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VF1 - Block 3 > Week 6 > Flashcards

Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Histologically, what differentiates a bronchus from a bronchiole?

A
  • Bronchus has cartilage chips, bronchiole does not
  • Bronchus has goblet cells, bronchiole does not
  • Bronchus has no smooth muscle, bronchiole does
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2
Q

Diffuse Alveolar Damage definition

A
  • the pathologic sequence of events that follows severe [acute lung injury] caused by any one of a variety of toxic insults.
  • Typically occurs in the context of acute respiratory distress syndrome
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3
Q

What does the “diffuse” mean in Diffuse Alveolar Damage?

A
  • All parts of the alveolus are involved (epithelium, endothelium, and interstitial space)
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4
Q

What is the pathogenesis of DAD?

A
  • **Occurs in the context of acute lung injury**
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5
Q

What is the main defining feature of DAD histologically?

A
  • hyaline membranes
  • (plus thickening of the interstitial septa)
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6
Q

Characteristics of organizing DAD

A
  • Alveolar collapse
    • Due to epithelial necrosis –> type 2 pneumocytes die –> decreased surfactant
  • pneumocyte hyperplasia
    • In an attempt to repair the damage
  • fibrosis
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7
Q

Acute vs. Organizing DAD

A
  • Hyaline membranes peak in acute phase
  • pneumocyte hyperplasia + interstitial fibrosis peak during organizing phase
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8
Q

Ultimate result of DAD

A
  • Impaired gas exchange due to thickened interstitium
  • V/Q mismatch –> hypoxemia and respiratory failure
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9
Q

Most common organism responsible for community-acquired pneumonia

A

Strep Pneumoniae

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10
Q

Common organism causing community-acquired pneumonia in alcoholics

A

klebsiella

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11
Q

Most common organism causing community-acquired pneumonia in COPD

A

H. influenzae

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12
Q

Bacterial pneumonia syndromes

A
  1. community-acquired
  2. aspiration pneumonia
  3. healthcare setting
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13
Q

two patterns of bacterial pneumonia on gross anatomy)

A
  • bronchopneumonia
    • patches affected
  • lobar pneumonia
    • whole lobe is affected
  • **Both have the same appearance under the microscope
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14
Q

Microscopic appearance of bacterial pneumonia

A
  • Septa are relatively normal (i.e. thin)
    • Contrasted with DAD where the septa are thickened
  • Air spaces are filled with pus
    • fibrin
    • neutrophils
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15
Q

Complications of pneumonia

A
  • Abscess formation
  • Empyema
    • spread of infection within pleural cavity
  • Systemic bacteremia
    • “Metastatic” abscesses
    • Endocarditis
    • Meningitis
    • Suppurative arthritis
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16
Q

Definition of a lung abscess

A
  • Local suppurative process resulting in tissue necrosis
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17
Q

Causes of lung abscess

A
  • Aspiration
  • Pneumonia
  • others
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18
Q

appearance of lung abscess histologically

A
  • Central area of necrosis
    • Often blue
    • Can be pink in cases of acellular necrosis
  • Organizing fibroblasts/myofibroblasts around it
    • Pink
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19
Q

Defining feature of granulomatous pneumonia

A
  • Produce granulomas
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20
Q

Bacterial pneumonia vs. granulomatous pneumonia

A
  • Bacterial –> suppurative inflammation
  • Granulomatous –> granulomatous inflammation
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21
Q

Causes of granulomatous pneumonia

A
  1. TB
  2. Fungal
  • Histoplasma capsulatam
  • coccidiodes immitis
  • blastomyces dermatidis
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22
Q

microscopic appearance of non-necrotizing granuloma

A
  • Granuloma = multinucleated giant cells + macrophages
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23
Q

microscopic appearance of necrotizing granuloma

A
  • Giant cells characterize granloma
  • Blue area = necrosis
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24
Q

appearance of hypocellular necrotizing granuloma

A
  • red = multinucleated giant cell
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25
Q

Can you see necrotizing and non-necrotizing granulomas together?

A

Yes

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26
Q

Tuberculosis buzzword

A
  • Caseous necrosis
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27
Q

Tuberculosis histology

A
  • Acid-Fast stain to see the mycobacterium
  • TB causes granulomatous pneumonia
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28
Q

Stain used for fungal organisms

A

Silver stain (GMS stain)

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29
Q

Histoplasmosis

A
  • Fungal cause of granulomatous pneumonia
  • Organisms appear black on silver stain
  • “Ovoid structures” with “narrow based budding”
  • We do see this in michigan b/c it’s endemic to ohio and mississippi river valley
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30
Q

Blastomyces dermatidis

A
  • Fungal cause of granulomatous pneumonia
  • Double-contoured wall = “railroad tracks” appearance
  • Broad based budding
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31
Q

cocciciomycosis

A
  • Fungal organism causing granulomatous pneumonia
  • Complex internal structure due to endospores
  • Best seen on GMS stain
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32
Q

pneumocystis pneumonia

A
  • An opportunistic form of pneumonia
  • Classically seen in HIV patients w/ low CD4 count or recent transplants
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33
Q

CXR of pneumocystic pneumonia

A
  • diffuse bilateral infiltrates
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34
Q

histology of pneumocystic pneumonia

A
  • Alveolar spaces filled with pink and bubbly exudate
  • Often described as “frothy” exudate
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35
Q

Two broad categories of lung cancer

A
  • Small cell
  • Non-small cell
    • Adenocarcinoma
    • Squamous cell carcinoma
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36
Q

Adenocarcinoma characterization

A
  • Adenocarcinomas are characterized by:
    • gland formation
    • mucin production
    • and/or expression of pneumocyte markers (TTF-1, napsin A).
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37
Q

pneumocyte markers for adenocarcinoma

A
  • TTF-1
  • Napsin A
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38
Q

microscopic appearance of gland formation

A
  • adenocarcinoma
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39
Q

Microscopic appearance of mucin production

A
  • adenocarcinoma
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40
Q

Adenocarcinoma is found in proximal/distal lung tissue?

A
  • distal
  • i.e. peripheral
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41
Q

adenocarcinoma in situ definition

A
  • this is pre-invasive
  • Can be mucinous or non-mucinous. Mucinous is quite rare
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42
Q

histologic hallmark of adenocarcinoma in situ

A
  • tumor cells line the alveolar septa
  • See slides 87 and 88
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43
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma characterization

A
  • Squamous cell carcinoma is defined by the presence of:
    • keratinization
    • intercellular bridges
    • and/or expression of squamous markers (cytokeratin 5/6, p63/p40).
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44
Q

Squamous cell markers

A
  • cytokeratin 5/6
  • p63
  • p40
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45
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma tends to affect the distal/proximal airways?

A
  • proximal
    • ex: tumor in the trachea
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46
Q

histologic appearance of squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • islands of tumor cells
    • Distinguished from adenocarcinomas glands
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47
Q

Distinguishing feature of small cell carcinoma and carcinoid tumors

A
  • They express the same neuroendocrine markers (CD56, chromogranin, synaptophysin)
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48
Q

Neuroendocrine markers of small cell carcinoma and carcinoid tumors

A
  • CD56
  • chromogranin
  • synaptophysin
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49
Q

Small cell carcinoma characteristics

A
  • Fine nuclear chromatin
    • (“salt & pepper”)
  • Scant cytoplasm
  • Nuclear molding
    • i.e. cobblestone appearance
  • High mitotic count
  • Necrosis
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50
Q

small cell carcinoma is found in more distal/proximal lung?

A

proximal, like the trachea

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51
Q

Carcinoid tumors vs. small cell carcinoma

A
  • Both have the salt and pepper chromatin
  • Carcinoid tumors do NOT show nuclear molding
  • Carcinoid tumors have much lower mitotic activity
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52
Q

Malignant mesothelioma is caused by what?

A
  • asbestos exposure
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53
Q

Significant symptom for malignant mesothelioma

A
  • Bloody cough
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54
Q

Symptoms for malignant mesothelioma

A
  • Cough (bloody)
  • chest pain
  • dyspnea
  • pleural effusion
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55
Q

Key pathologic/morphologic finding in mesothelioma

A
  • Thickening of the pleura
    • both viscearl and parietal show tumors
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56
Q

Embryonic period of lung development

A

less than 6 weeks

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57
Q

pseudoglandular phase of lung development

A

7 - 16 weeks

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58
Q

At what stage do most congenital abnormalities in lung differentiation occur?

A

Pseudoglandular phase (7 - 16 weeks)

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59
Q

Canalicular Phase

A
  • 16 - 24 weeks
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60
Q

Development in canalicular phase

A
  • Gas exchange is possible AT THE END of this stage
  • Gas exchange possible at the end of this stage, but it’s very limited b/c alveolar walls are thick, there aren’t enough aveoli, and surfactant is limited.
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61
Q

Saccular phase of lung development

A

24 - 36 weeks

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62
Q

Key events in saccular phase

A
  • Surfactant production increases
    • Babies can breathe on their own pretty well by the end of this phase
  • Interstitium thins –> gas exchange more efficient
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63
Q

Alveolar phase

A

36 weeks onward (maybe up until 2 years)

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64
Q

Key events in alveolar phase

A

The number of alveoli multiplies exponentially

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65
Q

Main ingredient in surfactant

A

dipalmitoyl phsphatidylcholine

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66
Q

Cause of respiratory distress syndrome

A
  • Lack of surfactant (primarily)
  • Also structural immaturity of the lungs
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67
Q

At what age is a preterm baby viable?

A

24 weeks (end of canalicular phase)

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68
Q

Nearly all babies born before ____ weeks develop RDS

A

28 weeks

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69
Q

Treatment for RDS

A
  • Mechanical ventilation
  • CPAP
  • exogenous surfactant
  • Steroids for mother (if baby still inside)
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70
Q

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A
  • Chronic lung disease resulting from tx of RDS
    • exogenous surfactant
    • mechanical ventilation
  • Arrested alveolar development and asthma-like symptoms
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71
Q

pulmonary hypoplasia

A
  • Another term for hypoalveolarization, or delayed lung development
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72
Q

Treatment for bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A
  • Supplemental O2 and let them grow
  • Sometimes they need to be on oxygen for weeks, months, or even years, but then they ultimately do pretty well
73
Q

Mechanism of fetal lung fluid

A
  • ENaC is a sodium channel that is induced by a surge of epinephrine (caused by the stress of labor) –> reabsorption of fetal lung fluid
74
Q

Transient tachypnea of the newborn

A
  • Caused by delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid
  • usually resolves within 72 hours
75
Q

Effects of increased chest wall compliance on infant breathing

A
  • They interrupt their exhales with another inhalation in order to maintain end expiratory volume
76
Q

Favored initial therapy for kids with asthma

A

Inhaled corticosteroids

77
Q

Children pulm stuff that is different from adults

A
  1. Increased respiratory rate
    * B/c they have less alveolar surface area
  2. Increased metabolic rate
    * B/c harder for them to retain heat
  3. More type 2 muscle fibers/fewer type 1
    * Results in easier to fatigue b/c type 2 = glycolytic/fast twitch fibers
  4. Higher airway resistance
  • Breathe through nose for first 6 months to prevent aspirating
  • Narrower airways
  1. More compliant chest
  • Cut off their exhalation in order to maintain residual volume in the chest and prevent lung collapse
  • Lower end expiratory volume
78
Q

Clinical definition of bronchopulmonary dysplasia

A

Kid needs O2 at 28 days of age

79
Q

Obstructive Lung Diseases

A
  • COPD
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Asthma
80
Q

Restrictive lung diseases

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Neuromuscular disease
81
Q

Restrictive disease pulmonary function tests results

A
  • Decreased total lung capacity
  • FEV1/FVC is 80% or higher
82
Q

Obstructive disease PFTs

A
  • FEV1/FVC < 70%
  • Increased residual volume
  • Prolonged expiratory phase
83
Q

Characterized by gland formation and destructive invasion

A

adenocarcinoma

84
Q

Typically, this tumor occurs more centrally

A
  • Small cell carcinoma
  • Carcinoid tumors
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
85
Q

tumor cells line pre-existing alveolar spaces

A

adenocarcinoma in situ

86
Q

Intercellular bridges are a feature

A

squamous cell carcinoma

87
Q

which tumors express neuroendocrine markers

A
  • small cell carcinoma
  • carcinoid tumors
88
Q

shows nuclear molding

A

small cell carcinoma

89
Q

chronic bronchitis pathology

A

mucus gland hyperplasia

90
Q

emphysema

A
  • Irreversible enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchiole, accompanied by the destruction of their walls without obvious fibrosis
91
Q

emphysema subtypes

A
  1. centriacinar
  2. panacinar
  3. paraseptal (distal acinar)
92
Q

centriacinar emphysema

A
  • Most common
  • Smoking associated
  • Upper lungs
  • Gross appearance: swiss cheese
93
Q

panacinar emphysema

A
  • alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
  • lower lobe
  • Looks like a loufa - very holey. (More holes than centriacinar)
94
Q

distal acinar emphysema

A
  • Cause of spontaneous pneumothorax in male adolescents
  • See cysts immediately under the pleura in microscope
95
Q

bullous emphysema

A
  • can occur with any of the forms of emphysema
  • see pleural blebs = air within the visceral pleura
  • Cause of pneumothorax
96
Q

asthma pathology

A
  • mucus plugs = mucus filling the lumen of airways
  • Curshman spirals
  • allergic mucin
97
Q

mucus plugs

A
  • asthma
98
Q

Curshman spirals

A
  • asthma
99
Q

allergic mucin

A
  • asthma
  • ABPA
  • see laminated light pink/drak pink pattern
  • see charcot-leyden crystals
  • These patterns are due to eosinophil degranulation
100
Q

ABPA

A
  • Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
  • A relatively uncommon pulmonary syndrome occurring almost exclusively in patients with asthma (1-2%) or cystic fibrosis (7-9%) that results from hypersensitivity to Aspergillus fumigatus or other fungal antigens colonizing large/central airways.
101
Q

ABPA pathology

A

mucoid impaction of bronchi with allergic mucin

102
Q

Usual Interstitial Pneumonia characteristic path findings

A
  • Microscoping honeycomb change
    • Bronchioles embedded in scar - looks like cysts embedded in scar tissue
    • scar tissue is pink due to collagen deposition
  • Fibroblastic foci
  • Normal lung right next to fibrotic lung and the fibrotic lung will eventually advance/overtake the normal lung
103
Q

Usual interstitial pneumonia

A
  • Restrictive lung disease
  • Chronic interstitial pneumonia
  • See fibrosis of tissue b/w alveoli = fibrosis of alveolar septa = “patchwork” fibrosis
  • You’ll see normal lung next to fibrotic lung next to fibroblastic foci (the beginning of scar formation)
104
Q

“patchwork” fibrosis of UIP

A
105
Q

Microscopic honeycomb change

A
  • UIP finding
106
Q

Temporal heterogeneity

A
  • UIP
  • See normal lung tissue next to fibrotic lung tissue with fibroblastic foci (forming new scar tissue)
107
Q

Radiologic findings of UIP

A
  • Traction bronchiectasis
  • honeycombing
108
Q

Is UIP a clinical or histologic diagnosis?

A
  • Histologic
  • You never hear clinicians going around saying someone has UIP
109
Q

What are some common clinical diseases associated with UIP?

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Asbestosis
  • Chronic drug toxicity
  • Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
110
Q

How is a diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis made?

A
  • Histologically you see UIP
  • Then IPF is a diagnosis of exclusion…ex: if they have rheumatoid arthritis and histologic findings of UIP, they do NOT have IPF.
  • If you rule out every other possibility that can cause UIP, THEN you have a diagnosis of IPF
111
Q

Pleural plaques

A
  • Usually asbestos-exposure related
  • Dense collagen
  • Under microscope shows dense collagen in a basket weave pattern
112
Q

Asbestos bodies

A
  • Ferruginous (iron) bodies with a CLEAR CORE
    • There are ferruginous bodies due to other inhalants but they will have a black core, not a clear core.
113
Q

Ferruginous body

A
  • Can be asbestos or non-asbestos related
  • Asbestos related shows a clear core
  • Non-asbestos related shows a black core
114
Q

Lymphangitic vs. paraseptal distribution

A
  • Lymphangitic distribution includes bronchovascular bundle + septa
  • Paraseptal distribution includes septa
115
Q

Sarcoidosis

A
  • Systemic granulomatous disease with frequent lung involvement and hilar lymphadenopathy
  • Prototypic patient: black woman age 20-40
116
Q

Sarcoidosis path findings

A
  • Non-necrotizing granulomas with a distinctive pattern of hyalinizing fibrosis that coalesce to form macroscopic nodules
  • Lymphangitic distribution in the lung
  • Shaumann’s and Asteroid bodies
117
Q

Shaumann’s and Asteroid bodies

A
  • Sarcoidosis
118
Q

Lymphangitic distrubition

A
  • Sarcoidosis
  • The granulomas track along the lymphatics (septa, visceral pleura, bronchovascular bundle)
119
Q

why pulmonary hypertension in sarcoidosis?

A
  • The granulomas run with the bronchovascular bundle and they can push on the pulmonary artery, causing pulmonary hypertension
120
Q

What disease mimics sarcoidosis?

A
  • Chronic berylliosis
  • Caused by working in computer industry and having exposure to beryllium
121
Q

Hypersensitivity Pneumonia

A
  • “bird fancier’s lung”
  • Occurs as a result of hypersensitivity to inhaled organic antigens
    • Most common: birds and hot tubs
  • This shows lots of cellular infiltrate in the alveolar septa, contrasted with fibrosis of other diseases.
122
Q

HP vs. UIP under microscope

A
  • HP looks blue under microscope b/c of all the cells in the alveolar septa
  • UIP looks pink due to fibrosis of alveolar septa
123
Q

HP path findings

A
  • Lymphocyte infiltration = blue appearance
  • poorly formed (loose) granulomas and giant cells
124
Q

Structures making up the hilus of the kidney

A
  • Renal artery
  • Renal vein
  • Ureter
125
Q

Where is the renal corpuscle found?

A

Cortex

126
Q

Function of renal corpuscle

A

First site of blood filtration in the kidney

127
Q

Location of the medullary ray

A

cortex

128
Q

Blood supply in kidney

A
  • Renal artery –> interlobar artery –> arcuate arteries –> interlobular arteries –> afferent arterioles
  • 1 afferent arteriole serves 1 renal corpuscle
129
Q

renal lobule

A

area b/w 2 interlobular arteries

130
Q

glomerulus

A
  • Referring to the capillaries in the renal corpuscle
  • Where filtration occurs
131
Q

Vascular pole

A
  • The part of renal corpuscle where afferent and efferent arterioles are located
132
Q

Urinary pole

A
  • The opposite side of glomerulus from vascular pole
  • Where filtrate leaves the glomerulus
133
Q

Renal capillary structure

A
  • fenestrated capillaries
  • Basement membrane on top of capillary endothelium
  • Podocytes wrap around
134
Q

Podocytes

A
  • Wrap around the glomeruli capillaries
135
Q

Purpose of renal basement membrane

A
  • Excludes larger particules, like cells, from leaving the capillary
136
Q

Mesangial cell location

A
  • On top of basement membrane, same area as podocytes
137
Q

Mesangial cell function

A
  1. maintain basement membrane
  2. Contract/relax to regulate blood flow in the capillaries

(Angiotensin 2 = contract; Atrial Natiuretic peptide = relax)

138
Q

Bowman’s Capsule function

A
  • Captures filtrate from renal corpuscle
  • This is basically where filtrate collects
139
Q

Bowman’s capsule structure

A
  • 2 layers: visceral and parietal
  • Visceral layer = podocytes
  • Parietal layer = simple squamous epithelium
  • Space b/w the 2 layers = urinary space = where filtrate accumulates
140
Q

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

A
  • First tubule leaving renal corpuscle that carries the primary filtrate
  • Simple cuboidal epithelium
  • Microvilli present
  • LOTS of mitochondria to power pumping of ions etc
  • Tight junction seal
  • Found in the cortex surrounding renal corpuscles
141
Q

Loop of Henle

A
  • Thick descending portion = simple cuboidal epithelium w/ brush border
  • Thin limb = simple squamous epithelium w/ no brush border
  • Thick ascending portion = simple cuboidal epithelium with no brush border
142
Q

Proximal convoluted tubule vs. distal convoluted tubule

A
  • Proximal = simple cuboidal WITH microvilli
  • Distal = simple cuboidal WITHOUT microvilli
  • PAS stain shows carbohydrate as red, so you’ll see a red outline of microvilli = proximal tubule.
143
Q

Collecting duct function

A
  • Collects filtrate from multiple distal convoluted tubules (i.e. multiple renal corpuscles) and carries it down to the pyramidal point of medulla
144
Q

Collecting duct histo

A
  • Simple cuboidal, no brush border, with clear lateral demarcation b/w cells
    • This clear demarcation b/w epithelial cells allows you to distinguish collecting duct from distal tubule
145
Q

Peritubular capillary network

A
  • Splits off of efferent arterioles
  • Collects filtrate that comes out of convoluted tubules
  • Pericytes found here that secrete EPO
146
Q

Pericytes

A
  • Found in peritubular capillary network
  • Secrete EPO
147
Q

Vasa Recta

A
  • 3rd capillary system (glomeruli capillaries, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta)
  • Goes into medulla
  • Carries filtrate from collecting ducts
  • Nourishes medulla
148
Q

Counter current exchange system

A

vasa recta

149
Q

counter current multiplier system

A

loop of henle

150
Q

macula densa location

A
  • Cells located in distal convoluted tubule
  • Recognize as a thickening of epithelium near glomerular capillaries
151
Q

macula densa functions

A
  • Sense concentration of filtrate in the distal convoluted tubules
  • Send signals to the mesangial cells and juxtaglomerular cells to regulate blood flow through glomerular capillaries
152
Q

Juxtaglomerular cell location

A
  • Located in afferent arterioles mostly (and efferent arterioles)
153
Q

Juxtaglomerular cell function

A
  • Specialized smooth muscle cells in afferent arterioles
  • Produce renin (i.e. antiotensinogenase)
154
Q

Ureter histo

A
  • Transitional epithelium
    • Impermeable to H2O and salt
    • Can stretch
    • Dome-shaped cell in relaxed state
155
Q

artery of the kidney located right at the junction b/w cortex and medulla

A

arcuate artery

156
Q

At rest, the hila of the kidneys coincide with which vertebral level?

A

L1

157
Q

The kidneys run from what vertebral levels?

A
  • Left: T11 - L2
  • Right: T12 - L3
158
Q

Location of the transpyloric plane

A
  • Midway b/w jugular notch and pubic symphysis
159
Q

Which tissue surrounds the kidneys, suprarenal glands, and ureters in the abdominal cavity?

A

perirenal fascia

160
Q

Are the medial borders of the kidney canted anteriorly or posteriorly?

A
  • Anteriorly
161
Q

Peritoneum

A
  • Serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity
  • The retroperitoneal space is where the kidneys sit, which is posterior to the peritoneum
  • Has a visceral portion adhering directly to the organs of the digestive system
  • The parietal portion of the peritoneum walls off the kidney/urinary system from the abdominal cavity
162
Q

What is located within the perirenal space?

A
  • perirenal fat
  • kidney
  • adrenal glands
  • ureter
    *
163
Q

What is located b/w the renal fascia and the peritoneum?

A
  • Pararenal space
    • pararenal fat
164
Q

At what point in the kidney can there be no more reabsorption?

A
  • Papillae (very beginning of minor calix)
165
Q

Which arteries of the kidneys directly supply the afferent arterioles?

A
  • cortical radiate arteries
    • Also called interlobular arteries
166
Q

At what vertebral level do the renal arteries branch off the aorta?

A

L1 or L2

167
Q

Kidney blood flow

A
  • Renal artery –> segmental arteries –> Interlobar arteries –> arcuate arteries –> cortical radiate arteries (interlobular arteries) –> afferent arterioles
168
Q

What supplies the peritubular capillaries and vasa recta?

A

efferent arteriole

169
Q

Which major arterial branch of the abdominal aorta has a very close (and classic!) anatomical relationship with the left renal v.?

A

superior mesenteric artery

170
Q

Nutcracker Syndrome

A
  • Abdominal aortic aneurysm can pinch off the left renal vein
    • B/c the left renal vein is nestled b/w the superior mesenteric artery and the abdominal aorta
  • Causes multiple problems b/c the left renal vein receives blood from the left inferior phrenic vein, the left suprarenal vein, and the left gonadal vein
171
Q

The 3 veins that drain into the left renal vein

A
  • Left gonadal vein
  • Left suprarenal vein
  • Left inferior phrenic vein
172
Q

What does the left and right renal veins drain into?

A

Inferior vena cava

173
Q

The ureters enter the pelvic cavity at the bifurcation of which major arteries?

A

Common iliac arteries

174
Q

Anatomical background to the phrase “water under the bridge”

A
  • The ureter crosses under the uterine artery
  • The ureter = water; the uterine artery = bridge
175
Q

Ureters typically enter the _____ of the bladder, and the urethra begins from the ____ region of the bladder.

A
  • Base (Fundus) and Neck
176
Q

The right suprarenal gland is partially overlain anteriorly by the ____

A

Inferior vena cava

177
Q

The right suprarenal gland drains directly into ______

A

the inferior vena cava

178
Q

What structure crosses anterior to the aorta and posterior to the superior mesenteric artery?

A

left renal vein

179
Q
A

VF1 - Block 3 (7 decks)

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