Week 4 Breast Mass Flashcards

1
Q

What are some Key structural features of the nucleus ?

A

Nuclear pores —> increased permeability
Double layer nuclear membrane continuous with ER
Nucleolus
Chromatin

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2
Q

What are some key functions of the nucleus ?

A

DNA transcription —> mRNA

Controls and regulates activities of the cell: metabolism and growth

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3
Q

Main functions of the ER

A

Ca2+ storage
Protein and lipid synthesis
Protein folding, modification and transport

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4
Q

What are the important functions of the golgi ?

A

Protein maturation
Vesicle transport and packaging
Production and secretion of mucus

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5
Q

What are the important structural features of the golgi ?

A

Consists of cisternae

Has cis and trans face

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6
Q

What are the main functions of the mitochondria ?

A

Produce ATP

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7
Q

Structure of mitochondria

A

Inner and outer membrane with transmembrane space between
Contains own genome
Cristae
Inner membrane responsible for ATP synthesis and respiration

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8
Q

Briefly outline protein targeting and translocation into the ER

A
  1. Signal sequence of growing peptide
  2. Binding of SRP to signal peptide —> pause in translation
  3. SRP binds to SRP receptor in rough ER membrane and protein translocator is present
  4. Translation continues and translocation begins, SRP is released and will be recycled
  5. Protein is released into ER lumen
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9
Q

What happens to ubiquitin tagged protein ?

A

Bound for degradation

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10
Q

What is the function of chaperones

A

Help with protein folding and prevent accumulation of protein aggregates

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11
Q

CTFR gene mutation mechanism and effect

A

Protein misfolding and degradation —> CF

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12
Q

B-glucoside mutation and effect

A

Decrease lysosome enzyme —> decreased degradation of lipids —. Gaucher’s disease

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13
Q

Proteosome (ubiquitin) resistance mechanism and effect

A

Evasion of apoptosis —> multiple myeloma

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14
Q

Cell polarity definition

A

Positional asymmetry within and between cells

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15
Q

Describe what is seen in hyperplasia

A

Increased proliferation

Lumens still present

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16
Q

Describe what is seen with LCIS

A

Increased dysplasia
Epithelial polarity disturbed
Lumens are lost

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17
Q

Describe what is seen with ILC

A

Loss of epithelial polarity

Cells invade basement membrane

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18
Q

What are microfilaments composed of

A

Globular actin

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19
Q

important functions of microfilaments

A

Cell adhesion
Generation of contractile force
Cell shape
Surface projections

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20
Q

Important functions of intermediate filaments

A

Tensile strength
Architectural scaffold
Markers of specific tissues

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21
Q

What is the importance of motors that move along microtubules ?

A

Critical for binding cargo and moving it around the cell

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22
Q

What do cell surface receptors bind to ?

A

Other receptors on neighbouring cells

ECM proteins outside cell

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23
Q

Describe structure and function of linker proteins

A

Peripheral membrane scaffolding proteins in the cytoplasm
Bind to cytoplasmic tails of cell surface receptors
Link complex to cytoskeleton inside cell

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24
Q

Adherens junctions function

A

Initiate cell-cell adhesion on lateral aspect of cells

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25
Q

Adherens junction receptors

A

Cadherins

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26
Q

Function of Cadherins

A

Bind same Cadherin on adjacent cell

—> tissue segregation

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27
Q

Adherens junction linker proteins

A

Catenins

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28
Q

Functions of catenins

A

Link cadherins to cytoskeletal elements

Proliferative signal transduction

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29
Q

What is the cytoskeletal element of adherens junctions

A

Actin

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30
Q

Function of tight junctions

A

Regulate the movement of macromolecules between cells

Located near apical surface —> delineate apical and basolateral membrane domains

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31
Q

Desmosomes structure

A

Spots

Linked to stable intermediate filaments

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32
Q

Function of desmosomes

A

Link cells together

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33
Q

What is the function of gap junctions ?

A

Allow for passage of small molecules and ions between cells

Communicating junctions

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34
Q

Hemidesmosomes function

A

Anchor cells to ECM

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35
Q

What is the function of focal adhesions ?

A

Critical for cell migration

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36
Q

What is needed for cell to pass through restriction point in G1 ?

A

Mitogens (ex. Estrogen)

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37
Q

What do tumour suppressors do ?

A

Halt cell cycle at multiple checkpoints when damaged DNA is recognized

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38
Q

What are two mutations that can lead to bypass of restriction point ?

A

Rb, p53

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39
Q

How is cancer classified at the cellular level ?

A

Excessive cellular proliferation
Uncontrolled growth
Tissue infiltration

40
Q

How is cancer classified at the molecular level ?

A

Genes that regulate growth are disordered

41
Q

What happens during G1 gap phase ?

A

Cell increases in size

New proteins and organelles synthesized

42
Q

What happens during S phase

A

Chromosomes replicated

DNA synthesis

43
Q

What happens during G2 phase ?

A

Organelles and molecules required for cell division are produced

44
Q

What 3 factors cause cells to go into G0 ?

A

Cell-cell contact
Cell differentiation
Anti-mitogenic factors

45
Q

4 hallmarks of cancer

A

Genomic instability
Inappropriate cell proliferation, evasion of cell death
Angiogenesis
Invasion and metastasis

46
Q

What do oncogenes do ?

A

Code for proteins and factors involved in cell growth

47
Q

What happens when oncogenes are mutated

A

Increase in cell division

48
Q

Tumour suppressor genes usually need ____ allele(s) to be affected to develop cancer and oncogenes need ___ allele(s) to be affected

A

Both, one

49
Q

What is the most commonly mutated gene in cancer ?

A

P53

50
Q

What do BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes do when functional ?

A

Code for proteins that allow for DNA repair using a mechanism called homologous recombination

51
Q

Sporadic cancer cause

A

Mutation in somatic cell leading to cancer (various causes)

52
Q

What is inherited cancer ?

A

Mutation in germ line of a tumour supressor gene

53
Q

What is the significance of the PDL1-ligand in cancer ?

A

Inhibitory ligand produced by tumour cells

Like an invisibility cloak

54
Q

What types of tissues are most prone to neoplasm ?

A

Proliferating tissues or tissues that are more undifferentiated
(Skin, lung, gut)
Hormonally regulated tissues (breast, prostate)

55
Q

Positive regulators for angiogenic switch

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

Basic fibroblastic growth factor (bFGF)

56
Q

Negative regulators for angiogenic switch

A

Thrombospondin-1

- regulated by p53 tumour supressor gene

57
Q

Why are alterations in CAMs important in cancer invasion

A

Allow detachment in cancer cells and enhance cell mobility

58
Q

what is growth fraction ?

A

Percent of cells in cycle

59
Q

what is cell death fraction ?

A

Percent of new daughter cells that die

60
Q

What is the number of cancer cells at diagnostic threshold

A

10^9

61
Q

What is a neoplasm (tumour)?

A

Abnormal mass of tissue in which the growth exceeds and is uncoordinated with that of the adjacent normal tissue
Persists even after cause if removed

62
Q

what is dysplasia ?

A

A pre-malignant change in cells characterized by disordered growth and morphologic changes in the cell nucleus.

63
Q

What is the main difference between high grade dysplasia (carcinoma-in-situ) and cancer cells ?

A

Not yet invasive and therefore cannot metastasize

64
Q

What is the difference between benign and metastatic neoplasms?

A

Malignant, benign :
Rapid growth, slow growth
Poorly circumscribed, usually circumscribed
Infiltrates and destroys adjacent tissue, pushes adjacent tissue aside
Can metastasize, do not metastasize
May poorly resemble tissue of origin, resemble tissue of origin

65
Q

4 common ways for malignant neoplasms to spread

A

Direct: nearby tissue
Lymphatic
Blood vessels —> lungs or liver
Serosal surfaces —> may spread across pleura, paracardium or peritoneum

66
Q

What does differentiation refer to ?

A

Degree to which cells of neoplasm resemble normal cells both morphologically and functionally

67
Q

Major categories of neoplasms (6)

A
Epithelial 
CT (bone and soft tissue)
Lymphoid and hematopoetic 
CNS tumours (gliomas)
Germ cell Tumours
Melanoma
68
Q

Benign epithelial neoplasm nomenclature in general

A

Papilloma
Adenoma
Nevus* (skin)

69
Q

Malignant epithelial neoplasm general nomenclature

A

Carcinoma

Melanoma*

70
Q

Malignant mesenchymal neoplasm general nomenclature

A

Sarcoma suffix

71
Q

Malignant neoplasms of lymphocytes (2)

A

Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

72
Q

Malignant neoplasm of granulocytes

A

Myeloid leukaemia

73
Q

Malignant neoplasm of marrow lymphocytes

A

Lymphatic lymphoma

74
Q

Malignant neoplasm of plasma cells

A

Multiple myeloma

75
Q

What is the estimated time for an adenoma to become malignant ?

A

At least 5 years

76
Q

What does tumour staging take into account ?

A

Size
Extent of spread
Metastases

77
Q

Mutations in BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes are associated with which cancers

A

Breast cancer

Ovarian cancer

78
Q

What gene mutations are associated with Lynch syndrome ?

A

MLH1
MSH2
MSH6
PMS2

79
Q

Benefits of oncologist led genetic testing

A

Improved efficiency
More effective working relationships with oncology team
Positive feedback all around

80
Q

What is sensitivity ?

A

True positive/total cases

81
Q

What is specificity

A

True negative / total well people

82
Q

What is the positive predictive value

A

Positive cases with condition / total positive cases

83
Q

3 important steps for diagnosing carcinoma-in-situ and invasive cancer

A

History
Exam
Blood tests

84
Q

What is the importance of doing a biopsy to diagnose cancer ?

A

Malignant vs benign

Type of cancer: site of origin

85
Q

What is done in staging of cancer ?

A

Imaging

Additional biopsies

86
Q

TNM staging system

A
T: primary tumour characteristics 
- size and depth of invasion 
N: nodal status 
- involved ?, #, size 
M: metastasis 
- yes or no? Extent ?
87
Q

Who came up with the seeds and soil hypothesis for breast cancer metastasis ?

A

Stephen Paget

88
Q

What is the meaning of palliative intent

A

Treatment being given does not have curative intent

89
Q

Radiotherapy mechanism of action

A

Damages DNA in tumour and normal cells

90
Q

Chemotherapy mechanism of action

A

Kills rapidly diving cells

Cancer, bone marrow, digestive tract and hair follicles

91
Q

Targeted therapy mechanism of action

A

Disruption of tumour cell proliferation and/or survival factors

92
Q

Immunotherapy mechanism of action

A

Mark tumour cells for destruction

Remove signals that is suppressing the immune response

93
Q

What is neoadjuvant treatment ?

A

Treatment given prior to the primary therapy

Shrink tumour to allow for safe removal

94
Q

Radiotherapy common side effects

A

Local effects such as skin irritation, organ hypofunction

95
Q

Common side effects of chemotherapy

A

Bone marrow, GI tract, constitutional