Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The purpose of Performance Improvement
    (QA) plan is to:
    A. Implement an interdisciplinary systematic approach to collection,
    analysis and reporting of performance measurements
    B. Improve performance by making informed decisions based on
    patient complaints only
    C. Find out who is failing and take all necessary disciplinary action
    D. All of the above
A
  1. The purpose of Performance Improvement
    (QA) plan is to:
    A. Implement an interdisciplinary systematic approach to collection,
    analysis and reporting of performance measurements

    B. Improve performance by making informed decisions based on
    patient complaints only
    C. Find out who is failing and take all necessary disciplinary action
    D. All of the above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q
  1. Quality Assessment (Performance
    Improvement) is defined as:
    A. Gathering and evaluating information and data about the
    services provided
    B. A process to assess the political changes that affect laboratory
    operations
    C. Both a and b
    D. None of the above
A
  1. Quality Assessment (Performance
    Improvement) is defined as:
    A. Gathering and evaluating information and data about the services provided
    B. A process to assess the political changes that affect laboratory
    operations
    C. Both a and b
    D. None of the above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. The results obtained after information is
    gathered are compared against:
    A. Regulations set up by OSHA
    B. Acceptable standards
    C. Hospital administrator’s recommendations
    D. CDC guidelines
A
  1. The results obtained after information is
    gathered are compared against:
    A. Regulations set up by OSHA
    B. Acceptable standards
    C. Hospital administrator’s recommendations
    D. CDC guidelines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The overall goal of Performance Improvement
    is to effect:
    A. The laboratory’s capabilities to enhance the budgetary income
    B. Administration’s decision making in regards to personnel salaries
    C. Quality improvement including accuracy and precision of lab
    operations
    D. None of the above
A
  1. The overall goal of Performance Improvement
    is to effect:
    A. The laboratory’s capabilities to enhance the budgetary income
    B. Administration’s decision making in regards to personnel salaries
    C. Quality improvement including accuracy and precision of lab
    operations

    D. None of the above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of the following are steps to achieve effective performance improvement even before specimen is
    collected?
    A. Instructions regarding patient preparation for tests (fasting,
    abstaining form medications)
    B. Correct tubes for collection – Correct order of draws
    C. Lab equipment tested and calibrated for accuracy and precision
    D. All of the above
A
  1. Which of the following are steps to achieve effective performance improvement even before specimen is
    collected?
    A. Instructions regarding patient preparation for tests (fasting,
    abstaining form medications)
    B. Correct tubes for collection – Correct order of draws
    C. Lab equipment tested and calibrated for accuracy and precision
    D. All of the above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. The following are true about Delta check
    EXCEPT:
    A. Delta check is a comparison between current and previous
    results
    B. Delta is a Greek word which means a sandy deposit at the mouth
    of a river
    C. Is most commonly performed on Chemistry and Hematology
    analyzers
    D. A wide variation in results may indicate an error
A
  1. The following are true about Delta check
    EXCEPT:
    A. Delta check is a comparison between current and previous
    results
    B. Delta is a Greek word which means a sandy deposit at the mouth
    of a river

    C. Is most commonly performed on Chemistry and Hematology
    analyzers
    D. A wide variation in results may indicate an error
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which Performance Improvement measures
    are the most difficult to measure?
    A. Turnaround times for emergency department testing
    B. Blood culture contamination rates
    C. Outcome assessments such as recovery rates, cure rates and
    return to normal function rates
    D. Fasting blood specimens
A
  1. Which Performance Improvement measures
    are the most difficult to measure?
    A. Turnaround times for emergency department testing
    B. Blood culture contamination rates
    C. Outcome assessments such as recovery rates, cure rates and
    return to normal function rates

    D. Fasting blood specimens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What is an incident report?
    A. A formal written description of an incident or unusual
    occurrence
    B. A report which determines if an employee must be terminated or
    not
    C. An informal written description of an incident or unusual
    occurrence
    D. A report conducted on all laboratory specimens
A
  1. What is an incident report?
    A. A formal written description of an incident or unusual
    occurrence

    B. A report which determines if an employee must be terminated or
    not
    C. An informal written description of an incident or unusual
    occurrence
    D. A report conducted on all laboratory specimens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following are reason(s) to initiate
    an incident report?
    A. Improper needle stick
    B. Administration of an incorrect test on a patient
    C. Misidentification of a patient
    D. Patient faints while having blood drawn
    E. Patient complaint
    F. All of the above
A
  1. Which of the following are reason(s) to initiate
    an incident report?
    A. Improper needle stick
    B. Administration of an incorrect test on a patient
    C. Misidentification of a patient
    D. Patient faints while having blood drawn
    E. Patient complaint
    F. All of the above
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) is all
of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Is management commitment to improve healthcare structure,
processes, outcomes and customer satisfaction
B. Has an ultimate goal of improving patient outcomes
C. Is only a temporary process
D. Is a continuous process

A

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) is all
of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Is management commitment to improve healthcare structure,
processes, outcomes and customer satisfaction
B. Has an ultimate goal of improving patient outcomes
C. Is only a temporary process
D. Is a continuous process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PDCA stands for:
A. Plan, Do, Call, Act
B. Plan, Do, Check, Arrange
C. Plan, Do, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Change, Act

A

PDCA stands for:
A. Plan, Do, Call, Act
B. Plan, Do, Check, Arrange
C. Plan, Do, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Change, Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Quality control ensures the laboratory:
A. To purchase proper laboratory equipment
B. Accuracy, precision and reliability of test results
C. To help employees stay within the guidelines of HIPAA
D. All of the above

A

Quality control ensures the laboratory:
A. To purchase proper laboratory equipment
B. Accuracy, precision and reliability of test results
C. To help employees stay within the guidelines of HIPAA
D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Proficiency Testing (PT):
A. Measures laboratory’s performance
B. Is subscription to an organization (CAP) to provide blind
samples
C. After the laboratory analyzes the blind samples, results are
sent back to the PT organization to be graded
D. Is required by CLIA, CAP, The Joint Commission
E. All of the above

A

Proficiency Testing (PT):
A. Measures laboratory’s performance
B. Is subscription to an organization (CAP) to provide blind
samples
C. After the laboratory analyzes the blind samples, results are
sent back to the PT organization to be graded
D. Is required by CLIA, CAP, The Joint Commission
E. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to CAP, there are 2 areas of
outcome that measure whether a specimen is
acceptable for analysis. They are:
a. Unsuccessful encounters and unsuitable
specimens
b. Suitable specimens
c. Patient’s age and gender
d. Patient’s diagnosis and age

A

According to CAP, there are 2 areas of
outcome that measure whether a specimen is
acceptable for analysis. They are:
a. Unsuccessful encounters and unsuitable
specimens

b. Suitable specimens
c. Patient’s age and gender
d. Patient’s diagnosis and age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

According to research, the most common
reasons for unsuccessful encounters were
due to the fact that:
a. Patients were not fasting as directed
b. Phlebotomy orders were missing
information
c. Patient left the collection area and was
unavailable
d. All of the above

A

According to research, the most common
reasons for unsuccessful encounters were
due to the fact that:
a. Patients were not fasting as directed
b. Phlebotomy orders were missing
information
c. Patient left the collection area and was
unavailable
d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most common reasons for rejecting a
specimen (unsuitable specimen) were:
a. Incorrect patient identification and
labels incorrectly placed
b. Patient was in a supine position
c. Labels were correctly placed on
collection tubes
d. Proper patient identification and proper
labeling of specimen

A

The most common reasons for rejecting a
specimen (unsuitable specimen) were:
a. Incorrect patient identification and
labels incorrectly placed

b. Patient was in a supine position
c. Labels were correctly placed on
collection tubes
d. Proper patient identification and proper
labeling of specimen

16
Q

Other criteria for specimen rejection were:
a. Specimen received without patient
name on label
b. Hemolyzed specimen
c. Improperly mixed anticoagulant tubes
containing clots
d. All of the above

A

Other criteria for specimen rejection were:
a. Specimen received without patient
name on label
b. Hemolyzed specimen
c. Improperly mixed anticoagulant tubes
containing clots
d. All of the above

17
Q

Failure of a phlebotomist to obtain blood
from a patient can cause:
a. The patient to return to the lab to have
his/her/their blood drawn
b. Delay in patient care
c. Dissatisfied patient and physician
d. All of the above

A

Failure of a phlebotomist to obtain blood
from a patient can cause:
a. The patient to return to the lab to have
his/her/their blood drawn
b. Delay in patient care
c. Dissatisfied patient and physician
d. All of the above

18
Q

Proper patient identification and labeling
are the most critical pre-analytical steps in
pre-transfusion computability testing.
a. True
b. False

A

Proper patient identification and labeling
are the most critical pre-analytical steps in
pre-transfusion computability testing.
a. True
b. False

19
Q

In one study, CAP categorized mislabeled
blood-bank specimens as follows:
a. Minor mislabeling and major mislabeling
b. Partial mislabeling
c. Proper and improper mislabeling
d. All of the above

A

In one study, CAP categorized mislabeled
blood-bank specimens as follows:
a. Minor mislabeling and major mislabeling
b. Partial mislabeling
c. Proper and improper mislabeling
d. All of the above

20
Q

Specimen collection manuals must
contain information regarding:
a) Patient preparation
b) Type of collection container and amount of
specimen required
c) Timing requirements
d) Type and amount of preservatives or
anticoagulants needed
e) All of the above

A

Specimen collection manuals must
contain information regarding:
a) Patient preparation
b) Type of collection container and amount of
specimen required
c) Timing requirements
d) Type and amount of preservatives or
anticoagulants needed
e) All of the above

21
Q

Quality of laboratory tests depends
largely on the time specimens are
processed:
a) True
b) False

A

Quality of laboratory tests depends
largely on the time specimens are
processed:
a) True
b) False

22
Q

Blood analytes do not fluctuate
throughout the day:
a) True
b) False

A

Blood analytes do not fluctuate
throughout the day:
a) True
b) False

23
Q

Blood, body fluids, urine, sputum
can sit on the counter top for a long
time at nursing station. Specimen
integrity will not be affected:
a) True
b) False

A

Blood, body fluids, urine, sputum
can sit on the counter top for a long
time at nursing station. Specimen
integrity will not be affected:
a) True
b) False

24
Q

To obtain plasma, the specimen can
be centrifuged immediately while for
serum, the specimen must be fully
clotted before centrifugation:
a) True
b) False

A

To obtain plasma, the specimen can
be centrifuged immediately while for
serum, the specimen must be fully
clotted before centrifugation:
a) True
b) False

25
Q

What is the advantage of using a
green top tube over a red top tube
when drawing blood from a patient in
the Emergency department?
a) There is no advantage at all. Results are almost identical in
both tubes
b) Green top tubes are less expensive to use
c) Results are obtained much faster when green top tubes
are drawn
d) Red top tubes must be held 20-30 minutes before they are
fully clotted while green top tube can be spun
immediately and testing can be done quickly
e) C and D

A

What is the advantage of using a
green top tube over a red top tube
when drawing blood from a patient in
the Emergency department?
a) There is no advantage at all. Results are almost identical in
both tubes
b) Green top tubes are less expensive to use
c) Results are obtained much faster when green top tubes
are drawn
d) Red top tubes must be held 20-30 minutes before they are
fully clotted while green top tube can be spun
immediately and testing can be done quickly
e) C and D

26
Q
A