisation. Since most pathogens enter via the mucosa, the immune response may not be optimally stimulated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how is oral/nasal vaccines given

A

Delivery is easier for patient and professional, with fewer delivery-related side effects. Polio eradication campaign success due to simplicity of OPV. Paediatric flu vaccine is given intranasally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how is transdermal delivery of vaccines done

A

Patches, or dry powder injections using high pressure gun are ideal for areas where sterility cannot be assured, or when mass injections are required.

43
Q

how is a vaccine made

A

The disease-causing agent must be isolated and attenuated, so it is no longer pathogenic. The correlates of production (i.e. antibodies & cytotoxic T lymphocytes involved in pathogenesis) must be determined, and so the targets antigens can be identified.

Vaccines must be sterile. Therefore, they should be made in a clean room, using laminar flow cabinets under positive pressure conditions. There should be separation of personnel and equipment. There are many challenges facing formulation of vaccines, as soluble proteins used in vaccines are often poorly immunogenic when used on their own as a vaccine.

44
Q

what is a microbe culture

A

The pH is optimised, and the antigen is cultured.
• Viruses are grown on primary cells (cell line or cultivating virus into chicken embryo)
• Bacteria are cultured in bioreactors by fermentation
• Proteins are grown inside cells (yeast/ bacteria) using recombinant technology

45
Q

describe how to harvesting process in making vaccines

A
Chemical inactivators remove pathogenicity and act as a disinfectant. The most commonly used agent is formaldehyde, which becomes formalin in water. It cross-links lysine in protein molecules, which means the antigen is not active but is present in the vaccine. This means the vaccine is immunogenic but does not cause harm.
Heat (> 60ºC for 10 hours) causes irreversible denaturation, so the antigen is inactive.
Low pH (acid-denaturation, where pH < 4 for 6 hrs – 21 days) can be used, but there is a possibility that the antigen reactivates upon reverting back to normal pH.
46
Q

describe the purification of active process of making vaccines

A

Antigens are purified by a multi-step process:

  1. Differential precipitation/ solubilisation
  2. Ultracentrifugation
  3. Final purification by:
    a. Ultrafiltration/nanofiltration (porous membrane molecular weight cut-off)
    b. Gel permeation (or SEC) chromatography (GPC)
    c. Hydrophobic interaction chromatography (HIC)
  4. Testing for purification uses ELISA, using colour as an indicator of the concentration.
47
Q

how are formulations ( including adjuvants preparations) of vaccines obtained

A

Adjuvants are used to enhance the immunogenicity of protein antigens; they are immune-potentiators. Adjuvants often act as a depot for the antigen, presenting the antigen to the body over a longer duration maximising the immune response prior to clearance.
Aluminium-based mineral salts (Alum), mineral oil (MF59), Monophosphoryl lipid A (MPL) and Virosomes are used as adjuvants. Aluminium toxicity needn’t be a concern; toxicity occurs at high concentrations (150 ± 50 mg/kg/day) and vaccinated children are exposed to only 4-8 mg Al in first 2 years.

48
Q

what are the different classes of adjuvants

A

• Water soluble/ dispersible
o Soluble lipid derivative version of E. coli - monophosphoryl lipid A (MPL)
o Poly(I:C) is a synthetic analogues of double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) that is lipid soluble
o Saponins (e.g. Quil A detergent)
o Toxins
• Oil-in-water/ water-in-oil emulsions, where 1-10% of volume of vaccines are emulsifiers (oils). They are used to disperse various agents
o Oil in water: mineral oil/ squalene (e.g. MF59) – Ebola, Rabies, Smallpox, HIV
o Water-in-oil: vegetable oil base – Pneumococcus, Rotavirus
o Freund’s complete adjuvant is most commonly used; it contains inactivated and dried usually M. tuberculosis & MPL. It can be problematic as it reactogenic.
• Entrapment or absorption agents aid immune promotor
o Alum is the most commonly used agent, but it’s cell-mediated immunity is often poorly stimulated. These are aluminium salts: aluminium hydroxide/aluminium sulphate, aluminium phosphate; usually Al(OH)3
• Polymer particles
o Liposomes are self-assembled lipid particles which allow entry into cells
o Virosomes are virus structured liposomes

49
Q

what are the two mechanisms of adjuvants

A

• Particulate vaccine-delivery systems
o They target the antigen to antigen presenting cells (APCs), by converting the soluble protein into particles which APCs recognise and process.
 Entrapment/ absorption agents (e.g. alum) adsorbs proteins
 Mineral oils (e.g. MF59) emulsifies proteins
 Water soluble agents (e.g. Quil A) forms colloids with proteins
• Immunostimulatory
o They directly activate APCs through Toll-like receptors (TLR) which results in inflammatory responses that amplify the innate immune response
 MPL is a non-toxic component derived from lipopolysaccharide (LPS) of bacterial cell walls and interacts with TLR-4 and TLR-2, inducing a Th1-skewed response. MPL is thought to directly activate macrophages resulting in the induction of IFN-γ and IL-2. However, it is not as potent at inducing antibody responses.
 Saponins are derived from the bark of a Chilean tree, Quillaja sponaria, so unlike other immunostimulatory adjuvants, is not pathogen derived. A highly purified fraction called QS21 is a potent adjuvant for the induction of a Th1-dominated response, including CTLs. Saponins are thought to form pores in cell membranes that allow antigens to gain access to the endogenous presentation pathway resulting in presentation by MHC class I and hence CTL activation.

50
Q

what do stabilisers ensure in vaccines

A

Stabilisers ensure the vaccine remains unchanged when the vaccine is exposed to heat, light, acidity, or humidity:
• Freeze-drying cryoprotectants e.g. sugars such as, sucrose and lactose
• Buffers e.g. amino acids such as, glycine or Na glutamate
• Complexing and suspending agents e.g. proteins such as, human serum albumin or gelatin or EDTA
• Relics e.g. foetal bovine serum remnant from cell culture, deactivation substrates
• Delivery aids e.g. gums and viscosifiers e.g. gelatin
• Preservatives e.g. BHA – butylated hydroxyanisole: prevents oils becoming oxidised and rancid
• Co-solvent e.g. 2-phenoxyethanol
• Emulsifiers e.g. Span, Tween, Brij

51
Q

why are antibiotics multiuser I vaccines

A

Antibiotics may be used in multi-use formulations to prevent fungal and bacterial infection as consecutive aliquots are removed from the same bulk container. They can also be part of the manufacturing process, where low concentrations remain in the final product.
Vaccines are sterilised by pressured steam: 121ºC for 6 minutes. This results in > 10-log reduction of microorganisms, killing vegetative cells & spores, denaturing enzymes and causing the thermo-destruction of macromolecules.

52
Q

how is the stability potency and quality assured in manufacturing vaccines

A

Potency, safety, cost, preparation, usage, stability in cold-chain conditions (5ºC) and room temperature are determined.

Vaccines are frequently sensitive to light and temperature (heat or freezing). Most vaccines are damaged at freezing temperatures, producing agglomerates and precipitates. Cold-chain is a system of storage and transport, where temperature has an effect on potency, so refrigeration is required to maintain the efficacy of the vaccine. As a result, the vaccine must be stored and transported at 5 ± 3ºC at all times. Refrigeration facilities must be calibrated to ensure accuracy within 1ºC. Bubble-wrap insulants and cool-box interim transfer systems should be used. Multi-dose format vaccines must be returned to the fridge after the required dose is withdrawn, and aseptic non-touch techniques should be implemented. Data loggers ensure the storage temperature is within limits required.

Where vaccines are sensitive to light (fluorescent/ UV), they should be stored in their original container until use.

53
Q

what is meant by a drift

A

Drift – a natural, minor mutation of the surface antigen.
When a virus mutates or changes slightly, it looks different to our immune system. The antibodies that your body created last year in response to the flu virus or the flu vaccine no longer recognize the new virus.

54
Q

what is meant by a shift

A

Shift – a major change occurs to the surface antigens of the same strain, altering its virulence. This typically occurs when a human virus crosses with a virus that usually affects animals. Sub-types combine to make a new form with hybrid surface antigens than are not recognized by the human immune system.

55
Q

what are two names in which the flu virus changes over time

A

Antigenic drift and antigenic shift are terms used to describe ways in which the flu virus changes over time.

56
Q

what are the reasons for vaccine shortages

A

Vaccine producers must be able to respond to seasonal & global changes in antigens quickly, to avoid pandemics.

Vaccine shortages can occur for a number of reasons:
• Cold chain failures
• Aggregation and degradation (poor storage)
• Higher-than-normal demand
• Production interruption (natural disasters, lack of resources)

57
Q

what are the key regulatory bodies for vaccines

A

There are several key regulatory boards:

  1. The Committee for Medicinal Products for Human Use (CHMP) is responsible for vaccines in Europe, defining what vaccines/ vaccine components are.
  2. The EMEA is responsible for guidelines on Biologicals. Any changes of biologic manufacturing must be clarified
  3. The Paediatric Committee (PDCO)
  4. The Committee for Advanced Therapies (CAT)
58
Q

what characteristics must a vaccine have

A

Vaccines must be safe, with low toxicity. They must offer effective protection against infective agent to rapidly generate herd immunity and ideally, produce long-lived immunity to reduce the amount of booster doses required; this reduces the cost involved and complexity of vaccine regimens. They should be cheap, or cost-effective, as they will be administered widely.
They should contain only purified components (i.e. the key antigens only): for intracellular organisms, CTL and Abs are needed, for extracellular organisms, only Abs are needed. They should also be stable, and be correctly formulated (uniformity of dose, adjuvant, preservative & moisture content).

59
Q

what are some future vaccine developments

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB), HIV and plasmodium falciparum (malaria) are the three biggest killers, with vaccines in development. New vaccine strategies are needed to deal with complex, intractable pathogens such as HIV, TB and malaria. These involve determining correlates of protective immunity, optimising immunogens and developing a vaccination strategy.

Attenuated vaccine is not viable for HIV. HIV as it destroys CD4+ cells, dampens the immune response and relentlessly mutates, meaning that finding a target is very difficult. However, the RV-144 trial involved showed 30% efficacy, with highest degree of protection between 6-12 months.

60
Q

what is meant by the NHS schedule

A

The Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) is a specialist branch of Public Health England responsible for monitoring and updating the vaccination schedule, which is published in the Green Book. The NHS schedule groups those according to the susceptibility and risk of harm by infectious diseases.

61
Q

what is the Infanrix hexa (6 in 1)

A

One 0.5 mL IM dose contains:
• Diptheria toxoid
• Tetanus toxoid
• Bordotella pertussis antigens (pertussis toxoid, filamentous haemoglobin, pertactin) absorbed onto hydrated aluminium hydroxide
• Hep B surface antigen absorbed onto aluminium phosphate
• Inactivated poliovirus (type 1 – Mahoney strain; type 2 – MEF-1 strain; type 3 – Saukett strain) propagated in VERO (monkey kidney) cells and inactivated with formaldehyde
• Haemophilus influenza type b polysaccharide conjugated to tetanus toxoid as carrier protein

62
Q

what is the Pneumococcal conjugate vaccination (PCV) - Prevenar 13

A

Protects against Bacterial pneumonia (Streptococcus pneumoniae). One 0.5 mL IM dose contains capsular polysaccharides (PS) from 13 most-common isolates of S. Pneumoniae, conjugated to diphtheria toxoid and absorbed onto aluminium phosphate.

63
Q

what is the Rotavirus – Rotarix vaccine used to protect against

A

Protects against Rotavirus infection. One 1.5ml dose contains the Human rotavirus RIX4414 strain.
The virus is excreted in faeces and transmission can occur so care must be taken to avoid transmission to immunosuppressed.

64
Q

what is the Men B – Bexsero vaccine used to protect against

A

Protects against Bacterial meningitis (Neisseria meningitidis) capsular group B. 0.5 mL IM dose contains:
• Recombinant N. meningitidis group B Neisseria heparin binding protein (NHBA) fusion protein
• Neisserial adhesion A (NadA) fusion protein, produced in E. Coli and absorbed onto aluminium hydroxide
• Factor H binding protein (fhbp) fusion protein, produced in E. Coli and absorbed onto aluminium hydroxide
• Outer membrane vesicles (OMV) from Neisseria meningitidis group B strain NZ98/254 (non-recombinant)

65
Q

what does the Hib & Men C – Menitorix vaccine used to protect against

A

Protects against H. Influenzae & N. Meningitis serotype C. One 0.5 mL IM dose contains:
• Haemophilus type b, conjugated to tetanus toxoid
• Neisseria meningitidis group C (strain C11) capsular polysaccharide, conjugated to tetanus toxoid

66
Q

what does MMR - Priorix vaccine used to protect against

A

Protects against Measles, Mumps and Rubella. One 0.5 mL IM/SC dose contains:
• Live attenuated measles virus (Schwartz strain) – produced in chick embryo cells – caution in allergy to egg
• Live attenuated mumps virus (RIT 4385 strain) – produced in chick embryo cells
• Live attenuated rubella virus (Wistar RA 27/3 strain) – produced in human MRC-5 cells

67
Q

what does the influenza vaccine used to protect against

A
There are three flu vaccines which can be given. It protects against strains A & B, with subtypes from previous flu season.
Fluenz Tetra (attenuated) - 0.1ml is applied to nostril, with no need for inhalation. Fluenz tetra should be given unless the child is at risk (severe asthma or active wheezing), or if they are allergic to eggs/ egg proteins or excipients (gelatine, gentamycin). There is a smaller risk of pain/ distress, but it may causes runny nose, headache, loss of appetite and fever.
Fluarix Tetra (inactivated) - 0.5ml dose is given via IM injection. Care should be taken in those with thrombocytopaenia.
Fluenz & Fluarix tetra are quadrivalent (2 x A and 2 x B) and given to children.  There is no difference in the risk of anaphylaxis between the injection and the nasal spray.
Fluad –0.5 mL IM dose contains adjuvated, inactivated virus. Three strains vary depending on the prevalence of influenza strains. Fluad is trivalent and given to the elderly.
68
Q

what does the HPV vaccine used to protect against

A

Protects against the Human papilloma virus, which is contracted sexually and is responsible for 99% of cervical cancer cases.
Gardisil, which protects against HPV. HPV invades and persists in APCs, effectively hiding from the immune system. 50% of infected women will develop antibodies to HPV but they are low titre and wane within a few years, so long term protection is not conferred. Gardisil prevents HPV binding to cell-surface entry receptors on epithelial basal cells of vagina and cervix and induces high serum HPV type specific nABs. The major antigen in HPV is the L1 Capsid Protein from HPV 6, 11, 16, 18. It is expressed as a recombinant protein in yeast cells. The L1 protein spontaneously-assembles into a 3-dimensional virus-like particle, which is structurally similar to capsid of HPV. It cannot cause disease and the side effects are mild – fever, injection site.

69
Q

what does the Men ACWY – Menveo vaccine used to protect against

A

Menveo contains Meningococcal groups A, C, W135 and Y capsular PS conjugated to diphtheria toxoid.

70
Q

what does the Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine – Pneumovax 23 vaccine used to protect against

A

Protects against 23 capsular groups of S. pneumonia. One 0.5 mL IM dose contains unconjugated purified polysaccharides. It provides immunity against 90% of serotypes found in pneumococcal bacteraemia, and is offered to the elderly & those with chronic conditions (asthma/ COPD).

71
Q

what does the Varicella-Zoster Vaccine – Zostavax vaccine used to protect against

A

Protects against re-activated latent varicella (shingles). One 0.65 mL SC dose contains a high-potency attenuated varicella zoster virus. Zostavax is licensed for those ≥ 50 and is free of charge to all people aged 70, 78 or 79 in the UK. It cannot be given to those > 80 or immunosuppressed.

72
Q

define meningitis

A

Meningitis is defined as inflammation of the meninges. The meninges are the three membranes which enclose the brain and spinal cord. Meningism refers to the signs and symptoms that accompany the inflammation. Areas of the brain affected by meningitis are somewhat green due to capillary damage and blood clot formation.

73
Q

what is the highest incidence of meningitis

A

Highest incidence in sub-Saharan Africa (poor resources). It is the 6th largest infectious disease killer in the world, with fatality rates of 25-30%. For those who survive, 1 in 5 suffer from a disability as a result. In children under 5, meningitis & combined sepsis is the 2nd largest infectious disease killer.

74
Q

what is the cause of meningitis

A

Meningitis is caused by a variety of microbial agents; most commonly bacteria/ viruses. Meningitis is acquired by the colonisation of pathogenic microorganisms (Neisseria meningitidis and meningococcus) or acquisition at birth (group B streptococci). NSAIDs can lead to meningitis.

75
Q

how is meningitis spread

A

Meningitis is most often spread via coughing & sneezing (droplet transmission) and kissing (direct contact). Toothbrushes and cutlery may allow for transmission, depending on how quickly they are shared, due to fragility of organism. Viral forms can be spread by faecal-oral route.

Everyone is at risk from meningitis, but in particular babies and young children, teenagers and young adults, the elderly and immunocompromised (HIV, chemotherapy) are at higher risk.

76
Q

what are the symptoms of meningitis

A
•	Rash 
•	Stiff neck (increased pressure in brain) 
•	Dislike of bright light 
•	Confused/delirious
•	Seizures
•	Severe headache 
•	Fever, with cold hands and feet
•	Vomiting
•	Sleepy/vacant
•	In babies:
o	High pitched, moaning cry
o	Irritability
o	Tongue sticking out
77
Q

what are the symptoms of Meningococcal septicaemia

A
  • Muscle pain (particularly legs)
  • Cold hands and feet
  • A rash (pin prick spots  purple bruising)
  • Confused/delirious
  • Fever
  • Vomiting
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Pale, mottled skin
  • Breathing fast/breathlessness
  • Sleepy/vacant
78
Q

how do you go about diagnosing meningitis

A

Meningitis is a notifiable disease; registered medical practitioners have a statutory duty to notify the ‘proper officer’ at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) of suspected cases of certain infectious disease.
Tumbler test
Someone who becomes unwell rapidly should be examined particularly carefully for the meningococcal septicaemia rash.
People with meningococcal septicaemia may develop a rash of tiny ‘pink prick’ spots which can rapidly develop into purple bruising.
A non-blanching rash is one that does not fade when pressed with, and viewed through, a glass; to identify, press a glass tumbler against it and if the rash does not fade, it could be meningococcal septicaemia. On dark skin, check for the rash on lighter parts of the body, e.g. finger tips, soles of feet.
Cerebrospinal fluid
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colourless liquid that bathes the brain and spinal cord providing shock absorption and support. CSF is obtained by performing a lumbar puncture or “spinal tap.” A long, thin, hollow needle is inserted between two bones in the lower spine and into the space where the CSF circulates. CSF is visually inspected and will appear turbid in meningitis. A cell count is performed on an unspun sample, giving CFU/ml. The CSF often shows low glucose (in bacterial – not affected in viral), increased white blood cell count & increased protein (more pronounced in bacterial).

79
Q

define bacterial meningitis

A

Usually more severe than viral meningitis, with high fatality rate unless treated immediately. Even with antibiotic therapy, many sufferers are left with disability – most commonly hearing loss but also vision loss, issues with concentration or memory, epilepsy, movement/ balance issues.

80
Q

what is Neisseria meningitis

A

N. meningitis causes meningitis and meningococcal septicaemia. It is a gram-negative diplococcus with various virulence factors that aid infection of the meninges:
• Type 4 pili allows adherence to cell
• Transcytosis is the ability to pass into cells
• Capsule aids adherence & offers protection from phagocytosis. The strains of certain bacteria (e.g. A, B, C, W & Y) refer to antigenic nature of capsule

Meningococci colonisation of the oropharynx does not always mean meningitis will occur. At this time, individuals are carriers, with the reason for transition from carrier state to invasive disease unknown, but bacteria enter the bloods, cross the BBB and cause meningitis.
Septicaemia results when bacteria enter the blood & multiply uncontrollably. Toxins damage lining of the blood vessels leading to leakage, reducing blood volume and presenting as a non-blanching rash. This means there is insufficient blood to carry enough oxygen to all parts of the body, so blood supply restricted to extremities. Clots may form in skin/muscle tissue, resulting in amputation.

To treat (in a hospital setting) give benzylpenicillin (cefotaxime or chloramphenicol). Consider adjunctive treatment with dexamethasone, only if patient does not have meningococcal septicaemia.

81
Q

what is Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Can cause meningitis disease in any age group, but especially children and elderly. It is sometimes spread by an ear infection.
To treat, cefotaxime should be given. If sensitive, give benzylpenicillin; if resistant vancomycin/rifampicin.

82
Q

what is group b streptococci

A

Occurs primarily in babies; organism can be acquired during birth which leads to symptoms developing within a few days.

83
Q

what is Type B Haemophilus influenzae

A

Causes meningitis in infants and toddlers.

84
Q

what is M. tuberculosis

A

Cases are rare in the UK but should be considered when assessing patients from areas of high-risk of TB.

85
Q

define viral meningitis

A

Most common form, which is relatively benign & usually does not need medical attention; it may even go unrecognised. Viral meningitis usually presents as a mild flu-like illness (headache, fever, general malaise). In more severe cases, neck stiffness, muscular/joint pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and photophobia may be experienced; severe symptoms require hospital admission. Patients usually make a full recovery and are rarely left with residual side effects/ disabilities.
Enteroviruses (e.g. echovirus), paramyxoviruses (e.g. mumps) and herpes viruses are most common viral causative agents.

There is no specific antiviral therapy, but Aciclovir may be used for meningitis caused by herpes simplex virus.

86
Q

what is fungal meningitis

A

Meningitis caused by Cryptococcus neoformans is usually associated with pre-existing HIV infection but may also occur in patients with cell-mediated immune defects. Symptoms appear more gradually, over days or weeks, including headache, fever, nausea, vomiting, stiff neck, dislike of bright lights, changes in mental state and hallucinations.

Amphotericin B, flucytosine, fluconazole may be used in the treatment of viral meningitis.

87
Q

what is influenza

A

Flu is a highly contagious viral infection of the respiratory tract. It is transmitted via droplets & direct contact of respiratory secretions.

88
Q

what are the symptoms of influenza

A

Symptoms include fever, chills, headache, extreme fatigue and muscle pain. Complications may include secondary bacterial pneumonia, meningitis, encephalitis (inflammation of the brain) and perinatal mortality, in pregnant women. Normal recovery takes less than 14 days with bed rest.

89
Q

which groups are most likely to catch influenza

A

Individuals in vulnerable groups are more likely to contract flu; infants/ young children, the elderly, pregnant women, chronic respiratory and cardiac conditions, immunosuppressed, those with chronic neurological conditions will also become more seriously ill if they contract influenza.

90
Q

what are the most common influenza strains

A

It is most commonly caused by influenza A & B strains, but prevalence varies year-to-year due to antigenic drift. Antigenic shift is more likely in strain A, especially H1N1, and may result in the emergence of a new subtype, causing serious outbreaks.

91
Q

how often is flu vaccines reviewed

A

Flu vaccines are reviewed annually by WHO and JCVI, with annual changes required which predict the most prevalent strain for the next season. Flu vaccines are now offered at pharmacies; it is highly accessible to get vaccinated for those who are eligible. In addition, it promotes the clinical abilities of pharmacists and supports burdened GP services. However, there is a lack of coordinated documentation systems and it may be difficult to manage vaccines supplies as it is harder to predict who will attend.
Unfortunately, the flu vaccine uptake is very low for the key groups who need it. NHS campaigns are in place to promote uptake, such as offering vouchers as visual reminders. The following receive free flu vaccinations:
• Over 65s
• Chronic conditions (6 months and above): asthma, COPD, heart failure, CKD, liver disease, neurological disease, diabetes, sickle cell, immunosuppressed
• Pregnant women
• Front line health & social care workers
• Carers
• Residential care/nursing home residents
• Children aged 2-16

92
Q

what do scientist think in terms of populations adherence to vaccines

A

Most scientists think about risk in terms of populations and most patients will think about risk to themselves/child. For herd immunity to be achieved, risk must be thought of in terms of the population. The source and presentation of data has a huge impact on how risk is perceived.
Absolute risk is the size of your own risk. Absolute risk reduction is the number of percentage points your own risk goes down if you do something protective. Relative risk is the number that tells you how much something can change your risk, and can be expressed as a % increase or decrease.

93
Q

who is Andrew Wakefields and what were his findings

A

Andrew Wakefield was a British gastroenterologist who believed he had discovered the cause of Autism in 1998 – the MMR vaccine. His claim was that 8 children developed autism within 1 month of MMR. They had GI symptoms of intestinal inflammation, which he believed led led to translocation of usually impermeable peptides to the bloodstream, then to the brain where they affected development. His study was limited because it used a small, biased sample. GI symptoms did not predate autism in several children, which is inconsistent with the notion that intestinal inflammation facilitated bloodstream invasion of encephalopathic peptides. No encephalopathic peptides have ever been identified between GI and brain.

Media coverage picked up the story which influenced public opinion. The government had to respond to it (saying it was safe). However, government responses are limited when the public trust is low (26% of trust in 2017). This is the Muckraker model:

94
Q

what are MMR vaccine options / alternernatives

A

• Vaccinate – the correct thing to do.
• Delay vaccination – increased risk of MMR
• Use single vaccinations
o Separate vaccines for measles, mumps and rubella are unlicensed in Britain, but it is not illegal to import the vaccines as long as they inform the Medicines Control Agency (MCA) that they are bringing the vaccine into the country
o Single vaccinations must be done privately, at £45.
• Homeopathic vaccines
o A nosode is a homeopathic remedy prepared from a pathological specimen. The specimen is taken from a diseased animal or person and may consist of saliva, pus, urine, blood, or diseased tissue. The material is sterilised until no bacteria is present and then sold as pellets
• Don’t vaccinate – increased risk of MMR

95
Q

what is the role of a pharmacist

A

• To increase awareness about the importance of vaccinations
• Identify those patients who may benefit from specific vaccinations
• Help patients to make informed decisions about vaccinations
If 95% of the population is vaccinated, most childhood diseases could be eliminated.

96
Q

what are the global mortality rates of children under 5

A

ortality rates for children < 5 declined in all regions of the world between 1990 and 2012, however deaths (per 1000) in Sub-Saharan Africa and South-East Asia were high. This may be attributed to the growing population and development status.

97
Q

what are the different % of children dying from malaria pneumonia and diarrhoea

A

Pneumonia – 14%
Diarrhoea – 10%
Malaria – 7%

98
Q

what % of deaths is Streptococcus pneumoniae responsible for

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae is responsible for 33% of pneumonia deaths. It is a gram positive, encapsulated diplococcus, with > 90 known serotypes. It is transmitted via droplets (coughing, sneezing) and causes pneumococcal pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis, otitis media & sinusitis. It is exacerbated by crowding, indoor air pollution, tobacco smoke, immunosuppression, lack of exclusive breastfeeding. There is increasing resistance to penicillins and other antibiotics. The Prevenar 13 vaccine is available as 3 doses, given 4 weeks apart from 8 weeks of age. 30 countries have introduced the PCV vaccine since 2010, causing a 25-30% reduction in cases, with 30% of children worldwide vaccinated.

99
Q

what % of deaths is Haemophilus influenzae responsible for

A

Haemophilus influenzae is responsible for 16% of pneumonia deaths. It is a small, gram negative bacterium with several serotypes, based on capsular polysaccharides; type b (Hib) is the most virulent. It is transmitted via droplets (coughing, sneezing) and causes pneumonia, bacteraemia, cellulitis, meningitis, septic arthritis. The Infanrix hexa & Menitorix gives protection against Hib. It has reduced cases of pneumonia by ~20% with 60% of children worldwide have been vaccinated with Hib.

100
Q

what % of deaths is retrovirus responsible for

A

Rotavirus is responsible for 27% of diarrhoea deaths. There are (at least) 28 strains that commonly infect infants and under 5s via faecal-oral transmission. The symptoms last 3-8 days and include severe watery diarrhoea, severe vomiting, fever and abdominal pain, loss of appetite & dehydration. The Rotarix vaccine is available as 2 doses give 4 weeks apart from 8 weeks of age. Rotavirus vaccination has been introduced in 19 countries and has caused a drastic reduction in the number of severe rotavirus cases by 74%.

101
Q

how many people are saved from taking vaccines

A

Immunisation saves 2 to 3 million deaths every year from diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis and measles. However, the proportion of the world’s children who receive recommended vaccines has remained steady for the past few years. In 2013, an estimated 21.8 million infants worldwide were not reached with routine immunization services, of whom nearly half live in 3 countries (India, Nigeria and Pakistan).

102
Q

what are the barriers of vaccines

A

Barriers for immunisation include war (thereby affecting imports and health-care), terrorism, fear of side effects, and a poorly established healthcare system. Ensuring that quality infrastructure (legislation, regulation, health care system, finance, human resources) is in place increases immunisation rates.

103
Q

what are the different ways of removing barriers to close the immunisation gap

A

Removing these barriers will require action by many different stakeholders, including governments, NGOs & pharmaceutical companies. The following are potential solutions for closing the immunisation gap:
• Free/ affordable access to vaccines
• Education programmes to ensure there is understanding of the importance of vaccine
• Implement ceasefires in war-stricken countries
• Manufacture locally, where possible (more affordable).

104
Q

which part of the world is the biggest killer for pneumonia, malaria and diarrhoea?

A

In Sub-Saharan Africa, malaria is the biggest cause of death. There is no vaccine available for malaria, yet.

In low/middle-income countries (South-East Asia), diarrhoea & pneumonia are the biggest causes of death. It is worth noting that 74% of pneumonia & diarrhoea deaths in 0-4-year-olds occurred in only 15 countries