WEEK #14 WEEK OF 5/5/14 PART I – BISP MANUAL CHAP. 3 - CDA 2008 INSPECTION GUIDE PART II – TB – SCBA ADD'S #1 - 8 PART III – TB – PURPLE K PART IV – TB – TOOLS #1 - 9 PART V – UNIFORM FILING SYSTEM INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #14 WEEK OF 5/5/14 PART I – BISP MANUAL CHAP. 3 - CDA 2008 INSPECTION GUIDE PART II – TB – SCBA ADD'S #1 - 8 PART III – TB – PURPLE K PART IV – TB – TOOLS #1 - 9 PART V – UNIFORM FILING SYSTEM INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #14 WEEK OF 5/5/14 PART I – BISP MANUAL CHAP. 3 - CDA 2008 INSPECTION GUIDE PART II – TB – SCBA ADD'S #1 - 8 PART III – TB – PURPLE K PART IV – TB – TOOLS #1 - 9 PART V – UNIFORM FILING SYSTEM INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Deck (68):
1

PART I – BISP MANUAL CHAP. 3 - CDA 2008 INSPECTION GUIDE:
1. Ladder 300 is performing an initial CDA inspection at a proposed 25 story building when
they notice workers using a torch to perform welding, without a required fire watch,
extinguishers or hose lines in the vicinity of operations. Which choice indicates an incorrect
action taken by Ladder 300? (p. 2-3)
(A) The welding work was ordered discontinued immediately.
(B) A Forthwith Violation Order was issued to the Fire Safety Manager for no Fire
guard/watch.
(C) A Forthwith Violation Order was issued to the Fire Safety Manager for the lack of
extinguishers or charged hose lines.
(D) Ladder 300 issued a Stop Work Order for all work at the construction site.

1. D

2

2. Excess combustible waste is extremely hazardous when found at a CDA site. Choose the
incorrect choice concerning the storage and removal of combustible waste. (p. 7-8)
(A) All debris shall be cleaned off floors daily.
(B) Combustible waste shall not be accumulated within buildings and shall be removed from
buildings at the end of each work shift, but at least once a day.
(C) Combustible waste, including rubbish, construction and demolition material, shall be
removed from the site or stored in noncombustible containers.
(D) Combustible waste material in excess of 5 cubic yards shall be removed daily before the
close of the day’s work.
(E) Materials susceptible to spontaneous ignition, such as oily rags, shall be stored in a disposal
container with self closing lids. The contents of the container shall be removed and disposed of
daily.

2. D

Note: Combustible waste material in excess of 15 cubic yards shall be removed daily before
the close of the day’s work. (BSA Rule, 2 RCNY 3-02(i)(18)) and (FC 1404.2)
Action: VO (HK-1) (Comply Forthwith)

3

3. Where must a standpipe be maintained up to and capped in a building using concrete
construction where the 14th floor was the most recently poured floor? (p. 11)
(A) 10th floor
(B) 11th floor
(C) 13th floor
(D) 14th floor

3. B

4

4. While conducting an inspection of a new Office Building, Capt. James notes that the
building is of steel construction, and the walking floor, the 28th floor, consists of tacked Q
decking. Where should Capt. James expect the standpipe to be capped? (p. 11)
(A) 24th floor
(B) 25th floor
(C) 26th floor
(D) 27th floor

4. D

5

5. At 0300 hours, units receive an alarm for a fire in a CDA building. The CIDS for the
reported fire building states that the building was a 36 story building that is undergoing
demolition. Upon arrival, Engine 444 transmits a 10-76 for a fire in an office building where the
17th floor, the top floor, is currently being demolished. Which statement about this building is
correct? (p. 12)
(A) The standpipe found in this building will be wet.
(B) The standpipe riser will be capped above the outlet on the 35th floor.
(C) The standpipe riser will be capped above the outlet on the 16th floor.
(D) The Siamese hose connection for the standpipe shall be marked by a sign reading “FDNY
Connection” and by a red light lit at all times.

5. C

6

6. Where shall the sprinkler risers be capped when demolition begins on the 12th floor of a 12
story building that has a green Siamese connection? (p. 12-13)
(A) The 9th floor
(B) Immediately below the 12th floor
(C) The 10th floor
(D) The sprinkler system would not be required to be maintained during demolition.

6. B

7

7. While responding to a reported fire on the 10th floor of a 19 story building under
construction, the officer of Ladder 400 tries to remember elevator requirements at a building
under construction. Which thought was correct? (p. 15)
(A) An elevator or hoist is not required at this building.
(B) An elevator or hoist is required when the work reaches a height greater than 75 feet.
(C) If an elevator or hoist is required, the maximum distance between the highest accessible
floor and the temporary elevator or hoist is 30 feet or 3 floors.

7. B

A) Whenever construction or demolition work reaches a height greater than 75 feet, at least
one elevator meeting the requirements of Chapter 30, or a hoist meeting the requirements of
Section 3318 shall be kept in readiness at all times for Fire Department use. The maximum
distance between the highest accessible floor from a temporary elevator or hoist and the
working deck of the building under construction or demolition shall be no more than 75 feet
(13 716 mm) or 7 floors.

8

8. Which of the following types of heaters used at construction sites would not require a
permit or certificate of fitness? (p. 17-18)
(A) Kerosene fueled space heater
(B) Natural gas fired heater
(C) Electric Heater
(D) LPG fired heater

8. C

9

9. Often units will find floor openings being used for debris removal at CDA sites. What is
the maximum area of each floor that can consist of these openings? (p. 24)
(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%

9. B

10

10. Which of the following CDA sites would not require a Fire Guard when work for the day is
concluded until 2400 hours? (p. 33)
(A) The CDA site is not enclosed by a fence and covers 15,000 square feet and fronts on one
street.
(B) The CDA site is not enclosed by a fence and covers 15,000 square feet and fronts on two
street fronts.
(C) The building exceeds 75 feet in height
(D) The CDA site is enclosed by a fence and covers 40,000 square feet and fronts on three
street fronts.

10. B

11

11. A competent watch person shall be on duty during all hours when operations are not in
progress. Which CDA site would not require a Watch Person? (p. 34)
(A) The building being constructed occupies a ground area of 6,000 square feet.
(B) The building being constructed occupies a ground area of 10,000 square feet
(C) The building being constructed occupies a ground area of 4,000 square feet.
(D) The building being constructed occupies a ground area of 40,000 square feet

11. C

12

12. While conducting an inspection of a CDA site, members observe a construction worker
smoking. Which action taken by the unit was incorrect? (p. 34)
(A) A summons was issued to the construction worker observed smoking.
(B) An NOV was issued to the construction worker smoking
(C) An NOV was issued to the DOB Work Permit Holder
(D) An NOV was issued to the owner of the building

12. B

13

PART II – TB – SCBA ADD'S #1 - 8:
1. The Fast Pak is carried by all Ladder, Rescue and Squad Companies. Choose the incorrect
point about the Fast Pak. (2, 3)
(A) The 5 foot high pressure hose has a Universal Air Coupling (UAC).
(B) The 20 foot low pressure hose is attached to a manifold with a Schrader and Hansen fitting.
(C) The Fast Pak has a Non-CBRN Regulator and Facepiece.
(D) The Fast Pak can supply air via the High Pressure or Low Pressure systems individually. It
is not possible to operate both systems simultaneously.

1. D

2. DESCRIPTION
 Scott Air Cylinder (45 min)
 Low/High Pressure Assembly
 5 ft. high pressure hose with Universal Air Coupling (UAC)
 20 ft. low pressure hose attached to a manifold with Schrader fitting and Hansen fitting
 Non - CBRN Regulator and Facepiece
 Carrying Case

3. ADVANTAGES
 Lightweight, mobile, flexible air system
 Smaller profile / numerous air supply capabilities
 Ready for immediate deployment
 High pressure and low pressure systems can be operated simultaneously

14

2. At roll call, the Officer of Ladder companies shall designate one member to monitor the
amount of air remaining in the Fast Pak. Which choice is correct concerning the Fast Pak?
(4.1)
(A) The Fast Pak is equipped with a vibra-alert.
(B) The Fast Pak is equipped with a Heads Up Display indicator.
(C) The only way to monitor the air pressure in the Fast Pak is the remote gauge.
(D) The member assigned to monitor the actual volume of air remaining in the Fast Pak must
have audible communication with the extrication team.
(E) It is permitted to start an operation with a Fast Pak that has a cylinder that is 50% full. The
cylinder should be exchanged with a full cylinder when time permits.

2. D

4. LIMITATIONS
4.1 The Fast Pak is not equipped with a vibra-alert or heads up display indicator. The only
way to monitor the air pressure in the Fast Pak is the cylinder gauge. Therefore, it is
essential that one member of the FAST Unit is assigned to monitor the actual volume of
air remaining in the portable cylinder. This member must have audible communication
with the extrication team. Always start an operation with a full cylinder. Operational
time of a SCBA resupplied by a Fast Pak can vary depending on several factors.
(e.g., residual air in the distressed member's SCBA cylinder, emotional / physical
condition of the distressed member.)

15

3. When using the High Pressure Method to replenish air, the Universal Air Coupling (UAC)
is used. Choose the incorrect choice about this method. (5.2, 5.3, 5.4.1, 5.4.3, 5.4.6)
(A) The UAC is for emergency use only when a member is low or out of air within an IDLH
atmosphere.
(B) The 5 foot high pressure hose will administer air to a member’s SCBA via the UAC. This
will equalize air in both cylinders in approximately 10 seconds.
(C) Both the cylinder valve on the Fast Pak and the member’s SCBA shall be fully open.
(D) If air replenishment is needed a second time and time is of the essence, you can use the Fast
Pak’s remaining air. This will only result in marginally replenishing the member’s cylinder.

3. B

5.3 The 5 ft. high pressure hose will administer air to a member’s SCBA via the UAC.
This will equalize air in both cylinders in approximately 60 seconds. The Fast Pak has a
built in check valve that only permits air to be delivered to a member’s SCBA.

16

4. There are several precautions that must be followed when using High Pressure Air Supply.
Which choice is wrong? (5.4.6)
(A) If the cylinder and/or valve assembly of the distressed member shows damage or evidence
of exposure to high heat or flame, a decision must be made whether the cylinder is suitable for
recharging.
(B) If the UAC on the member’s SCBA is damaged, a decision must be made whether to
connect the UAC airline assembly from the Fast Pak.
(C) If the dust cap on the UAC of the member’s SCBA is missing, quickly examine and
remove any visible debris before connecting into the UAC.
(D) If the UAC is impacted or blocked with debris, use one of the low pressure methods.
(E) If at any time during the filling process a leak is detected, immediately discontinue the
filling procedure and supply via a low pressure method.

4. B

4. There are several precautions that must be followed when using High Pressure Air Supply.
Which choice is wrong? (5.4.6)
(A) If the cylinder and/or valve assembly of the distressed member shows damage or evidence
of exposure to high heat or flame, a decision must be made whether the cylinder is suitable for
recharging.
(B) If the UAC on the member’s SCBA is damaged, a decision must be made whether to
connect the UAC airline assembly from the Fast Pak.
(C) If the dust cap on the UAC of the member’s SCBA is missing, quickly examine and
remove any visible debris before connecting into the UAC.
(D) If the UAC is impacted or blocked with debris, use one of the low pressure methods.
(E) If at any time during the filling process a leak is detected, immediately discontinue the
filling procedure and supply via a low pressure method.

17

5. There are four different methods used to supply air via low pressure. Which method would
Ladder 100, the designated Fast Unit, not perform? (6.4)
(A) The member’s regulator is replaced with the Fast Pak’s regulator.
(B) Replace the low pressure Hansen Fitting of the member’s SCBA with the low pressure
Hansen Fitting of the Fast Pak.
(C) Replace the member’s facepiece with the Fast Pak facepiece with the Fast Pak’s regulator
attached.
(D) Use the Schrader Fitting to supply air to the member’s SCBA.
6.

5. D

4. Schrader Connection
Use of the Schrader Fitting is reserved for the use of SOC units only.
Example: Supply emergency air to a Confined Space Mask carried only by SOC
units.

18

6. Any Fast Pak on scene can be used to provide an air supply to non FDNY members when:
Do you agree or disagree? (7.1)
(1) A victim is trapped in an IDLH atmosphere and immediate removal is not possible
(2) At a confined space rescue
(A) Agree or (D) Disagree

6. D

7.1 The Fast Pak can also be used to provide an air supply to non FDNY members when:
 A victim is trapped in an IDLH atmosphere and immediate removal is not possible.
 Confined Space rescue as per Training Bulletin, Confined Space.
The Fast Pak assigned to the FAST Unit shall not be deployed for this operation.
Additional Fast Paks shall be deployed if needed and victims should be removed
from an IDLH atmosphere as soon as conditions permit.
**The FAST Unit shall only be used as per AUC 320**

19

TB SCBA Addendum 2 – Facepiece and APR Adaptor
7. In which of the following two incidents would members not use an APR? (3, 4)
(A) The air contains 24% oxygen
(B) Carbon Monoxide levels of 10 PPM are obtained
(C) Members are performing decontamination at an asbestos incident which did not include
fire.
(D) At a radiological incident where Haz Mat Co. 1 determined that the isotope does not pose a
chemical hazard, and fire was not involved.

7. A, B

3. FULL FACEPIECE RESPIRATOR LIMITATIONS
All filtered air respirators provide a lower level of protection as compared to an SCBA
respirator. Filtered air respirators shall not be used in atmospheres where:

20

8. Which of the following correctly describes who can give approval for the use of Air
Purifying Respirators? (1)
(A) A Captain of the 1st arriving company, after consultation with the Haz Mat Group
Supervisor, if there is not a Chief Officer on scene.
(B) The IC, after consultation with the Haz Mat Group Supervisor, only if the IC is at the rank
of Battalion Chief or higher.
(C) The Fire Sector Supervisor, after consultation with the Haz Mat Group Supervisor.
(D) The Haz Mat Group Supervisor.

8. A

21

9. During drill, Lt. Smith stated that the full facepiece respirator consists of three components:
The Scott AV-2000 facepiece, the Scott 40mm facepiece adaptor with a single filter port, and the
Scott CBRN CAP 1 canister. Which of the following statements that Lt. Smith made should be
corrected? (5.1, 5.2, 7.1, 7.2, 8.1, 8.3, 8.4)
(A) The facepiece, adaptor and CBRN CAP 1 canister shall be inspected before first use, and at
least every 30 days and/or on the first day of each month.
(B) The respirator removal must be done in a fresh air environment. If you have been exposed
to contaminants, decontamination of PPE must be accomplished prior to removal of the
respirator.
(C) Previously issued particulate cartridges (P-100) shall not be carried on the apparatus, stored
in quarters or used at emergencies.
(D) The previously issued Scott MPC-Plus Canisters shall not be carried on the apparatus,
stored in quarters or used at emergencies.
(E) Scott 40mm canister adaptors without the butyl cover shall be removed from service for
training use only and shall be labeled “FOR TRAINING USE ONLY.”

9. D

8.3 The previously issued Scott MPC-Plus Canisters shall be removed from the apparatus
and shall not be used at emergencies as first response equipment. They will be
maintained in quarters for training purposes only and are to be labeled "FOR TRAINING
USE ONLY."

22

10. Match the odor to the toxic substance. (Ref. 2)
Hydrogen Cyanide (A) Fruity odor
Hydrogen Chloride (B) Pungent Odor
Phosgene (C) Musty Hay
Acetaldehyde (D) Almond

10.
D
B
C
A

23

11. The terms Extended Duration SCBA (EDSCBA) and Rebreather mask are used
interchangeably. Which choice is correct concerning this equipment? (1.3, 1.4. 1.5, 1.7, 2.3)
(A) The EDSCBA will provide the wearer with up to 6 hours of breathable air.
(B) For penetrations less than 500 feet from the safe entry point, SOC units can deploy
Supplied Air Respirators fed by hoselines from an Airsource Cart.
(C) Only personnel trained in the assembly and operation of the EDSCBA shall be permitted to
use them. This includes selected SOC Support Ladder Companies.
(D) EDSCBAs can be used for underwater operations.
(E) The addition of an ice block is always required in order to improve the comfort of the user
of the EDSCBA

11. C

1.3 The EDSCBA will provide the wearer with up to four hours of breathable air,
a significant increase over current SCBAs

Note: For penetrations less than 300 feet from the safe entry point, SOC units can
deploy Supplied Air Respirators fed by hoselines from an Airsource Cart ™

1.7 EDSCBAs are not designed for routine structural firefighting or for underwater operations.

The addition of the ice block is only required at ambient temperatures above 32 degrees
Fahrenheit. At temperatures below 32 degrees Fahrenheit, the ice block should not
be used

24

12. Several EDSCBA trained units respond to a fire in an under river tunnel between
Manhattan and Brooklyn on a 9x6 tour. Ladder 100 is designated as the Support Unit, and
Ladder 200 is designated as the FAST Unit. In which choice did units operate incorrectly?
(5.3.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.3, 6.2.2)
(A) Ladder 100 accompanied the Operational Units to the vicinity of the operation, and
provided them with the needed equipment. Ladder 100 then withdrew to an area free from
immediate hazards.
(B) Ladder 100 served as the communications link relaying communications between the Entry
Team Leader, operating units, and the Command Post as needed using a Post radio.
(C) Ladder 200 included a Sked, CFR-D Equipment, defibrillator, Thermal Imaging Camera,
extra EDSCBA, search rope, and extra batteries with their normal FAST Unit tool assignments.
(D) All members of Ladder 100 assisted Ladder 200 in removing an unconscious member via a
Sked stretcher.
(E) Ladder 100 and Ladder 200 were “on air” throughout the operation.

12. D

5.3 Support Unit
5.3.1 Duties: The Support Unit shall accompany the Operational Units to the vicinity of
the operation, and provide them with the needed equipment. They shall then
withdraw from the immediate proximity of the operation to a location that if
possible, provides an area free from immediate hazards, and provides adequate
communication with the operational units and the Safety Management Team or
Command Post. The Support Unit shall serve as the communications link, relaying
communications between the Entry Team Leader, operating units, and the
Command Post as needed. The Support Unit will be “on air” along with the
operating units, and must not engage in any activities that would tax their air
supply.
5.3.2 The Support Unit may be required to assist the FAST Unit with additional
personnel during a Mayday situation. At least one member of this unit however,
shall maintain their position in the communications relay.

25

13. A Safety Management Team includes one (non-entry) member from each company
operating with EDSCBAs. Choose an incorrect point for the Safety Management Team to
consider. (6.1.2, 6.1.3, 6.1.4)
(A) The non-entry member detached from each unit shall be responsible for the masks used by
members of his or her unit.
(B) The Safety management Team monitors communications between the Entry Team and the
Command Post ensuring Urgent and Mayday messages are received and acknowledged by the
IC.
(C) The Safety Management Team shall predetermine the duration of operations using the
EDSCBA, ensuring operational plans shall not exceed 4 hours.
(D) The EDSCBA has a warning alarm on the mask that operates when approximately 60
minutes of operational time remains.

13. C

6.1.3 The Safety Management Team shall predetermine the duration of operations
using EDSCBA prior to entry. Operational plans shall not exceed 3 hours 30
minutes, allowing sufficient exit time for the entry team to reach fresh air.

26

Addendum 5
14. A newly assigned Probationary FF is cleaning and disinfecting her SCBA Regulator during
a 9x6 tour. Which action taken by the proby was correct? (1.3, 1.4, 1.5, 1.6)
(A) After removing the facepiece from the regulator, the FF removed obvious dirt from the
external surfaces of the regulator using 70% Isopropyl Alcohol with a sponge.
(B) Upon noticing excessive dirt inside the regulator assembly, the FF removed the dirt using
70% Isopropyl Alcohol with a sponge.
(C) After depressing the manual shut off and closing the purge valve by turning fully
clockwise, the FF sprayed a maximum of 4 full pumps of 70% Isopropyl Alcohol into the
regulator opening.
(D) The FF waited 5 minutes after spraying the 70% Isopropyl Alcohol before rinsing the
regulator with drinking water.

14. A

1.4 Inspect the inside of the regulator assembly through the regulator opening (Figure 1).
If excessive dirt or soil is present, return the entire SCBA with a completed RT-2 to
MSU, noting reason. Do not insert any foreign objects into the opening.

1.5 Depress the manual shut-off, close the purge knob by turning fully clockwise and spray a
minimum of 6 full pumps of 70% Isopropyl Alcohol into the regulator opening. Make
sure to also wet the immediate area around the opening (Figure 1). Swirl to completely
cover internal components. Turn regulator opening face down and shake excess liquid
out. Allow for 10 minutes of contact time to disinfect prior to rinsing.
Note: Alcohol and water should only be applied to the regulator surface and exhalation
port. Alcohol and water should not be directed into the spray bar ports.

27

15. Which of the following is a correct procedure to undertake while cleaning and disinfecting
the SCBA Regulator? (1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 2.1, 3.1)
(A) Alcohol and water can be directed into the spray bar ports if they need to be cleaned.
(B) The inside of the regulator should be thoroughly rinsed after applying the 70% alcohol if
time allows. If a response is required, the regulator should be rinsed upon return to quarters.
(C) Under no circumstances should the face of the regulator be banged against a hard surface to
remove water. Shaking and opening the purge valve is the only acceptable way to remove water.
(D) The regulator must be thoroughly dry before use in all weather and temperature conditions

15. C


1.6 Rinse regulator with drinking water using a spray bottle or softly running water.
The inside of regulator must be thoroughly rinsed after applying the 70% alcohol.
Failure to thoroughly rinse may cause a number of adverse effects. Rinsing is a key
component to the SCBA integrity after disinfecting.

2.1 It is strongly recommended that the regulator be thoroughly dry before use. However, in
emergency circumstances the regulator may be used immediately after cleaning and
rinsing as instructed above only if the following requirements are satisfied:
• Shake all excess water out of regulator. Open SCBA cylinder valve, then open purge
valve to remove any moisture from the regulator spray bar. Close the purge valve.
• Prevent exposure to temperatures below 32° F / 0° C while in storage and prior to use.

28

Addendum 7
16. Choose the incorrect statement concerning the use of corrective lenses with SCBA, APR
and PAPR facepieces. (3.1, 3.3, 3.4, 3.8, 3.9)
(A) Members may wear contact lenses with their facepieces.
(B) Members shall fax a copy of a corrective lens prescription that is less than 1 year old and a
completed MSU-1 directly to the Department-authorized vendor and to MSU when they wish to
use corrective lenses with their facepiece.
(C) When a completed spectacle kit is received, the member’s unit supervisor will arrange
delivery to the member.
(D) The member shall insert the completed spectacle kit into the appropriate mask when an
alarm is received.

16. D

3.8 The unit supervisor will arrange delivery of the completed spectacle kit to the member.
Upon receipt, the member shall immediately insert the completed spectacle kit into the
appropriate mask, and don the mask to ensure that the spectacle kit does not interfere
with his/her vision or the proper seal of the mask.
3.9 The completed spectacle kit shall be left inserted into the appropriate mask, which shall
be maintained, used and inspected according to procedures for the appropriate facepiece.

29

Addendum 8
17. The Scott Pak-Tracker is currently carried by all Rescue and Squad Companies, the Rescue
Battalion and Safety Battalion. Which point about its’ basic use is incorrect? (2.1, 3.1, 4.1,
5.2)
(A) When the PASS goes into full alarm (activated), it transmits a signal that is received by the
Pak-Tracker.
(B) The Pak-Tracker will begin to vibrate when the transmitted signal is received and display
the identity (unit and name of member) of the SCBA and the time of activation on the LCD
display.
(C) The maximum range of the personal transmitter to the Pak-Tracker is approximately 950
feet line of sight.
(D) The Pak-Tracker receiver is not suitable for use in potentially flammable or explosive
atmospheres.

17- B was the original answer. Due to the bulletin revision, A and C are also wrong. A is wrong because now the PASS must go into full alarm for 10 seconds before a signal is transmitted to the Pak Tracker Receiver. C is now incorrect because the maximum range is approximately 900 feet line of sight.

30

18. The Pak-Tracker receiver is turned on by pressing and holding both the Enter (right) and
the Scroll (left) buttons at the same time. Which choice is incorrect concerning the monitoring
capability? (5.3, 5.4)
(A) The Pak-tracker can store up to 36 SCBA identities.
(B) The receiver’s LCD display screen is large enough to display two lines of information.
(C) If two PASS Alarms are activated then both SCBA identities will display in the LCD
screen. If a third PASS alarm activates, it will show at the top of the LCD screen and the 1st
PASS identity will move off the screen.
(D) Once a Pak-Tracker has locked onto the signal of a specific PASS it can still receive any
additional PASS alarm signals.

18. D

31

19. The Rescue or Squad Company shall bring the Pak-Tracker to the ICP, turn it on and
notify the IC. Which action that follows is incorrect? (6.3, 6.5, 7.4)
(A) Once the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS, the member monitoring the Pak-
Tracker shall immediately transmit a Mayday.
(B) When the IC decides to utilize the tracking capability of the Pak-Tracker, only members
trained in this procedure shall perform this task.
(C) To track an activated PASS alarm, press the Enter button once.
(D) If two or more PASS alarm are activated and transmitting, press and hold the Scroll button
for 3 seconds until the PASS alarm you want to track appears in the top row of the LCD display.

19- A (B is now wrong also due to revising of Bulletin. It no longer mentions the trained
member.)

6.1 When an SCBA’s PASS alarm is activated in the full-alarm mode for ten seconds, the
PASS alarm transmits a signal that can be received by the Pak-Tracker handheld receiver.
When this occurs, the Pak-Tracker receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm and display
the identity (unit and member assignment) of the SCBA.
Note: A ten-second time lag is built into the system in order to minimize inadvertent
activations.

32

20. A recently promoted Lt. is holding a drill on the operation of the Pak-Tracker. Which two
statement made by the Lt. are correct concerning this tool? (7.6, 7.7, 7.8, 7.9)
(A) To begin searching, hold the Pak-Tracker horizontally at shoulder level out in front.
(B) When the signal strength rises above the 25% level, the row of LED’s will begin to light
starting with Green at the bottom, Yellow in the middle, and Red at the top.
(C) When there are features such as doors, hallways, openings or windows, take readings at
each feature to determine a possible general direction for the signal.
(D) Start sweeping the Pak-Tracker, starting at the ceiling and working your way down to the
floor.
(E) Always pause 2 to 3 seconds for a reading. It is best to pause at distinct directional points,
i.e. to the left, in front, to the right. Always move towards the highest relative signal strength
displayed.

20- C (E was correct, but is now incorrect in the new bulletin

7.6 To begin searching, the Pak-Tracker should be held at waist height out in front of the
operating member- the top of the hand-held receiver should be pointed toward the target
(Photo 4). This is important because the hand-held receiver’s sensor captures the distress
signal from the top of the unit, and the relative signal strength will be greatly affected by
the orientation of the hand-held receiver.

During a search, the row of LEDs and the numerical signal strength shown on the LCD
display indicate the relative strength and approximate direction of the signal from the
SCBA. Pointing the Pak-Tracker in the direction of the strongest relative signal and
moving in that direction should lead to the activated SCBA. When the signal strength
rises above the 50-percent level, the row of LEDs will begin to light starting with red at
the bottom, yellow in the middle, and green at the top.

33

21. Squad 200 is operating a Pak-Tracker at a 3rd alarm in a commercial building. Which
action taken by Squad 200 should be corrected? (7.10, 7.11, 7.13, 7.14)
(A) The Irons FF, a trained member, was operating the Pak-Tracker and was at the front of the
search team.
(B) In an attempt to locate an activated PASS alarm from the street, the Irons FF pointed the
Pak-Tracker at a closed, glass window.
(C) Upon determining that the strongest signal was coming from inside a doorway, Squad 200
entered the doorway while continuing to Read, Interpret and Follow.
(D) After entering the doorway, Squad 200 encountered a wall constructed of metal C-Joists
and corrugated tin. The Irons FF pointed the Pak-Tracker at the wall to determine if the PASS
alarm was behind the tin wall

21. D

7.10 An SCBA signal will pass through some materials, but will not penetrate through other
materials.
The signal from the SCBA to the Pak-Tracker will usually pass through:
 Glass
 Light building materials
 Openings such as gaps, holes, stairways, windows, or elevator shafts
 Wood
The signal will reflect and/or not penetrate through:
 Metal, including structural framework
 Large metal objects
 Concrete walls or floors
 Brick or concrete block construction
Note: The signal will attempt to pass around these objects

34

1. Purple K is the superior dry chemical to use to extinguish methanol fires. Which of the
following is incorrect concerning the Purple K extinguisher? (2.2)
(A) The discharge range is 19-20 feet.
(B) The discharge time is 11 seconds.
(C) The coverage is approximately 30 square feet.
(D) The extinguisher can be used only between 32 and 120 degrees. The extinguisher cannot
be used in below freezing temperatures.

1. D

35

2. Choose the correct point concerning the use and inspection of the Purple K Extinguisher.
(2.3.3, 2.3.4, 2.4)
(A) The stream should be directed at the top of the fire using a circular motion.
(B) To achieve even distribution and obtain best results, the extinguisher shall be held with the
member’s strongest hand. The nozzle shall be held with the other hand.
(C) Expended extinguishers are refilled in quarters following all required instructions.
(D) The extinguisher shall be checked at the beginning of each tour and thoroughly examined
once a month

2. D

36

3. When using the Purple K extinguisher at a flammable liquid spill fire, or a flammable
liquid spill fire in depth, which action taken would be incorrect? (4.1, 4.3)
(A) The fire should be approached from the upwind side holding the nozzle at a 90 degree
angle to the ground. Stop at a point 15 feet from the front edge of the fire area.
(B) The stream should initially be directed 6 inches ahead of the flame edge, or at the upwind
corner of the fire 6 inches ahead of the lip if in depth.
(C) A rapid side to side sweeping motion shall be used.
(D) Each sweep of the stream must be slightly wider than the near edge of the fire, or the pan if
in depth.
(E) The nozzle shall not be raised to chase a fire ball. When in depth, to raise the stream the
extinguisher shall be raised rather than the nozzle.

3. A

Approach the fire from the upwind side holding the
nozzle at a 45 degree angle to the ground. Stop
walking at a point approximately 10 to 12 feet from the
front edge of the fire area.(fig. 4-1)

37

4. When extinguishing a flammable liquid spill fire with an obstacle, how much of the fire
area should each operator cover? (4.2, 4.4)
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) ½
(D) 2/3

4. D

38

5. Choose the incorrect tactic concerning the extinguishment of an LPG fire using Purple K
and water. (4.9)
(A) Approach the fire from an upwind position using the wind to the best advantage.
(B) Open the dry chemical nozzle first, directing the stream at the fuel source (broken flange).
(C) Open the water nozzles first and adjust to the fog position.
(D) The simultaneous use of water and dry chemical combine to make a highly effective fire
fighting tool.

5. B

39

6. Which choice is wrong concerning the use of the Purple K Unit? (Add. 1 Sec.
1.2.1, 1.2.2, 1.2.3)
(A) Purple K can be used on all types of aircraft fuels, and is recommended for use on Class
“B” fires including alcohol and “C” fires.
(B) The Purple K Unit can be used to extinguish LNG, LPG and pressurized gas fires in
conjunction with the use of fog nozzles.
(C) Purple K should always be used in conjunction with AFFF foam when used on aircraft
fuels.
(D) Purple K is especially designed for use on 3-D fires or flange fires.

c. 1.2.1 Purple K-dry chemical agent is a very successful extinguishing agent for use on
all types of aircraft fuels. It should always be used in conjunction with
Fluoroprotein foam when used on aircraft fuels.

40

7. When using the Purple K Unit, it is recommended that the hose line be fully deployed
before charging the system. Which point is incorrect about this unit? (1.1.6,1.3.4,
1.3.7, 1.3.8, 1.3.9)
(A) When using more than one extinguisher, the angle of attack of the extinguishers should be
no more than 45 degrees.
(B) Always control ground fires first.
(C) Never turn your back on the fire.
(D) The Purple K truck mounted system will last less than 2 minutes.
(E) It is possible to attach two 100’ lengths of 1” hose together.

7. B

1.1.6 Two electric hose reels containing 100' of 1" hose, with special nozzles for
expelling the product are installed. It is possible to attach 2 lengths together but
discharge pressure may be reduced.

1.3.4 Operations at large, complex or difficult to access sites may require that several
extinguishers be used. When using more than one extinguisher, the angle of
attack of these extinguishers should be no more than 90 degrees to avoid exposing
members. Check the area for portable 300 lbs. cylinders or use hand
extinguishers.

41

PART IV – TB – TOOLS #1 - 9:
1. The pressurized water extinguisher contains 2 ½ gallons of water pressurized at 100 psi.
Choose the incorrect choice concerning the use of this tool. (Tools 1, Sec. 2, 3)
(A) Direct a straight stream at the base of the fire. A gloved finger placed lightly over the
nozzle tip can produce a fine spray.
(B) Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should be used at all fires.
(C) The extinguisher can be used to control mattress fires or control a smoldering fire in the
wall.
(D) The extinguisher can be used to cool a burned victim or member, or temporarily protect
members operating in fire conditions.

1. B

Note: Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should only be used at very
small or smoldering fires where there is no detectable thermal draft created by
the fire. Thermal draft may cause the spray to become steam and possibly burn
the user or others in close proximity.

42

2. Which choice is correct concerning the inspection and recharging of the pressurized water
extinguisher? (Tools 1, Sec. 5)
(A) The pressurized water extinguisher shall be inspected each tour and before each use.
(B) If the hydrostatic test date is greater than 5 years, the extinguisher may be used pending
arrival of a new extinguisher.
(C) When an extinguisher has a Schrader connection, while filling it with air to 100 psi it is
necessary to depress the extinguisher operating lever.
(D) When recharging an extinguisher without a Schrader connection, the discharge hose is
unscrewed and removed from the assembly, and replaced with a pressurization charge adapter
with a pre-attached Schrader connection.

2. D

5. RECHARGING
EXTINGUISHER WITH SCHRADER CONNECTION
A. Invert the extinguisher, and point the nozzle in a safe direction.
B. Squeeze the lever to release residual air pressure then check the extinguisher
gauge to verify all pressure is removed.
C. Inspect extinguisher (refer to section 4 above).
D. Remove the head assembly. Closely examine all components to ensure they are
not damaged cracked or worn.
E. Wash all parts with water. Rinse hose and nozzle.
E. Fill the extinguisher with clean potable water to the inside mark.
F. Replace the head assembly, and properly snug it down.
G. Using a regulated air hose with gauge and Schrader connection, slowly fill with
air to 100 PSI. Reference the extinguisher pressure gauge to check proper charge
(Figures 4 and 5).
H. Install ring pin into valve assembly.

EXTINGUISHER WITHOUT SCHRADER CONNECTION
A. Invert the extinguisher, and point the nozzle in a safe direction.
B. Squeeze the lever to release residual air pressure then check the extinguisher
gauge to verify all pressure is removed.
C. Inspect extinguisher (refer to section 4 above).
D. Remove the head assembly. Closely examine all components to ensure they are
not damaged cracked or worn.
E. Wash all parts with water. Rinse hose and nozzle.
E. Fill the extinguisher with clean potable water to the inside mark.
F. Replace the head assembly, and properly snug it down.
G. Unscrew and remove discharge hose from assembly (Figure 6).

H. Carefully install pressurization charge adapter with pre-attached Schrader connection
(Figure 7) into the discharge valve outlet port and hand tighten. (Figure 8).
I. Using a regulated air hose with gauge and the Schrader connection, depress the
extinguisher operating lever and slowly pressurize the extinguisher to 100 PSI.
(Figure 9)
J. Release lever and remove the pressure source, reference the extinguisher pressure
gauge to check proper charge. Install ring pin into valve assembly.
K. Uninstall charge adapter from discharge valve output port.
L. Reinstall and secure the hose assembly into the discharge valve outlet port.

43

3. The KO Curtain has been used several times recently by FDNY members. Which choice is
wrong concerning the KO Curtain? (Tools 2, Sec. 2.1, 6.2)
(A) There is an immediate 50% decrease in temperatures and significant flame reduction when
the KO Curtain is deployed.
(B) There will be an increase in smoke production when the KO Curtain is deployed.
(C) When the KO Curtain is used during operations, the Officer of the unit that deployed the
curtain will prepare a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations.
(D) A replacement KO Curtain shall be obtained from the administrative Division

3. C

6.2 The Ladder Company Officer of the confiscated KO Curtain will prepare a brief
letterhead report to Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description
of any damage that may have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident.
The officer shall also include any additional information that may be important to the
future use of this device and forward a report via chain of command with copy to the
Chief of the Fire Academy.

44

4. Who can order the deployment of the KO Curtain at a fire in a High Rise Fireproof
Multiple Dwelling? (FFP MDs Sec. 6.13.4 B , Evolution 34 Se. 1.2)
(A) The Incident Commander
(B) The first arriving Ladder Company Officer
(C) The second arriving Ladder Company Officer
(D) Either the Incident Commander or the First Arriving Ladder Company Officer

4. A

45

5. Ladder 100 is ordered by the Deputy Chief to deploy their Fire Window Blanket to cover a
window on the 12th floor of a 40 story Fireproof High Rise Multiple Dwelling. Which point
would Ladder 100 be incorrect in considering? (Tools 3, Sec.3.2, 3.4, 3.5, 3.6)
(A) The Blanket is large enough to cover at least two windows if necessary. The bottom of the
blanket is weighted.
(B) The Officer of Ladder 100 or the IC shall designate a spotter to observe the deployment of
the blanket from the exterior. The spotter will report any change in conditions to the IC.
(C) The officer of Ladder 100 will assign members to the 11th floor to secure the Fire Window
Blanket.
(D) The Blanket can be lowered from the 13th, 14th or 15th floors.
(E) Just before the blanket is put in place, the IC must make a HT announcement to all units.

5. D

46

6. The inspection and replacement of the Fire Window Blanket are extremely important tasks
that all Officers should be familiar with. Which choice is wrong concerning these duties?
(Tools 3, Sec. 4.3, 4.4, 4.5, 4.6)
(A) When a replacement of a Fire Window Blanket is required, the company officer shall
obtain one from the administrative Division.
(B) Under no circumstances is the Fire Window Blanket to be deployed for drill purposes.
Each Division has been issued Training Fire Window Blankets for drill.
(C) If the Fire Window Blanket is damaged in other than fire operations, a letterhead report
shall be completed with all details to the Chief of Operations.
(D) The blanket shall be inspected weekly during MUD and after each use.
(E) The blanket shall be placed out of service if the aluminized foil is peeling and separating
from the white cloth.

6. A

47

7. Choose the only choice with correct information about Portable Power Generators,
Apparatus mounted generators, and Power Cords and Adapters. (Tools 4, Sec. 3.5,
3.8.2, 3.8.5, 5.3)
(A) If a portable generator is used to power an exhaust fan, the ideal length of the electrical
cord should be 100 feet or less.
(B) Portable generators shall be operated for 15 minutes weekly, with all lights operated for 5
minutes.
(C) Oil shall be changed by units after 100 hours of use.
(D) All power cords and adapters will not function when they are submerged in water.

7. B

3.5 If a portable generator is used to power an exhaust fan, the ideal length of the electrical
cord should be 50 feet or less. Electrical cords of longer lengths reduce the efficiency of
the fan and may result in damage to the equipment being used. Distance is not a problem
when powering small tools and lights.

3.7 If a generator requires any repair or service, it should be sent to Technical Services by
Division messenger.

3.8.2 Operate portable generators for 15 minutes weekly. During this time, operate all
lights for 5 minutes to test for proper working order of lights and generator under
load. If lamps do not light while testing or using, check bulbs for tight connection.

3.8.4 Check the oil in the crankcase often and ensure that it is at the correct level.
Fill with 10W-30 motor oil as per manufacturers specifications. Do not overfill!
3.8.5 Oil should be changed after fifty hours of use; this should be done by Technical
Services.
3.8.6 If a generator requires maintenance or repair, it shall be sent to Technical Services
by Division messenger

48

8. Hand held hose nozzles are among the most important tools that members use. Which
choice contains incorrect information about these nozzles? (Tools 7, Sec. 3.4, 3.8, 3.10)
(A) Combination straight stream/fog devices shall be placed in straight stream position (turned
to the right) at all times when stored on the apparatus or in the hose bed.
(B) Until conditions require removal, the Outer Stream Tip (1/2” tip) shall always be attached
to the nozzle.
(C) When the Outer Stream Tip is removed from the nozzle, they shall be in the possession of
the Nozzle Firefighter.
(D) Nozzles should be washed out and thoroughly checked for any defects before being placed
back in service following use.

8. C

49

9. When testing controlling nozzles, two lengths of hose (100’) shall be stretched from the
pumper, the nozzle shall be attached, water started with sufficient pressure developed to attain an
effective stream and the shut offs opened and closed several times. When shall nozzles be tested
as described above? (Tools 7 Sec. 3.15)
(1) Annually in August in accordance with schedules established by Division Commanders.
(2) Whenever deemed necessary in accordance with schedules established by Division
Commanders.
(3) When newly issued before being placed in service
(4) When repaired before being placed in service.
(A) 1,2 only
(B) 1, 3, 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 only
(D) 1,2,3,4

9. D

50

10. While discussing the Automatic FT-2 Fog Tip, the UFO Lieutenant made the following
statements. Which one was correct? (Tools 7: Data Sheet 12 Sec. 3.1, 3.3, 3.4, 5.1)
(A) The key to the efficiency of the operation with the FT-2 tip will be the Engine Officer.
(B) The FT-2 tip, delivering a flow of approximately 180 Gallons per minute is considered an
acceptable firefighting stream.
(C) When the FT-2 tip is delivering an acceptable firefighting stream, one Firefighter can
handle the hoseline.
(D) To verify that the FT-2 tip is in the straight stream position, place the thumb into the bore.
If the thumb can be inserted fully into the bore, the tip is in the straight stream position.

10. B

3.1 The key to the efficiency of the operation with the FT-2 tip will be the pump operator.

5.1 AN EFFECTIVE FIRE FIGHTING STREAM, USING THE FT-2 TIP, IS ONE
DELIVERING APPROXIMATELY 180 GPM AND REQUIRING AT LEAST TWO MEN
TO HANDLE THE HOSELINE. PROPER ENGINE PRESSURE MUST BE PROVIDED.

3.4.1 To verify that the FT-2 tip is in the straight stream position, place the index finger into
the bore. If the finger can be inserted to the first joint, the tip is in the straight stream
position.

51

11. While responding to a 10-77, the officer of Engine 100, the 4th due Engine, reviews the
response ticket and considers his duties. Which thought was correct? (Tools 7, DS 17
Sec. 2.3)
(A) Engine 12, the 2nd due Engine, is listed on the response ticket as E012N. Engine 12 is
responsible to bring the High Rise Nozzle (HRN) to the Command Post.
(B) Engine 100 is always responsible for placing the High Rise Nozzle in operation if it is put
into use.
(C) Due to Engine 100 not being equipped with a High Rise Nozzle, the officer contacts the
dispatcher for the identity of the engine company equipped with a HRN assigned on the box.
(D) Engine 100 will bring the HRN and one length of hose per firefighter to the Command
Post. A standpipe kit is not necessary because the 3rd due Engine will provide it.

11. C

52

12. It would be incorrect to say that the HRN has which of the following qualities?
(Tools 7 DS 17, Sec. 4.1, 4.2, 4.3)
(A) The HRN is an 8 foot long aluminum pipe with a 68 degree two-foot bend.
(B) The shut off is permanently attached to the nozzle.
(C) A 1 1/8” Main Stream Tip is permanently attached to the HRN and is checked only after
use.
(D) When supplied by a 2 ½” hoseline, the HRN produces flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi
nozzle pressure with water flowing.
(E) As a general rule, the pressure at the standpipe pressure gauge should read 70 psi when
using 3 lengths of 2 ½” hose, and 80 psi when using 4 lengths of 2 ½” hose.

12. D

4.2 A 1 1/8” MST is attached to the outlet of the high rise nozzle. The tip is removable and
should be checked weekly during MUD and before use. (Photo 2)

53

13. Putting the HRN into operation will require the services of ________ equipped with rollups,
standpipe kits, forcible entry tools including a rabbit tool and the HRN. (Tools 7 DS
17 Sec. 5.6)
(A) Two Engine Companies
(B) One Engine Company
(C) One Engine Company and One Ladder Company
(D) One Engine Company and One Squad Company

13. A

5.6 Putting the nozzle into operation will require the services of two engine companies
equipped with roll-ups, standpipe kits, forcible entry tools including a rabbit tool and the
high rise nozzle.

54

14. There are several tasks that must take place when using the HRN. Which one is incorrectly
described? (Tools 7 DS 17, Sec. 5.5, 5.9, 5.10, 5.12)
(A) Window bars, child gates, and windows will have to be removed from the window that the
HRN will be operated from.
(B) The supply line must be attached to the HRN before the nozzle is slid out on the window
sill for use.
(C) If multiple rooms are involved, it will be necessary to reposition the nozzle to ensure
complete knockdown of the fire.
(D) A spotter, equipped with a HT and binoculars, should be in place to provide direction and
progress reports to the IC and members operating.

14. A

5.9 Once the proper window is chosen and opened, impediments such as window bars, child
gates, will have to be removed. In most cases it is not necessary to remove the window to
operate the nozzle. Some thermal pane windows are easily removed via clips on the top of
the sash.

55

15. Engine 333 is tasked with the duty of operating a HRN at a wind driven fire that has
control of multiple rooms on the 23rd floor of a 40 story Fireproof Multiple Dwelling. Which
action taken should be corrected? (Tools 7 DS 17, Sec. 5.13, 5.14)
(A) The Officer of Engine 333 ordered members to clear several windows of window gates and
bars in the apartment on the 22nd floor that the HRN was operating in to speed up repositioning.
(B) After determining that 3 lengths of hose are required to supply the HRN, a shut off was
placed between the 1st and 2nd lengths of hose.
(C) When repositioning of the HRN was required, the Officer of Engine 333 ordered the line
shut down at the standpipe outlet.
(D) Once in position in a new window, and supplied with water, the Officer of Engine 333
notified the IC and waited for IC approval before operating the HRN.

15. C

56

16. The cockloft nozzles is one of the newer tools used by the FDNY. Which choice is correct
concerning this tool? (Data Sheet 18, Sec. 1.2, 1.4, 2.1)
(A) To increase the reach of the stream to over 60 feet, one of the ½” OSTs may be removed.
(B) The cockloft nozzle is to be supplied with a 2 ½” handline with the same pressure normally
supplied to a 2 ½” handline.
(C) The cockloft nozzle is designed to extinguish fires in the cockloft of residential buildings
only.
(D) The cockloft nozzle should never be the primary attack line and is only to be used when
supported and protected by an additional conventional handline.

16. D

57

17. Which choice accurately describes who can direct the operation of a cockloft nozzle?
(DS 17, Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 4.1)
(A) The Incident Commander, who may be the 1st arriving Lt. or Capt.
(B) The officer of the Squad Company which brought the cockloft nozzle to the incident.
(C) Any Chief Officer
(D) Only the Incident Commander, who must be a Deputy Chief or higher rank.

17. C

58

18. An officer conducting a drill on the use of the cockloft nozzle would be demonstrating
proper knowledge of the tool if she made which statement below? (DS 17, Sec. 3.2,
3.3, 3.4, 3.7)
(A) A hole should not be cut in the roof of a NFP MD until the cockloft nozzle has been placed
into operation.
(B) When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP MD, the preferred location for operation is
immediately inside the apartment door.
(C) A hole approximately 2’x2’ is needed in the ceiling for the cockloft nozzle to fit.
(D) There must be a minimum clearing of 2” between the top of the ceiling joists and the
bottom of the roof joists to operate the cockloft nozzle.
(E) The use of the cockloft nozzle eliminates the need of pulling ceilings for final
extinguishment.

18. B

59

19. Which direction should members not operate the cockloft nozzle? (DS 17, Sec. 3.5)
(A) Continuous counter-clockwise direction.
(B) Rotating the nozzle 90 degrees and returning it to its original position to provide maximum
coverage.
(C) Clockwise

19. A

60

20. Which capability of the various types of blades used on the portable power saw is not
correct? (Tools 9, Sec. 2.2.1, 2.2.2, 2.2.3, TB Fires 4 Sec. 3.2)
(A) Carbide tip blades will cut through gravel and tar covered roofs and wood flooring. This
tip cannot cut through any metal.
(B) Aluminum oxide blades will cut through various types of steel, including auto bodies,
metal security doors and metal window bars.
(C) Silicon Carbide blades will cut through concrete and other masonry materials.
(D) The carbide tipped blade can cut LEXAN quickly and easily.

20. A

61

21. Which guideline for the replacement of saw blades is incorrect? (Tools 9, Sec. 3.3)
(A) Carbide tipped blades with 8 or more tips missing or broken
(B) Carbide tipped blades with 8 or more tips worn down to the circumference of the blade.
(C) Aluminum oxide or silicon carbide blades worn down to 8” radius or less.
(D) Aluminum oxide or silicon carbide blades cracked or badly nicked.
(E) Aluminum oxide or silicon carbide blades with the center hole out of round.

21. C

3.3 For any major repairs return the saw to the Technical Service Division.
3.3.1 The saw should be placed out of service if blade continues to spin at a low idle.
(This is usually the result of clutch failure).
3.3.2 Return carbide-tipped blades to the Technical Service Division when eight (8) or more
tips are missing or broken, or worn down to the circumference of the blade.
3.3.3 Return aluminum oxide or silicon carbide blades for replacement whenever:
A. Cracked or badly nicked.
B. Center hole wears out of round.
C. Blade is worn down to 8" diameter or less.
3.3.4 Blades must be kept tight when on the saw.

62

22. The operation of the power saw requires several precautions to be taken. Choose the only
choice which is correct. (Tools 9, Sec.4.4.6, 4.7.1, 4.14.1, 4.14.2)
(A) Only the saw operator and the guide member may enter the 20 foot radius circle of danger.
(B) When the guide member slaps the back of the operator three times, it means to stop the
cut.
(C) The saw may be used on other than a flat horizontal surface at foot level on the direct order
and/or under the supervision of an officer.
(D) The power saw may only be used on a peak roof from an aerial ladder or tower ladder
basket.

22. C

4.4.6 A physical communication system between the Guide Man and the Operator will be as
follows:
A. One slap on the back of Operator .................Stop Cut.
B. Two slaps on the back of Operator ...............Cut.
C. Three slaps on the back of Operator..............Shut Down Saw

4.7.1 Only the Officer, the Operator and the member designated as the guide may enter this
circle. All persons directly to the rear of the operating saw blade must be warned
away, as the saw may throw debris 20' feet or more.

Note: Use of power saw from ladder (except Tower Ladder Basket) is not
recommended if there is another alternative .

63

23. When using which blades would you rev the saw, and bring the blade up to full RPM
before contacting the surface with the blade to begin the cut? (Tools 9, Sec. 5.7.1)
(1) Carbide blade
(2) Aluminum Oxide Disc
(3) Silicon Carbide Disc
(A) 1, 2
(B) 1,2,3
(C) 2,3
(D) 1 only

23. D

64

24. While making a coffin cut, which action taken by the Roof FF of Ladder 421 was
incorrect? (Tools 9, Sec. 6.1.6, 6.1.7, 6.1.8, 6.10)
(A) After seeing sparks while cutting, the saw was moved to the inside of the cut, permitting a
cut clear of the beam.
(B) When resistance was met when cutting perpendicular to the roof beams, the saw was lifted
to avoid a deep cut into the beams.
(C) After noting fresh smoke and a slowing of the saw blade, the saw was removed from the
cut, revved up top maximum RPM, and a slightly shallower cut was started.
(D) The knock out corner cut was made as the 4th cut.

24. D

65

PART V – UNIFORM FILING SYSTEM:
1. The Uniform Filing System (UFS) is divided into 9 primary sections. Which of the
following correctly identifies Sections 3 and 8? (Instructions)
(A) Personnel and Fire Prevention
(B) Operations and Fire Prevention
(C) Personnel and Finances-Funds
(D) Operations and Finances-Funds

1. B

“Remember, Always Pull Out The Existing File Card First”

66

2. To add flexibility to the UFS, in each of the 40 secondary sections a folder is designated
“Miscellaneous” and bearing the code number “99”. What is found on the face of these 40
folders? (Two Correct) (p. 3)
(A) The number “99” stenciled on the folder.
(B) A Sectional Index that lists every standard folder title and code number in that section.
(C) The words “Uniform Filing System”
(D) A Sectional Index that contains a column to indicate whether a folder exists for a particular
subject or if no folder is established, the location of the material.

2. B, D

This is accomplished by establishing in each of the 40 secondary
sections a folder designated "Miscellaneous" and bearing the code number "99". On the face of
each of these 40 folders will appear a "sectional index" listing every standard folder title and
code number in that section and a column to indicate-whether a folder exists for a particular
subject or if no folder established, the location of the material.

67

3. When _____ or more documents accumulate on a particular subject within the “99” folder,
an individual folder shall be established. (p. 3)
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

3. C

68

4. Choose the incorrect statement about the UFS.
(A) Each unit shall post in a conspicuous location in the office a chart indicating the location of
all file and records.
(B) Unit commanders shall designate one officer to assume the duties of File Supervisor.
(C) The “Report” file section should be established directly in the rear of the file drawer by a
unit commander as a mandatory section of the UFS. These reports shall be disposed of when no
longer active.

4. C

The "Report" file section, which is outlined below, may be established directly in front of the file
drawer by a unit commander as an optional section of this proposed "Uniform Filing System."
These reports shall be refiled in the regular file folders when no longer active

Decks in Firetech Class (61):