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Dermatology > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are drugs that are used on the skin dissolved in?

A

Bases or vehicles

Gels, Creams, Ointments, Pastes, Lotions

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2
Q

What is a cream?

A

Semisolid emulsion of oil in water

Contains emulsifier and preservative

High water content

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3
Q

What are the benefits of creams?

A

Cool and moisturise (high water content)

non-greasy

easy to apply

cosmetically acceptable

contain preservative (shelf-life)

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4
Q

What is an ointment?

A

Semisolid grease/oil (soft paraffin)

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5
Q

What are the benefits of ointment?

A

Occlusive and emollient

Restrict transepidermal water loss

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6
Q

What are the drawbacks of ointments?

A

No preservative

Greasy - less cosmetically attractive

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7
Q

What is a lotion?

A

Liquid formulation: suspension or solution of medication in water, alcohol or other liquids

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8
Q

What are the benefits of lotions?

A

Tx scalp, hair bearing areas

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9
Q

What are the drawbacks of lotions?

A

If contain alcohol, may sting

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10
Q

What is a gel?

A

A thickened aqueous lotion

Semi-solid, containing high mol wt polymers e.g. methylcellulose

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11
Q

What areas of the body can gels be used to treat?

A

Scalp, hair bearing areas, face

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12
Q

What is a paste?

A

Semisolid which contains finely powdered material e.g. ZNO

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13
Q

What are the drawbacks of pastes?

A

Stiff, greasy, difficult to apply

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14
Q

What are the benefits of pastes?

A

Protective, occlusive, hydrating

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15
Q

When are pastes often used clinically?

A

Cooling, drying, soothing bandages

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16
Q

What is the function of an emollient?

A

Enhance rehydration of epidermis

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17
Q

What are emollients prescribed for?

A

All dry/scaly conditions esp. eczema

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18
Q

What are the drawbacks of emollients?

A

Need to be effective and cosmetically acceptable

Prescribe 300-500g weekly

Need frequent application

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19
Q

What are the modes of action of topical corticosteroids?

A

Vasoconstrictors, anti-inflammatory, anti-proliferative

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20
Q

Name a mild topical steroid

A

Hydrocortisone 1%

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21
Q

Name a moderate topical steroid

A

Modrasone, Clobetasone, Butyrate 0.05%

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22
Q

Name a potent topical steroid

A

Mometasone, Betamethasone, Valerate 0.1%

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23
Q

Name a very potent topical steroid

A

Clobetasol, proprionate 0.05%

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24
Q

What skin conditions are topical corticosteroids prescribed for?

A

Eczema (dermatitis), Psoriasis, other non-infective inflammatory dermatoses e.g. lichen plans, Keloid scars (usually intralesional)

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25
Q

What are the side effects of topical corticosteroids?

A 
Thinning of skin 
Purpura 
Stretch marks 
Steroid rosocea 
Fixed telangiectasia 
Perioral dermatitis 
May worsen or mask infections
Systemic absorption 
Tachyphylaxis: decrease in response to anti-inflammatory effects 
Rebound flare of disease (esp. psoriasis)
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26
Q

What is an antiseptic?

A

Agent with bacteriostatic or bactericidal effects

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27
Q

Name a common antiseptic

A

Povidone iodine (Betadine) skin cleanser
Chlorhexidine (Hibitane, Savlon)
Triclosan (Aquasept, Sterzac)
Hydrogen peroxide (Crystacide)

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28
Q

What are the clinical uses of antiseptics?

A

Recurrent infections
Antibiotic resistance
Wound irrigation
e.g. Potassium permanganate rinse/soak/bath use in acute exudative eczema, pompholyx

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29
Q

What topical antibiotics are used in acne?

A

Clindamycin, erythromycin, tetracycline

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30
Q

What topical antibiotic is used in rosacea?

A

Metronidazole

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31
Q

What topical antibiotics are used in impetigo?

A

Mupurocin, fusidic acid

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32
Q

What viral infection is a topical antiviral prescribed for?

A

Herpes simplex (cold sore)

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33
Q

What viral infections are oral antivirals prescribed for?

A

Eczema herpeticum, Herpes zoster (shingles)

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34
Q

What topical antifungals are prescribed for candida (thrush)?

A

Nystatin, clotrimazole

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35
Q

What topical antifungals are prescribed for dermatophytes (ringworm)?

A

Clotrimazole, trinafine cream

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36
Q

What topical antifungal is prescribed for pityriasis versicolor?

A

Ketoconazole

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37
Q

Name commonly prescribed antipruritics

A

Menthol (dermacool), capsaicin, camphor, phenol, crotamiton (e.g. Eurax cream)

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38
Q

Name a common keratolytic

A

Salicylic acid 10-40%

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39
Q

What are keratolytics used for?

A 
Soften keratin:
Viral warts 
Hyperkeratotic eczema and psoriasis 
Corns and calluses 
To remove keratin plaques in scalp
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40
Q

What is the Tx of warts?

A 
Mechanical paring plus:
Keratolytics e.g. Salicylic acid 
Formaldehyde 
Gluteraldehyde 
Silver nitrate 
Cryotherapy (usually liquid nitrogen) 
Podophyllin (genital warts)
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41
Q

What is the topical Tx of psoriasis?

A 
Emollients and choice of 
- Coal tar 
- Vit D analogue
- Keratolytic 
- Topical steroid 
- Dithranol 
based on: sites affected, extent, severity, side effects, compliance
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42
Q

What are the negatives of coal tar in psoriasis?

A

Messy and smelly

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43
Q

What are the pros and cons of the use of Vit D analogues in psoriasis?

A

Clean, no smell, easy to apply BUT

Can be irritant (use limited to 100g weekly)

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44
Q

What are the pros and cons of the use of Dithranol in psoriasis?

A

Effective BUT difficult to use and is a irritant and stains normal skin

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45
Q

What is prescribed for stable chronic plaque psoriasis?

A

Coal tar, Vit D analogues, Dithranol

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46
Q

What is the Tx for Scalp psoriasis?

A

Greasy ointments to soften scale
Tar shampoo
Steroids in alcohol base or shampoo

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47
Q

What is the Tx for axillary psoriasis?

A

Topical steroids for face, flexures and groin/genitals, consider combo antibacterial, anti fungal

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48
Q

What is the pharmacological effect of Imiquimod?

A

Immune response modulator which enhances innate and cell-mediated immunity

Has anti-viral and anti-tumour effects

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49
Q

What is the commercial name for Imiquimod?

A

Aldara Cream

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50
Q

What is Imiquimod used to Tx?

A

Genital warts, superficial BCC

Also: solar keratoses, lentigno maligna, Bowen’s disease, verrucae

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51
Q

What dermatological condition are calcineurin inhibitors used in?

A

Topical Tx of atopic eczema (esp. face, children)

They don’t cause cutaneous atrophy

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52
Q

What are the side effects of calcineurin inhibitors?

A

May cause burning sensation on application

?Risk of cutaneous infections, ??risk skin cancer

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53
Q

Name two calcineurin inhibitors used in dermatology

A

Tacrolimus, pimecrolimus

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54
Q

What is hyperkeratosis?

A

Increased thickness of keratin layer

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55
Q

What is parakeratosis?

A

Persistence of nuclei in the keratin layer

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56
Q

What is acanthosis?

A

Increased thickness of epidermis

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57
Q

What is papillomatosis?

A

Irregular epithelial thickening

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58
Q

What is spongiosis?

A

Oedema between keratinocytes

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59
Q

What is an inflammatory cell infiltration?

A

Acute or chronic lymphocytes and/or neutrophils in tissue

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60
Q

What is dermatitis (eczema)?

A

Skin lesions with similar clinical and pathological features but different pathogenic mechanisms

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61
Q

What symptom is experienced between the acute and chronic phase of dermatitis?

A

ITCH

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62
Q

What in the appearance of dermatitis during the acute phase?

A

Papulovesicular
Red (erythematous) lesions
Oedema (spongiosis)
Ooze or scaling & crust

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63
Q

What in the appearance of dermatitis during the chronic phase?

A

Thickening (lichenification)
Elevated plaques
Increased Scaling

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64
Q

What are the pathognomonic signs of dermatitis?

A

Itchy, ill-defined, erythematous and scaly

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65
Q

What immune cells are responsible for contact allergic dermatitis?

A

Langerhans - Ag presentation

T cells - mediate disease

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66
Q

What test can be used to identify substances causing contact allergic dermatitis?

A

Patch testing

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67
Q

What differentiated irritant (contact) dermatitis from contact allergic dermatitis?

A

Non-specific physical irritation rather than a specific allergic reaction

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68
Q

What can cause irritant (contact) dermatitis)?

A

Soap, detergent, cleaning products, water, oil etc

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69
Q

What is ‘nappy rash’?

A

Irritant contact dermatitis to urine

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70
Q

What characterises atopic eczema (dermatitis)?

A

Pruritus, ill defined erythema and scaling, generalised dry skin, FLEXURAL distribution, associated with other atopic diseases (e.g. asthma, allergic rhinitis, food allergy)

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71
Q

What are the chronic changes in atopic eczema?

A

Lichenification, excoriation, secondary infection

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72
Q

What does crusting in atopic eczema indicate?

A

Staph aureus infection

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73
Q

What causes Eczema herpeticum?

A

Herpes simplex virus

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74
Q

What sign is associated with eczema herpeticum?

A

Monomorphic puched-out lesions

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75
Q

What are the UK diagnostic criteria for atopic eczema?

A 
Itching +3 or more: 
Visible flexural rash* 
Hx of flexural rash*
Personal Hx of atopy (or first degree relative if <4 yrs) 
Generally dry skin 
Onset before 2 yrs of age 
*cheeks and extensor surfaces in infants
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76
Q

What is the Tx of Eczema?

A
  1. Plenty of emollients
  2. Avoid irritants including shower gels and soaps
  3. Topical steroids
  4. Tx infection
  5. Phototherapy - mainly UVB
  6. Systemic immunosuppressants
  7. (Biologic agents)
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77
Q

What is the most important gene in the pathogenesis of atopic eczema?

A

Fillaggrin

Multiple genetic and environmental factors

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78
Q

What are the features of photosensitive eczema?

A

Chronic actinic dermatitis
Cut-off at collar
Often atopic

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79
Q

What is stasis eczema?

A

Secondary to:
Hydrostatic pressure
Oedema
Red cell extravasation

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80
Q

Staphylococci grow in ………

A

Clusters

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81
Q

Streptococci grow in……….

A

Chains

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82
Q

What are the 2 important types of Staphylococcus?

A
  1. S. aureus (coagulase +) (Golden)

2. Coagulase-negative Staph (white) (S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus)

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83
Q

How are Streptococci classified?

A

Alpha (partial)/Beta (complete)/Gamma (non) haemolytic

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84
Q

Name the 2 most important members of alpha haemolytic strep

A 
Strep pneumoniae (pneumonia)
Strep viridans (commensals of mouth, throat, vagina) (endocarditis)
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85
Q

Name the 2 most important groups of beta-haemolytic strep

A

Group A Strep (GAS) - throat, skin infection

Group B Strep (GBS) - neonatal meningitis

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86
Q

Name the most clinically important genus of Gamma haemolytic strep

A

Enterococcus sp. (gut commensal, UTI) (commensals of bowel)

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87
Q

What skin infections are associated with Staph aureus?

A 
Boils and carbuncles 
Other minor skin sepsis (infected cuts etc)
Cellulitis 
Infected eczema 
Imeptigo 
Wound infection 
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
88
Q

What skin infections are associated with Strep pyogenes?

A 
Infected eczema 
Impetigo 
Cellulitis 
Erysipelas 
Necrotising fasciitis (may also be caused by a mixed bacterial infection)
89
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for treating sensitive strains of Staph aureus?

A

Flucloxacillin

90
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for treating sensitive strains of Strep pyogenes?

A

Pencillin (will also be treated by flucloxacillin)

91
Q

What is the Tx of necrotising fasciitis?

A

Life threatening - requires immediate surgical debridement as well as antibiotics (depends on organisms isolated from tissue taken at operation)

92
Q

What is necrotising fasciitis?

A

Bacterial infection spreading along fascial planes below skin surface - rapid tissue destruction

93
Q

What are the clinical features of necrotising fasciitis?

A

Little to see on skin surface but severe pain

94
Q

What are the 2 types of necrotising fasciitis?

A

Type 1 - mixed anaerobes & coliforms, usually post-abdo surgery

Type 2 - Group A Strep infection

95
Q

What organisms are worth treating in leg ulcers?

A

Strep pyogenes, Staph aureus, other beta-haemolytic strep

?Anaerobes - esp. diabetic patients

96
Q

Where does Tinea capitis infect?

A

Scalp

97
Q

Where does Tinea barbae infect?

A

Beard

98
Q

Where does Tinea corporis infect?

A

Body

99
Q

Where does Tinea manuum infect?

A

Hand

100
Q

Where does Tinea unguium infect?

A

Nails

101
Q

Where does Tinea cruris infect?

A

Groin

102
Q

Where does Tinea pedis infect?

A

foot (athlete’s foot)

103
Q

How are dermatophyte infections diagnosed?

A

Clinical appearance
Woods light (fluorescence)
Skin scrapings, nail clippings, hair - send to lab

104
Q

What is the Tx of dermatophytes?

A

Clotrimazole (Canetan) cream
Topical nail paint
Scalp infections: terbinafine/itraconazole orally

105
Q

Where in the skin does Candida infect?

A

Sin folds where it is warm an moist “candida intertrigo”

Under breasts, groin area, abdo skin folds etc, nappy area in babies

106
Q

How are Candidal skin infections diagnosed?

A

Swab for culture

107
Q

How are Candidal skin infections treated?

A

Clotrimazole cream, oral fluconazole

108
Q

What parasite causes Scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabei

109
Q

What is the chronic crusted form of scabies called?

A

Norwegian scabies (highly infectious)

110
Q

What is the incubation period for scabies?

A

Up to 6 wks

111
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of scabies infection?

A

Intensely itchy rash affecting finger webs, wrists, genital area

112
Q

What is the Tx for scabies?

A

Malathion lotion, applied overnight to whole body and washed off next day

Benzyl benzoate (avoid in children)

113
Q

What is binomial name for head lice?

A

Pediculus capitis

114
Q

What is binomial name for body lice?

A

Pediculus corporis (Vagabond’s disease)

115
Q

What is binomial name for pubic lice?

A

Phthirus pubis

116
Q

What are the symptoms of louse infection?

A

Intense itch

117
Q

What is the Tx for lice?

A

Malathion

118
Q

What virus causes chickenpox and shingles?

A

Varicella zoster

119
Q

What is the difference between chickenpox and shingles?

A

Chickenpox is Varicella (young)
Shingles is Zoster
(older)

120
Q

What are the clinical features of Chickenpox?

A

Macules to papules to vesicles to scabs to recovery
(centripedal, density varies, inflamed skin)

Fever

Itch

121
Q

What are the complications of chickenpox?

A 
Secondary bacterial infection
Pneumonitis 
Haemorrhagic 
Scarring, absent or minor
Encephalitis
122
Q

What are the predictors of severity in chickenpox?

A

Extremes of age, depressed cell mediated immunity

123
Q

What causes neonatal VZV?

A

Secondary to chickenpox in mother in late pregnancy

124
Q

What are the dangers of neonatal VZV?

A

Higher mortality

125
Q

How is neonatal VZV prevented?

A

Varicella Zoster Ig in susceptible women in contact

126
Q

What is the distribution of shingles (zoster, or herpes zoster)?

A

Dermatomal

127
Q

What causes shingles?

A

Reactivation of Varicella Zoster Virus

128
Q

Which patients are at risk of shingles?

A

Elderly and immunocompromised:

  • increased incidence
  • increased severity
129
Q

What clinical features are associated with shingles?

A

Tingling/pain to erythema to vesicles to crusts

Pain greater with increasing age

Neuralgic in character

130
Q

What is Zoster associated pain?

A

(after week 4 known as post-herpetic neuralgia)

elderly, trigeminal

131
Q

Is scarring of skin common in shingles?

A

No

132
Q

What is ophthalmic zoster?

A

Infection of ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve

133
Q

What is the Tx for Ophthalmic zoster?

A

Urgent ophthalmic referral

134
Q

When can children contract Ophthalmic zoster?

A

If chickenpox in utero or if become immunocompromised

135
Q

What are the clinical features of Ramsay-Hunt syndrome?

A

Vesicles and pain in auditory canal and throat

Facial palsy (CN VII palsy)

Irritation of CN VIII (deafness, vertigo, tinnitus)

136
Q

What is the alternative name for Ramsay-Hunt syndrome?

A

Geniculate or otic herpes zoster

137
Q

What type of vaccine is the chickenpox vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

138
Q

Are children vaccinated against chickenpox in the UK?

A

NO (susceptible health care workers vaccinated)

139
Q

Which group of patients are vaccinated against shingles?

A

> 70 yr olds (reduces post-herpetic neuralgia by 67%)

140
Q

What mouth condition is associated with herpes simplex virus?

A

Primary gingivostomatitis

141
Q

Which group of patients get HSV-primary gingivostomatitis?

A

Pre-school children

142
Q

What are the clinical features of HSV-primary gingivostomatitis?

A

Extensive ulceration in and around the mouth (lasts around a week)

Blistering rash at vermillion border

Can be spread e.g to finger or eczema (herpetic whitlow, eczema herpeticum - can be life threatening)

143
Q

Which parts of the body does HSV type 1 affect?

A

Main cause of oral lesions
Causes half of genital herpes
Causes encephalitis

144
Q

Which parts of the body does HSV type 2 affect?

A

Rare cause of oral lesions
Causes half of genital cases
Encephalitis/disseminated infection (partic. in neonates)

145
Q

How are VZV and HSV treated?

A

Aciclovir

146
Q

How does Aciclovir work?

A

Analogue of guanosine, incorporated into viral DNA inhibiting replication

147
Q

What does Aciclovir NOT do?

A

Eliminate latent virus

148
Q

How is VZV/HSV confirmed diagnostically?

A

Swab with viral transport medium (viral skin/mucous membrane infections)

Test for Abs (where virus infected site is inaccessible or as adjunct to swab)

149
Q

What are the signs of Erythema multiforme?

A

Target lesions with erythema

150
Q

What causes erythema multiforme?

A

Herpes simplex virus

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

151
Q

What are the signs of Molluscum contagiosum?

A

Fleshy, firm, umbilicated, pearlescent nodules (1-2 mm diameter)

152
Q

What group of patients most often get Molluscum contagiosum?

A

Children

153
Q

What is the Tx for Molluscum contagiosum?

A

Self-limiting, but take months to disappear

Can be treated with local application of liquid nitrogen

154
Q

How can Molluscum contagiosum be transmitted person to person?

A

Sexually

155
Q

What virus causes warts?

A

Human papilloma virus

156
Q

What group of patients are warts most common in?

A

Children

157
Q

What is the Tx of warts?

A

Self-limiting, uncomplicated

Topical salicylic acid

158
Q

What is a wart on the foot called?

A

Verruca

159
Q

What type of HPV causes warts/verrucas?

A

Types 1-4

160
Q

What type of HPV causes genital warts?

A

Types 6 and 11

161
Q

What type of HPV causes cervical cancer?

A

Types 16 and 18

162
Q

What is the name of the HPV vaccine used in the UK?

A

Gardasil

163
Q

What types of HPV does Gardasil protect against?

A

Types 6, 11 and 16, 18

164
Q

What are the signs of Herpangina?

A

Blistering rash of back of mouth

165
Q

What causes Herpangina?

A

Enterovirus (coxsackie virus, echovirus)

166
Q

What is the Tx of Herpangina?

A

Self-limiting

167
Q

How is Herpangina diagnosed?

A

Swab of lesion, sample of stool for enterovirus PCR

168
Q

Who gets foot and mouth disease?

A

Children (family outbreaks)

169
Q

What causes foot and mouth disease?

A

Enteroviruses (esp. coxsackie viruses)

Not related to animal foot and mouth disease

170
Q

What other name is erythema infectiosum known by?

A

Slapped cheek disease

171
Q

What virus causes erythema infectiosum?

A

Erythrovirus (parvovirus) B19

172
Q

What are the signs of Erythema infectiosum?

A

Rash on the face that, when it fades, is replaced by a lacy macular rash on the body

In adults, rash may be absent and an acute polyarthritis of the small joints (e.g. hands) may be more prominent

No sequelae in typical adult

173
Q

What viral skin infection is associated with arthritis?

A

Erythema infectiosum (esp. in wrists as rash fades)

174
Q

What virus is associated with spontaneous abortion?

A

Parvovirus B19 (foetal hydrops as precursor)

175
Q

Which patients can have aplastic crises in response to Parvovirus B19 infection?

A

Patients with:
Thalassaemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Sickle cell anaemia

176
Q

What complication is seen in immunosuppressed patients infected with Parvovirus B19?

A

Chronic anaemia

177
Q

How is Parvovirus B19 diagnosed?

A

Ab testing rather than skin swabs (Parvovirus B19 IgM test)

178
Q

What animal is Orf associated with?

A

Sheep (“scabby mouth”)

[FARMERS]

179
Q

What type of organism causes Orf? (bacteria/virus/fungi)

A

Virus

180
Q

What are the clinical signs of Orf?

A

Firm, fleshy nodule on hands of farmers

181
Q

Do patients get constitutional symptoms with Orf?

A

No, constitutional symptoms rare

182
Q

What is the Tx for Orf?

A

Self limiting

183
Q

How is Orf diagnosed?

A

Clinical Dx, lab confirmation not used

184
Q

What bacterium causes syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

185
Q

What are the 3 phases of syphilis infection?

A

Primary, secondary and tertiary phases of infection

186
Q

What characterises the primary phase of syphilis infection?

A

Presence of chancres - painless ulcers at site of syphilis infection

187
Q

What characterises the secondary phase of syphilis infection?

A

Red rash over body, prominent on soles of feet and palms of hands

Mucous membrane “snail track” ulcers

188
Q

What characterises the tertiary phase of syphilis infection?

A

CNS, CV, gummatous etc involvement

189
Q

How is syphilis treated?

A

Injections of penicillin

190
Q

How is syphilis diagnosed?

A

Blood test or swab of chancre for PCR

191
Q

What is the vector for Lyme disease?

A

Ticks

192
Q

What is causal agent of Lyme disease?

A

Bacteria: Borrelia burgdorferi

193
Q

What is the presentation of Lyme disease?

A

Early: erythema migrans
Late: heart block, nerve palsies, arthritis

194
Q

How is Lyme disease treated?

A

Doxycycline or amoxicillin

195
Q

How is Lyme disease diagnosed?

A

Lab - mainly for late presentations and there is a blood test for Ab to organism

196
Q

In which areas is Lyme disease most prevalent?

A

Areas with large deer population for ticks to feed on

197
Q

When are ticks most active?

A

May - September

198
Q

How long does a tick need to be attached to cause infection?

A

24 hrs

199
Q

What is diagnostic of Lyme disease?

A

Erythema migrans - does not need lab confirmation

200
Q

What is Erythema migrans?

A

5 to 6.8 cm in diameter, appearing as an annular homogenous erythema (59%), central erythema (30%), central clearing (9%), or central purpura (2%)

Looks like bulls eye

Often mistaken for Tinea

201
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Tuberose Sclerosis?

A

Autosomal dominant BUT new mutations are common

202
Q

How does Tuberose Sclerosis present?

A

One of the most common genodermatoses

May present as infantile seizures

Earliest cutaneous sign - ash-leaf macule (depigmented macule) (~90% of cases of TS)

Shagreen patches

Enamel pitting

203
Q

What tumours are found around the nails in TS?

A

Periungal fibromas

204
Q

What tumours are found on the face in TS?

A

Facial angiofibromas

205
Q

What tumours associated with TS may cause seizures?

A

Cortical tubers (epilepsy, varying degrees of mental impairment) and/or calcification of flax cerebri

206
Q

What tumours are found in the heart/lung/kidneys in TS?

A

Hamartomas = angiomyolipomas

207
Q

What bone tumours are seen in TS?

A

Bone cysts (seen in x-ray)

208
Q

What genes are associated with TS?

A

TSC1 (tuberin) and TSC2 (hamartin)

209
Q

In autosomal dominant conditions, what risk is there of an affected child if the parent is affected?

A

50%

210
Q

What is the penetrance of TS?

A

Variable (but high)

211
Q

Why is TS genetically heterogeneic?

A

The mutation can be in TSC1 or TSC2

212
Q

What is the disease expression of TS?

A

Variable - different people affected differently - even within same family

213
Q

What is Epidermolysis Bullosa (EB)?

A

A group of genetic skin fragility conditions

214
Q

What is EB’s inheritance?

A

Dominant, recessive, new mutation or acquired

215
Q

What are the 3 main types of EB?

A

Simplex (Epidermis), Junctional (between epidermis and dermis), Dystrophic (dermis)

216
Q

How many Cafe-au-Lait Macules suggests genetic disease?

A

> 5

217
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Neurofibromatosis Type 1?

A 
Cafe-au-lait macules 
Neurofibromas (soft neural tumours) 
Plexiform neuroma - diffuse 
Axillary or inguinal freckling 
Optic glioma 
2 or more Lisch nodules
A distinctive bony lesion

Dermatology (3 decks)

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