(P2) criminological psychology

Question 1

define ‘crime’

Answer 1

crime is an act (or omission of an act) that is against the law.

crime also implies punishment, or at least some treatment to prevent ‘recidivism’

Question 2

define ‘recidivism’

Answer 2

the tendency for a convicted criminal to re-offend

Question 3

define ‘anti-social behaviour’

Answer 3

refers to any behaviour that is seen negatively by others in the sense of harrassing them or causing alarm/distress

Question 4

what is meant by crime as a ‘social construct’?

Answer 4

social and legal processes decide what is and what is not crime in a particular society. some actions may be seen as crimes in some countries but are socially accepted in others. by this means we can refer to crime as a ‘social construct’

Question 5

define ‘anger’

Answer 5

an emotion and anger management is about controlling that emotion

Question 6

define ‘aggression’

Answer 6

refers to how someone behaves, such as threatening behaviour or physical assault. aggression is seen as bad in our society because it is uncontrolled, unlike planned behaviour which society praises.

Question 7

define ‘reactive aggression’

Answer 7

when someone is hostile and wants to hit out at someone perhaps because of perceived injustice

Question 8

define ‘violence’

Answer 8

when aggression moves to behaviour that causes physical harm and goes against social norms.

Question 9

give 2 variables associated with crime

Answer 9

age
gender

Question 10

what is the relationship between ‘age’ and offending behaviour?

Answer 10

The prevalence and incidence of offending (i.e. the number of offences committed) starts to rise in adolescence and peaks around the age of 18, falling sharply thereafter. This relationship is called the age-crime curve. The majority of offenders are in their teenage years but by the age of 28, 85% of them have stopped committing crimes (Farrington, 1986).

However, there are marked differences if different types of crime are accounted for. Property crimes like theft or vandalism follow this pattern closely but fraud and embezzlement are more likely to be committed by older adults (Steffenmeister et al., 1989) principally because opportunities are more plentiful to them.

Question 11

what is the ‘age-crime curve’?

Answer 11

the rise of crime prevalence and incidence during adolescence, which peaks around the age of 18 and falls sharply after.

Question 12

what are the two categories of offender (according to moffit, 1993) and why do they occur?

Answer 12

adolescence limited (AL) offenders offenders follow the pattern above: crime peaks during adolescence at the age of 18 and then falls after.

• this occurs due to a ‘maturity gap’ in the person’s biological and social maturity; although many adolescents have reached adulthood biologically, socially they are restricted from many adult behaviours. as a reaction, delinquency occurs as it is learned by peers through social learning process

life-course persistent offenders (LCP) are a smaller group but criminally active throughout their lives. They start to offend at an earlier age following a history of conduct problems in childhood and continue offending into mature adulthood.

• LCP offending, by contrast, is linked to neuropsychological deficits with a range of causes (e.g. genetics, environmental toxins) which, when combined with an adverse developmental environment (e.g. abuse, neglect) result to produce an antisocial personality type with a high propensity to offend at all ages.

Question 13

what are the gender differences in relation to crime?

Answer 13

the gender-crime gap. The gender-crime gap has been explained in a number of ways.
1. One possibility is that offending patterns reflect constitutional differences between women and men. Males have a higher risk of many types of neurodevelopmental problems which could manifest in an increased tendency to commit crimes.

2. It is also widely believed that human males have developed a tendency towards aggression through evolutionary processes, which might explain the preponderance of males amongst violent criminals.
3. However, gender differences in offending might also reflect differences in the socialisation of women and men. Box (1983) found that criminality in women correlated with the degree of female subordination and powerlessness in society. Possibly, societies that stress a more ‘traditional’ feminine role restrict the opportunities available to women to become involved in criminal activity.
4. Crime statistics from recent years have suggested that the gender disparity in offending is reducing (Lauritsen et al., 2009). It has been suggested that the narrowing of the gender crime gap represents the ‘dark side’ of gender equality as women act on the opportunities for offending previously denied them.

Question 14

assumptions of biological psychology

Answer 14

that our cognition, emotion and behaviour is linked to the nervous system (TNS)

Question 15

what influences our cognition, emotion and behaviour?

Answer 15

physical environment
psychosocial environment
genes

these all effect TNS and consequently, our cognition, emotion and behaviour

Question 16

brain systems involved in aggression (diagram explanation)

Answer 16

(1) OFC (orbitofrontal cortex) exercises inhibitory control, whether you should stop/go

(2) the amygdala takes information from the environment via the senses and inteprets threat/provocation & fear in others.

(3) hypothalamus activates aggressive behaviour

(4) hippocampus stores memory from previous experiences and also contributes to the info the amygdala interpets.

(5) testosterone increases when in competition with others and this is linked to aggressive behaviour.

Question 17

(AO3) evaluation of the amygdala as an explanation for crime and offending

Answer 17

(S) supportive evidence Raine et al. (1997) found asymmetrical amygdala activity in murderers but not a control group. This suggests that unusual responses to threat or provocation might lead to highly aggressive behaviour. This supports the view that the amygdala is an important influence on crime and ASB.

(W) counter-argument One limitation of the amygdala as an explanation for crime and ASB, is the low generalisability of the evidence. Raine et. Al (1997) investigated the difference in brain activity between murderers and offenders pleading NGRI. This is a problem because it only considers an unusual type of offender (NGRI). This sample is limiting in applying to the wider population of other criminals or offenders, which shows low levels of generalisability.

(W) PFC may be a better explanation of offending A different explanation for crime and ASB is the impact and functioning of the prefrontal cortex. The PFC is responsible for exercising inhibitory control. This means that damage to the prefrontal cortex may cause an increase in crime and ASB because the individual is unable to act appropriately and instead, may act irrationally. Whilst the amygdala can explain some crime and ASB that is mostly violent, it doesn’t explain it all because the PFC also plays a huge role. Impulse control failure would explain a wider variety of crimes not just aggressive offences. This disproves the view that the amygdala is responsible for all crime and ASB.

(W) scanning methods a lot of research (e.g. Raine et. Al) employ scanning as a method for determining the link between the amygdala and offending behaviour. while scanning is an objective, scientific and reliable method; brain scanning methods lack causual certainty. it is difficult to definitively link offending to the amygdala as there may be a wider range of factors in play (e.g. age, gender, childhood- psychosocial factors).

Question 18

define ‘traumatic brain injury (TBI)’ *long definition for an essay

Answer 18

Traumatic brain injury (TBI) refers to injury to the brain incurred through mechanical force to the head and can occur many ways including sporting injuries, car accidents and physical violence. TBI can be focal, where there is clear damage to a specific brain area, but is more often diffuse, where there is subtler and more widespread brain injury. TBI can have a range of severity from the mild disruption associated with concussion (disorientation but no loss of consciousness) to severe, where there is lengthy loss of consciousness and a significant risk of psychological impairments in the longer term. The effects of TBI are cumulative, so repeated mild TBI can still ‘add up’ to significant injury over a period of time.

Question 19

define traumatic brain injury (TBI) *short definition

Answer 19

a change to the structure of the brain caused by penetration or physical impact.

Question 20

define ‘diffuse brain injury’

Answer 20

widespread, small-scale damage to the brain that may not be obvious from a visual inspection or large-scale scan.

Question 21

define ‘cumulative brain damage’

Answer 21

damage that results from repeated traumatic impacts, each of which only does a small amount of damage.

Question 22

what is the ‘pre-frontal cortex’?

Answer 22

a set of brain structures involved in sophisticated processes like problem solving, planning and impulse control.

Question 23

risk factors of TBI

Answer 23

living in a town or city
having a lower socio-economic status
alcohol and drug use

(williams, 2012)

Question 24

(AO3) evaluating TBI as an explanation for offending / ASB

Answer 24

(S) supporting evidence Schofield et al. (2015) examined the medical and health records of nearly 30,000 individuals. Those who had a TBI early in their lives were significantly more likely to become offenders than those who had never had a TBI. This supports a causal link between TBI and offending, as the TBI occurred before the offending.

(S) research methods are reliable and credible evidence for brain injury explaining criminal and ASB often comes from case studies or brain scanning. this is a strength of the evidence because these are objective and reliable methods of research; therefore, their findings are reliable/credible.

(W) confounding factors/cause-and-effect despite the evidence, it is difficult for studies to pinpoint brain injury alone as a cause for criminal behaviour as there may be other confounding factors. finding cause-and-effect conclusions is difficult when using correlational data.

(W) individual differences in brain injury Diaz 1995 looked at the use of the insanity plea and any relation to TBI. Diaz believes that there are individual differences in brain injury and differences between individuals in behaviour that is affected. this means that it is hard to draw a strong correlation between TBI and offending behaviour as there is a potential for individual differences to skew the findings. this impacts the generalisability.

Question 25

how does TBI cause offending/ASB

Answer 25

1. head injury
2. damage to brain, which causes changes to aggression, empathy, problems solving, impulse control etc.
3. offending

Question 26

what is XYY syndrome?

Answer 26

XYY syndrome occurs due to a random genetic variation during sperm formation, leading to an individual having one extra Y chromosome. While most males have an XY chromosome configuration, those with XYY syndrome have an additional Y chromosome. This extra chromosome does not typically result in significant physical abnormalities, and most individuals with XYY syndrome lead healthy lives, often unaware of their genetic condition.

The presence of an additional Y chromosome leads to a total of 47 chromosomes instead of the typical 46.

Question 27

what is jacobs syndrome?

Answer 27

an alternative name for XYY syndrome.

Question 28

define ‘chromosome’

Answer 28

a package of DNA. An organism’s genes are organised into chromosomes. Different species have different numbers of chromosomes. Humans usually have 46, arranged into 23 pairs, but people with XYY have 47.

Question 29

define ‘chromosomal atypicality’

Answer 29

an unusual pattern in an individual’s chromosomes. These include XYY, XXY (Klinefilter’s syndrome) and XO (Turner’s syndrome). A chromosomal atypicality usually has an effect on the person’s physical characteristics and may also affect their psychological development or behaviour.

Question 30

what are the effects/characteristics associated with XYY syndrome?

Answer 30

• being unusually tall
• psychologically, XYY individuals may have a number of differences from the XY population including intellectual deficits, delays in speech and language, poor writing skills, learning disabilities, and social-emotional problems (Re and Birkhoff, 2015).

HOWEVER, predominantly those with an extra Y chromosome live their lives normally and possibly unaware of their condition.

Question 31

(AO3) evaluation of XYY syndrome as an explanation of offending and ASB

Answer 31

(S) supporting evidence Jacobs et al. (1965) conducted studies on institutionalised individuals, including some with XYY syndrome. Initial findings suggested a possible link between the extra Y chromosome and aggressive or criminal behaviour. A popular idea at the time was that the additional Y chromosome led to exaggerated ‘masculine’ characteristics like high levels of aggression and sexual dominance over others, leading to a high risk of violent criminal behaviour. The sensationalization of early research created a lasting public perception of individuals with XYY syndrome as inherently violent or prone to criminal behaviour. For example, it was falsely claimed in some US newspapers that the serial killer Richard Speck had XYY syndrome. This portrayal in the media further contributed to the stigmatisation of those with the condition.

(W) criticisms of research by jacobs et. al (1965) their research had methodological flaws. they included a small sample size and biased PP selection because they assumed that XYY was very rare in the normal population and did not check. The original studies that suggested a link between XYY and criminal behaviour were flawed. These studies were based on small samples of XYY males, and they did not control for other factors that could have contributed to the men’s criminal behaviour, such as socioeconomic status or family history. this is a problem because their methodology is reductionist and fails to account for other factors.

(W) XYY syndrome has lead to unecessary stigmatisation The labelling of XYY males as “supermales” can lead to self-fulfilling prophecies. When XYY males are labelled as “supermales” or “hypermasculine,” they may be more likely to be treated differently and have their behaviour monitored more closely. This can lead to increased stress and anxiety because of stigmatising attitudes, which could increase their chances of engaging in criminal activity.

(W) alternative explanations like amygdala the amygdala is associated with inhibitory control of violent and aggressive impulses. an alternative biological explanation for offending is that the amygdala accounts for crime and ASB. this may be a better explanation as it is supported by more reliable and credible research methods like case studies or brain-scanning techniques. this weakens XYY syndrome as a valid explanation for offending and ASB because the research is limitative and subjective.

• additional weakness point (W) contradictory evidence Re and Birkoff (2015) reviewed all the evidence they could find relating to XYY and criminality. They found little evidence for a direct link between chromosomes and crime. Like Scochholm et al., they concluded that XYY increases the risk of a range of developmental problems, which, in turn, increase the risk of criminal involvement via social factors like education and home environment.

Question 32

what are the 4 biological explanations of offending and ASB?

Answer 32

(1) amygdala
(2) brain injury: TBI
(3) XYY syndrome
(4) personality

Question 33

define ‘personality’

Answer 33

an individual’s pattern of behavioural tendencies that are stable over time and across situations.

Question 34

define ‘extroversion’

Answer 34

an individual’s level of need for sociality and stimulation. People who are high in E need lots of stimulation from their environment; those who are low in E prefer to avoid stimulating environments.

Question 35

define ‘neuroticism’

Answer 35

an individual’s level of reactivity to negative events. People who are high in N react strongly to negative stimuli and are prone to anxiety and depression.

Question 36

define ‘psychoticism’

Answer 36

an individual’s level of callousness and unfeelingness towards other people. People who are high in P are not disturbed by the thought of acting selfishly or in ways that may hurt others.

Question 37

what is eysenck’s theory of personality?

Answer 37

Eysenck (1964) put forward a theory of crime that related offending to personality traits that he believed were strongly influenced by genetics.

Eysenck claimed that most offending is the result of selfishness and impulsiveness. All children are selfish and impulsive but most children learn not to be because they get punished for such actions throughout their childhood.
However, people who are high in extroversion (E), neuroticism (N) and psychoticism (P) do not learn to control their selfishness and impulsiveness when they are children, so they risk offending as adults. This is because their high E makes them seek out exciting/risky situations, their high N makes it difficult for them to learn from punishment, and their high P causes them to avoid people who would usually act as prosocial influences.

Question 38

eysenck’s personality theory in relation to offending and ASB

Answer 38

1. extroversion people who are high in E needs lots of stimulation from their environment. these people are more likely to seek thrill or take risks. this is linked to arousal and increases the risk of offending/ASB.

2. neuroticism people who are high in N are likely to react strongly to negative stimuli and are prone to anxiety or depression. they learn poorly from punishment and as a result are more likely to offend or be involved in ASB.

3. psychoticsm people who are high in P are not disturbed by the thought of acting selfishly or harming others. they avoid pro-social influences or people and surrounding by this lack of empathy increases their likelihood of offending or ASB.

Question 39

(AO3) evaluate eysenck’s theory of personality as an explanation for offending

Answer 39

(S) supporting evidence Eysenck et al. (1977) found that different categories of convicted offender had significantly different scores on the Eysenck Personality Questionnaire (EPQ). For example, violent and property offenders had high E scores, whilst conmen had high P scores.
(SUPPORTS CLAIMS: high E scores need stimulation from environment; high P scores suggest individuals are less empathetic) This suggested that personality scores could predict offending to some extent.

(S) cross-cultural applicability eysenck said that his theory of personality can be applied universally across different cultures. in practice, it has been applied and some studies have found cosnsistent associations between certain personality traits and offending behaviour. this is a strength because it suggests a degree of universality and inclusivity.

(W) contradictory evidence Cale (2006) conducted a meta-analysis of 52 studies found that the only personality trait that reliably correlates with offending is impulsiveness, which is only a narrow subset of what Eysenck called ‘extroversion’. this shows that the other aspects of eysencks personality test is not a reliable and consistent measure to determine offending behaviour.

(W) causation vs. correlation the theory is circular. it primarily establishes correlations between personality traits and offending behavior, but it doesn’t provide a clear causal mechanism. It doesn’t explain why certain personality traits lead to criminal behavior or whether other factors mediate the relationship.

Question 40

what is SLT as an explanation for offending and ASB?

Answer 40

Social learning theory sees crime as a set of attitudes and behaviours that are no different from any other attitudes and behaviours. Although SLT is strongly associated with Albert Bandura, Akers (1973) applied SLT to crime particularly. Akers identified the following mechanisms:

1. Differential association - criminality is learned because the person associates with criminals more than non-criminals.
2. Imitation - the person observes criminal behaviours and attitudes in others, and takes them on as their own.
3. Differential reinforcement - if imitating criminal behaviours and attitudes brings reinforcement (either direct or vicarious), the person goes on imitating.

Akers identified the peer group as the most important source of pro-crime attitudes and behaviour.

Question 41

define ‘social learning’

Answer 41

the process of learning by observing others.

Question 42

define ‘differential association’

Answer 42

the idea that some people learn to become criminals because they associate with different people from non-criminals.

Question 43

define ‘imitation’

Answer 43

reproducing a behaviour that previously was observed.

Question 44

define ‘attitude’

Answer 44

a stable way of thinking, feeling and acting about/towards something. Pro-crime attitudes are not necessarily learned from other criminals e.g. a person’s parents might express approval violent acts even if they do not act violently themselves.

Question 45

define ‘reinforcement’

Answer 45

any consequence that strengthens a definition or behaviour.

Question 46

define ‘vicarious reinforcement’

Answer 46

a consequence that is observed for someone else. E.g. a person’s pro-criminal definitions might be strengthened by seeing that someone else has got rich by stealing

Question 47

what are the differences between bandura and akers theories of social learning

Answer 47

bandura (1977)
- observational learning/modelling
- Expectancies
- Direct & vicarious reinforcement

Akers (1973)
- Differential association
- Definitions (attitudes)
- Imitation
- Differential reinforcement

Question 48

what is the role of social learning in crime? (factors + supported with evidence)

Answer 48

peer influence Empirical studies have consistently shown that peer influence plays a substantial role in criminal behaviour. For example, a study published in the Journal of Research on Crime and Delinquency found that adolescents who associated with delinquent peer groups were more likely to engage in criminal activities themselves (Akers & Sellers, 2009). This research underscores the power of peer dynamics in shaping criminal behaviour.

family background Research examining family backgrounds has also provided compelling evidence for social learning theory. A study published in the Journal of Abnormal Child Psychology discovered that children from families with a history of criminal behaviour were more likely to exhibit delinquent behaviours themselves (Burt, 2012). This demonstrates how exposure to criminal behaviour within the family can contribute to a cycle of criminality.

media and pop culture Empirical studies have explored the influence of media and pop culture on criminal behaviour. A study in the journal Pediatrics, for instance, found a correlation between exposure to violent video games and an increase in aggressive behaviour among adolescents (Anderson et al., 2010). This research highlights the potential impact of media on shaping attitudes toward crime and violence.

criminal subcultures Research into criminal subcultures supports the idea that these environments can promote criminal activities. A study conducted by Cohen (1955) on delinquent subcultures found that certain groups may encourage criminal behaviour as a means of gaining status within their community. This study illustrates how subcultures can foster criminal learning.

role models Empirical studies have emphasised the role of role models in shaping behaviour. A study published in the journal Child Development discovered that adolescents with positive role models were less likely to engage in delinquent activities (Rhodes et al., 2005). This research highlights the significance of positive role models in deterring criminal behaviour.

Question 49

the role of reinforcement in social learning theory and crime

Answer 49

positive reinforcement might come from financial or material gain from the crime, or approval from one’s peers. all of which motivate an individual to commit crime.

negative reinforcement might come from the removal of something unpleasant by committing the crime, such as removing disapproval from peers or removing financial hardship.

Question 50

(AO3) evaluation of SLT as an explanation for offending/ASB

Answer 50

(S) supporting evidence Bandura et al. (e.g. 1966) showed that children were more likely to imitate aggressive acts after watching an adult model if they had seen the model reinforced rather than punished. this supports the principle of ‘vicarious reinforcement’ in aker’s SLT, which is when an individual is more likely to imitate criminal behaviours or attitudes if it brings reinforcement, in this case positive.

(S) application value this theory is useful because it can help us to rehabilitate offenders, as appropriate role models can be used to help learn appropriate behaviour alongside appropriate reinforcements.

(W) does not account for individual differences the theory does not count for individual differences and is arguably reductionist. it only focuses on social influences and ignores biological influences (e.g. amygdala and offending or TBI).

(W) the theory does not account for all criminal behaviour SLT tends to account more for criminal behaviour like stealing, aggression and other crimes that are more easily observed by society. it ignores opportunistic crimes like murders. this is a problem because it does not account for all crime and therefore poses issues for generalisability.

Question 51

define ‘labelling’

Answer 51

a social process in which an individual is publicly put into a category that stigmatises them, with consequences for how that person views themselves and how they are treated by others.

Question 52

define ‘self-fulfilling prophecy’

Answer 52

a process in which a prediction comes true because the prediction was made. For example, if people think that John is ‘destined’ to be a criminal they (1) treat him in ways that make him likely to offend, e.g. by provoking or excluding him; and (2) watch him closely so they are more likely to catch him doing something criminal (even if the act concerned is something many other people also so). So, ultimately, John becomes a criminal because people expected him to become one.

Question 53

define ‘self-concept’

Answer 53

the ideas a person has about who they are. It encompasses things like the judgements they make about themselves and the expectations they have of their own behaviour. Someone with a negative self-concept is likely to act in negative ways.

Question 54

define ‘stigma’

Answer 54

a negative powerful label that affects someone’s self-concept

Question 55

what is labelling theory?

Answer 55

1. primary deviance
the initial act that violates the social norms of behaviour.

2. informal / formal labelling
as a result of the primary deviance, the individual is either informally or formally labelled. informal labelling is by peers, teachers, parents etc. whereas formal labelling is through the legal system (e.g. labelled a criminal)

- deviant self concept
negative ideas a person has about themself, which encourages them to act in negative ways.

- blocked opportunities
the individual is prevented from opportunities like jobs due to the formal label and the stigma it carries.

- delinquent peers
due to the stigmatisation, the individual is more likely to surround themselves with ‘deliquent’ peers as they identify with these individuals due to the labels they’ve been prescribed.

3. secondary deviance
The concept of secondary deviance, as proposed by sociologist Edwin Lemert, posits that the labelling process itself can lead individuals to embrace their criminal identities. Once labelled, individuals may be more likely to engage in further criminal activities, thus confirming the initial label placed upon them.

Question 56

what is self-fulfilling prophecy in relation to offending and ASB?

Answer 56

A self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when people around the individual form negative expectations of them (perhaps because they have been labelled/stigmatised). This negative expectation gives rise to treatment that causes that individual to confirm the expectation.

(1) expectation and behaviour Criminological research highlights that individuals who are labelled as “delinquent” or “at risk” may internalise these labels and act in ways that align with these expectations. This phenomenon is particularly pronounced in adolescents, where external influences play a significant role in shaping their self-identity and behaviour.

(2) criminal subcultures Self-fulfilling prophecies can lead to the creation of deviant or criminal subcultures. When individuals consistently encounter negative labels and expectations, they may seek out like-minded peers who share these labels, leading to the development of subcultural norms that encourage criminal behaviour.

Question 57

applying labelling theory and SFP in practical ways

Answer 57

1. Rehabilitation programs:

Criminologists advocate for rehabilitation programs that focus on reintegration and redefining the identities of those labelled as offenders. These programs aim to reduce the impact of stigmatisation and provide opportunities for individuals to reshape their self-concept.

2. Restorative justice:

Restorative justice practices promote open dialogue and reconciliation between offenders and victims, reducing the stigmatisation that can arise from the labelling process and encouraging personal growth and transformation.

3. Support for ‘at risk’ individuals:

To mitigate the effects of self-fulfilling prophecies, criminological approaches emphasise the importance of providing comprehensive support systems, especially for at-risk youth. These systems should address the factors contributing to labelling and encourage positive self-identity formation. If a young person starts offending, they should be ‘diverted not processed’. In other words, rather than putting them on trial and punishing them through the judicial system, we should focus on involving them with more positive influences and activities. The problem with trying, convicting and punishing them is that this increases labelling and stigmatisation, thereby making it more likely that they will commit further offences.

Question 58

(AO3) evaluation of labelling and SFP as an explanation of offending/ASB

Answer 58

(S) supporting evidence Restivo and Lanier (2013) found that, among young people who had been involved in crime, those who got arrested and charged subsequently developed a more deviant self-concept and became involved in more serious offending.

(S) accounts for gender differences Ramoutar and Farrington (2007) found that the effect of criminal labelling on boys in Trinidad was relatively small but, for girls, being labelled as criminal, especially by their parents, made them 20 times more likely to commit offences. this suggests a higher stigma/stereotype that comes with females.

(W) reductionist labelling theory and SFP as a social explanation does not account for biological factors that may play a role in offending (e.g. amygdala or TBI). therefore, it is arguably reductionist.

(W) use of correlational data a lot of the evidence uses correlational designs. this is a problem because it suggests that labelling and SFP is a risk factor rather than a cause and it is an influence on criminal trajectory, not as an initial cause of offending. therefore, it may be a weak explanation since it cannot establish a causal relationship between labelling and SFP and offending.

Question 59

define ‘eye-witness testimony’ (EWT) in relation to EWT & PEI

Answer 59

accounts of events given to the authorities based on the witness’s memory of what happened. EWT may be used by the police to guide their investigation and by the courts in deciding the guilt or innocence of a defendant.

Question 60

define ‘post-event information’ (PEI) in relation to EWT & PEI

Answer 60

information about events an individual has witnessed, given after the event has occurred.

Question 61

define ‘target event’ in relation to EWT & PEI

Answer 61

the event about which the witness is asked to retrieve information.

Question 62

define ‘reconstructive error’ in relation to EWT & PEI

Answer 62

inaccuracies in recall that happen when witnesses either unconsciously or consciously try to recall events in ways that are consistent with their schematic understanding.

Question 63

define ‘rationalisation’ in relation to EWT & PEI

Answer 63

reconstructive errors that occur when the witness consciously tries to work out what actually happened.

Question 64

define ‘confabulation’ in relation to EWT & PEI

Answer 64

reconstructive errors that occur when the witness unconsciously uses schemas or PEI to fill in the gaps in their memory.

Question 65

define ‘source-monitoring error’ in relation to EWT & PEI

Answer 65

inaccurate recall resulting from a witness’s inability to distinguish between different sources of information in their memory.

Question 66

overview of PEI and EWT

Answer 66

Although most people believe that their memory of events is very accurate it is often not. This is important when people act as eyewitnesses whose memories may be used by the police and by the courts. Witness memory can be altered when people are exposed to inaccurate information after the original event (post-event information; PEI). The inaccuracies may become incorporated into their memories and can distort or replace the original memory traces. As a result, the witness may unintentionally mislead the police or courts. This could derail a police investigation or result in a wrongful criminal conviction.

Witnesses are not always inaccurate. PEI is most likely to affect a witness’s memory when it is given some time after the target event, when it is peripheral to the main event, when it comes from a trusted source and when the witness does not expect to be misled.

Question 67

what is the effect of PEI on EWT?

Answer 67

1. misleading PEI- PEI competes with the original memory trace in the LTM because it cannot get overloaded (tulving’s LTM theory)
2. this results in source-monitoring errors where the eyewitness has difficulity in distinguishing between different sources of information in their memory and this causes inaccurate recall.
3. schema-driven errors
   - confabulation: when reconstructive errors occur in the witnesses retelling of events because they unconsciously use schemas or PEI to fill in the gaps in their memory.

• rationalisation: reconstructive errors that occur when the witness consciously tries to work out what actually happened, which affects the accuracy of EWT.

4. result: inaccuracy despite witnesses confidence

Question 68

factors that mediate (bring about) the impact of PEI

Answer 68

1. time between PEI and target event increased time = increased effect of PEI. This is because the witness forgets more of the target event and its more likely for gaps to be filled in by schemas/PEI.

2. centrality of PEI to target event increased peripherality (less central) = increased effect of PEI. This is because peripheral information receives less attention/processing as it’s not necessary to the target event and its more likely for gaps to be filled in by schemas/PEI

3. source of PEI Untrustworthy source of PEI = increased effect of PEI. This is because when the source is not trusted, the person is more likely to be looking out for PEI (that differs from the target event) therefore they’re more likely to notice any discrepancies

Question 69

evidence to support the mediating factors on PEI

Answer 69

1. time between PEI and target event
   - Loftus et al. (1978) showed that misleading information given to witnesses after a delay has a greater effect on accuracy than PEI given immediately after the target event. This is because PEI has more of an effect once the details of the target event has had time to be forgotten.
2. centrality of PEI to target event
   - Sutherland and Haine (2001) showed that PEI has more of an effect on accuracy when it concerns things that are peripheral to the main action than when it concerns things that are central to the action. This is because witnesses are less likely to have encoded peripheral details, meaning that the PEI is used to fill in gaps in the witness’s memory.
3. source of PEI
   - Dodd and Bradshaw (1980) showed that witnesses were less affected by PEI from a source they did not trust because they were ‘on guard’ and therefore more likely to notice misleading PEI.

Question 70

(AO3) ‘assess/TWE’ does PEI have an effect on EWT?

Answer 70

(S) supporting evidence PEI causes the misinformation effect. this is then the PEI competes with the original memory trace of the target event in the LTM. this can be supported by Loftus and Palmer (1974) found that changing the word used to ask a witness about a car accident affected their estimate of the speed at which the vehicles were travelling. This showed that PEI could influence the way a witness recalls the target event.

(S) supporting evidence another factor that influences the effect of PEI is the source. Dodd and Bradshaw (1980) showed that witnesses were less affected by PEI from a source they did not trust because they were ‘on guard’ and therefore more likely to notice misleading PEI.

(W) contradictory evidence Yuille and Cutshall aimed to examine whether the findings that had emerged from laboratory experiments were also evident in the memories of real-life witnesses. They were concerned that the stimuli and setting used in EWP research did not fully represent the nature of situations experienced by real eyewitnesses. they chose a shooting incident that had occurred in daylight in front of 21 witnesses and ensured to use several sources of data (e.g. records of police interviews, research conducted by psychologists, evidence from police files). they found that eyewitness accuracy was very accurate, where after five months, they recalled (75%) of info about objects and (85%) when it came to people. this contrasts the lab findings of EWT and PEI.

Question 71

CLASSIC STUDY loftus & palmer 1974

Answer 71

AIM: To test their hypothesis that the language used in eyewitness testimony can alter memory.

Thus, they aimed to show that leading questions could distort eyewitness testimony accounts and so have a confabulating effect, as the account would become distorted by cues provided in the question.

EXPERIMENT 1

sample 45 American students from the University of Washington, formed an opportunity sample.

• lab experiment with five conditions, only one of which was experienced by each PP (independent measures design)

PROCEDURE
7 films of traffic accidents, ranging in duration from 5 to 30 seconds, were presented in a random order to each group.

After watching the film participants were asked to describe what had happened as if they were eyewitnesses.

They were then asked specific questions, including the question “About how fast were the cars going when they (smashed / collided / bumped / hit / contacted) each other?”

Thus, the IV was the wording of the question and the DV was the speed reported by the participants.

FINDINGS he estimated speed was affected by the verb used. The verb implied information about the speed, which systematically affected the participants’ memory of the accident.

Participants who were asked the “smashed” question thought the cars were going faster than those who were asked the “hit” question.

The participants in the “smashed” condition reported the highest speed estimate (40.8 mph), followed by “collided” (39.3 mph), “bumped” (38.1 mph), “hit” (34 mph), and “contacted” (31.8 mph) in descending order.

CONCLUSION
The results show that the verb conveyed an impression of the speed the car was traveling and this altered the participants” perceptions.

In other words, eyewitness testimony might be biased by the way questions are asked after a crime is committed. Loftus and Palmer offer two possible explanations for this result:

**Response-bias factors: ** The misleading information provided may have simply influenced the answer a person gave (a “response-bias”) but didn”t actually lead to a false memory of the event. For example, the different speed estimates occur because the critical word (e.g. “smash” or “hit”) influences or biases a person’s response.

The memory representation is altered: The critical verb changes a person’s perception of the accident – some critical words would lead someone to have a perception of the accident being more serious. This perception is then stored in a person’s memory of the event.

EXPERIMENT 2
AIM: investigating if leading questions simply create a response bias, or if they actually alter a person’s memory representation.

sample 150 students

PROCEDURE
1. students shown a 1-min film, which featured a car driving through the countryside follwoed by four seconds of a multiple traffic accident.
2. Afterward, the students were questioned about the film. The independent variable was the type of question asked.
- It was manipulated by asking 50 students “how fast were the car going when they hit each other?”, another 50 “how fast were the car going when they smashed each other?”, and the remaining 50 participants were not asked a question at all (i.e. the control group).
3. One week later the dependent variable was measured – without seeing the film again they answered ten questions, one of which was a critical one randomly placed in the list: “Did you see any broken glass? Yes or no?” There was no broken glass on the original film.

FINDINGS Participants who were asked how fast the cars were going when they smashed were more likely to report seeing broken glass.

CONCLUSIONS This research suggests that memory is easily distorted by questioning technique and information acquired after the event can merge with original memory causing inaccurate recall or reconstructive memory.

The results from experiment two suggest that this effect is not just due to a response-bias because leading questions actually altered the memory a participant had for the event.

The addition of false details to a memory of an event is referred to as confabulation. This has important implications for the questions used in police interviews of eyewitnesses .

Consequently, Loftus and Palmer support the reconstructive memory hypothesis – arguing that information gathered at the time of an event is modified by data gathered afterwards.

Over time, information from these two sources is integrated to the degree that it is impossible to separate them – in effect we only have one memory

Question 72

(AO3) evaluation of classic study: loftus & palmer

Answer 72

(S) reliablity/validity loftus and palmer’s experiment was a laboratory based experiment, this is a strength because there was a strong degree of control over confounding variables. the researchers were able to limit the effect of confounding variables (e.g. age, incident viewed, environment). this increases the internal validity of the research.

(S) application value this study supports the reconstructive memory hypothesis and the effect of misleading PEI on EWT. this is a strength because it has useful practical application in police questionning and interviewing techniques for witnesses.

(W) lacks EV/mundane realism although the study features controlled conditions, it lacks mundame realism and ecological validity. Participants viewed video clips rather than being present at a real-life accident. As the video clip does not have the same emotional impact as witnessing a real-life accident the participants would be less likely to pay attention and less motivated to be accurate in their judgements. this suggests that their findings may not be representative in a real-world setting.

(W) response bias from PP’s

(W) contradictory evidence Yuille and Cutshall

Question 73

what is weapon focus effect (WFE)?

Answer 73

refers to the tendency for witnesses to focus their attention on a weapon, thereby decreasing the amount of information they encode about other features of the crime.

Question 74

eye-witness testimony (2) and weapon-focus effect

Answer 74

Eyewitnesses are the most important source of evidence for police investigations and criminal prosecutions. However, witnesses tend to produce poorer testimony when a weapon was used during a crime. This is called the weapon focus effect.

The WFE occurs because we have an attentional system that causes some information to be processed and not others. When a weapon is present, people tend to focus their attention on the weapon rather than other things, like the face of the person holding it. This makes it harder for them to give an accurate description of the assailant or to pick them out of a line-up accurately. Studies have suggested that the weapon draws witnesses’ attention because it is unexpected in the context, rather than because it is a threat.

Question 75

what factors influence the effect of WFE on EWT?

Answer 75

1. weapon unexpected in context
when a weapon is unexpected in an environment/context, there is a bigger WFE which causes less accurate EWT. (e.g. a gun at a firing range vs. a gun in a tennis court)

2. duration of exposure
the shorter the exposure to the weapon, the greater the WFE. this means that it is more likely to cause a misleading effect on EWT.

3. how recall is measured
WFE is greatest when PP’s/witnesses select the target from a line-up. this means that the errors or mistaken indentification increases. WFE is smaller for general recall.

4. witness training
when witnesses receive training, they may learn to focus on critical details, which reduces the impact of distracting elements like weapons.

Question 76

supporting evidence for the mediating factors of WFE on EWT.

Answer 76

1. weapon unexpected in context
- Erikson et. Al (2014) showed that the WFE occurs because the weapon is unexpected, not because it is a threat. They found that recall of photographs of a man holding a weapon was poorer than a control condition, but recall was also poorer when the man was holding a rubber chicken.

2. duration of exposure
- Fawcett et al. (2013) reviewed police and court records of crimes where weapons had and had not been used. They found no evidence to suggest that witnesses testimony was poorer in weapons cases. This might suggest that the findings of laboratory studies are the result of a lack of ecological or task validity.

3. how recall is measured
- loftus et al. (1987) Loftus et al (1987) demonstrated the WFE by showing that participants had better recall of a man holding a chequebook than of a man holding a gun in a restaurant context.

Question 77

(AO3) assess/TWE does weapon-focus effect (WFE) influence eye-witness testimony (EWT)

Answer 77

(W) supporting evidence one mediating factor of WFE on EWT is the context in which the weapon is used. Loftus et al (1987) demonstrated the WFE by showing that participants had better recall of a man holding a chequebook than of a man holding a gun in a restaurant context.

(W) contradictory evidence
Fawcett et al. (2013) reviewed police and court records of crimes where weapons had and had not been used. They found no evidence to suggest that witnesses testimony was poorer in weapons cases. This might suggest that the findings of laboratory studies are the result of a lack of ecological or task validity.

(W) inconsistent findings showed that the WFE could also occur in field settings, using a staged event where participants were holding either a pen or a syringe (the ‘weapon’). Recall of the ‘nurse’ was better with the pen than the syringe. However, recall was not affected by the level of threat the participant was exposed to.

Question 78

what is a standard police interview?

Answer 78

the way police interview witnesses without psychological training.

Question 79

what is a cognitive interview? (short definition)

Answer 79

a way of interviewing witnesses to maximise accurate recall, using knowledge of how memory works.

Question 80

what is context reinstatement (in relation to cognitive interviewing)?

Answer 80

asking the witness to imagine themselves back at the scene of the target event. The aim is to increase the availability of retrieval cues.

Question 81

what are retrieval cues? (in relation to cognitive interviewing)

Answer 81

elements of the environment or the witnesses internal state that were encoded along with details of the target event at the time it happened. They can be used as a route to retrieving information about the target event. Usually, the witness is asked to imagine themselves back at the scene of the event and prompted to think about what was happening and how they were feeling.

Question 82

what is free recall? (in relation to cognitive interviewing)

Answer 82

where the witness is asked to describe as much as they can about the target event, without the interviewer interrupting them.

Question 83

what is the difference between standard police interviews and cognitive police interviews?

Answer 83

‘Standard’ police interviews are relatively poor for obtaining good witness testimony. Cognitive interviews are better, because they use psychological principles to maximise information and minimise error. In a CI, the interview (1) reinstates the original context; (2) invites full free recall; (3) changes the order or recall; and (4) changes to perspective. In an enhanced CI, the interview also tries to build rapport with the witness, tells them that only they (i.e. the witness) was there and knows what happened and tells them it’s OK not to know.

Question 84

describe the stages of a cognitive interview and why they are used.

Answer 84

1. mentally reinstating the context/environment the witness is asked to imagine themselves at the scene, thinking about where they were, what they were doing, how they were feeling etc.
- by mentally revisiting the event and forming a mental picture of the environment, someone recreates the cues in the environment and that can trigger retrieval cues.

2. reporting everything and giving an in-depth account the witness is asked to say everything they remember, no matter how unimportant it may seem.
- this is because it uncovers information rather than getting only what the witness thinks is important. this can build up a more accurate picture of the event.

3. describing the event in different orders the witness is asked to recall the events in a different order (e.g. starting with the last thing that happened and working backwards)
- asking the witness about different points in the story may trigger more recall of events/information.

4. reporting the event from a different perspective the witness is asked to imagine what they would have seen if they were standing at a different point/angle.
- by telling the witness to imagine themself at a different point, more information about the target event could be uncovered.

Question 85

what elements of social psychology are used within cognitive interviewing?

Answer 85

1. building rapport building rapport between the interviewer and the witness is crucial in order for them to feel relaxed and comfortable to retell the events. if they are intimidated or feel pressurised, this may impact the accuracy of their account.

2. ‘interviewer knows nothing the officer telling the witness that they weren’t there so they do not know anything thay happened, encourages the witness to be honest and retell the event without bias (social desirability).

3. ‘OK not to know’ the officer stresses that it is OK for the witness to say they don’t know something if they cannot recall. this ensures that a) they are not under stress/pressure (ethical concerns) and b) that they do not confabulate or rationalise info.

Question 86

(AO3) evaluate the use of cognitive interviewing in police investigations

Answer 86

(S) cognitive interviewing leads to a more accurate account of event Geiselman et al. (1986) found that a cognitive interview led to a 30% increase in correct statements, with no increase in errors. This showed that it was superior to both standard police interviews and interviews under hypnosis.

(S) reduction in errors in comparison to standard police interviewing Memon et al. (2010) reviewed the available literature (65 experiments) and did a meta analysis. They found that CI substantially increased the production of correct information but also produced a small but significant increase in errors compared to the standard interview. They suggests that errors could be reduced if the witness is clearly told not to guess if they don’t know something and it is stressed that it is OK to say ‘I don’t know’ if they can’t recall something.

(W) lacks EV/mundane realism It is important to note that most of the studies reviewed by Memon et al. were laboratory experiments using staged events or videos. There is relatively little research using real witnesses in real contexts, partly because police have been slow to adopt CI in a systematic way. Even where police have been trained in CI, they tend not to use it effectively in practice.

(W) inconsistent findings Fisher et al. (1987) found that, compared to a standard interview, CI led to an increase in correct statements but also an increase in errors. This raises questions about the benefits of CI.

(W) may be impractical it may not be feasible to train all police officers to become cognitive interviewing experts.

Question 87

what is ethical interviewing? (short definition)

Answer 87

a set of police interviewing techniques intended to establish the truth about what happened, induce suspects to confess if guilty but avoid unethical practices.

Question 88

define ‘coercion’ (in relation to ethical interviewing)

Answer 88

the use of pressure, force or the threat of force to make someone do something.

Question 89

define ‘confession’ (in relation to cognitive interviewing)

Answer 89

an admission by a suspect that they are guilty of the crime of which they have been accused.

Question 90

define ‘false confession’ (in relation to ethical interviewing)

Answer 90

an admission of guilt that is untrue. This can happen (1) because the individual wants deliberately to mislead the police; (2) because they have been coerced to confess e.g. using torture or threats; or (3) because they genuinely believe they are guilty even though they are not e.g. as a result of a psychotic delusion.

Question 91

define ‘miscarriage of justice’ (in relation to cognitive interviewing)

Answer 91

a situation where the judicial process of a criminal trial has produced a provably incorrect outcome. This term most often applies where a person has been wrongly convicted of an offence and punished (and, consequently, a guilty person has gone

Question 92

what does it mean when evidence is ‘thrown out’ (in relation to ethical interviewing)

Answer 92

if evidence is thrown out of court, then either the prosecution or the defence has been forbidden from using it in their case.

Question 93

history of ethical interviewing (1970s and 1980s)

Answer 93

there used to be a lot of concern arising from police interviewing techniques, these primarily include ethical concerns. for instance:
- no rapport being built with the suspect
- officers looking for a confession
- officers ignoring the suspect and speaking over them
- abuse and false confessions

Question 94

what are the ethical standards that govern police interviews now? (hint: PEACE)

Answer 94

Roberts, 2012

1. Planning and Preparation
the planning phase is crucial for the officer to carry out before the interview. this includes noting the aims + objectives of the interview or the required outcomes. any questions they may want to ask. the place/time is also planned.

2. Engage and explain
there is a need to build rapport with the suspect, which means explaining how the interview is going to take place and answering any q’s the suspect may have. witnesses are told what to expect.

3. Account
the account is an invitation for the suspect to provide an account of their behaviour, depending on what is being investigated.

4. Closure
closure is about bringing the interview to a good conclusion and maintaining rapport. the aim is to avoid anxiety or anger as the interview ends.

5. Evaluate
interviews should be evaluated against the initial, required aims to determine whether the information was obtained.

Question 95

what are the aims of ethical interviewing?

Answer 95

(1) improve trust in the police
(2) ensure interview evidence is admissible in court
(3) increase true confessions
(4) reduce/avoid false confessions

Question 96

comparison of cognitive interviewing (CI) and ethical interviewing (EI)

Answer 96

similarities
(1) CI and EI both have the same purpose. they seek to obtain useful, truthful information that can be used by the police to advance an investigation and can be used as evidence in a criminal trial.

differences
(1) CI and EI have different objectives in questioning the interviewee. In CI the emphasis is on helping the witness recall as much accurate detail as they can, whereas in EI the emphasis is on ensuring that the legal rights of the interviewee are respected.

(2) CI builds rapport to increase the trust between the interviee and the officer in order to uncover more information whereas, EI builds rapport to reduce stress and anxiety for moral and ethical reasons, moreso, than to uncover the truth.

Question 97

(AO3) evaluate the use of ethical interviewing by police

Answer 97

(S) increase in true confessions Kebbell et al. (2010) examined relationships between offenders’ perceptions of different policeinterviewing strategies and the likelihood of conessing. they found that offenders reported being more likely to confess when police used (1) presenting evidence of the offence; (2) ethical interviewing; and (3) displays of humanity. They reported being less likely to confess when police used displays of dominance.

(S) higher public trust in police Roberts (2011) examined how the use of different interview strategies in terrorist cases might affect relationships between police and the community. He found that the use of aggressive interviewing strategies is likely to result in unreliable information and can be detrimental to police-community relations.

(W) contradictory evidence Walsh and Milne (2010) Examined whether training in ethical interview strategies had an effect on police professionalism and quality of testimony. they found that PEACE-training resulted in more detailed testimony and better adherence to legal requirements of interviewing. However, PEACE training did not result in better planning of interviews or better rapport with suspects.

(W) impractical to implement expensive, time-consuming, unrealistic to train all officers?

Question 98

define ‘defendant’

Answer 98

a person who has been charged with a crime and is being tried in court.

Question 99

define ‘jury’

Answer 99

a group of people, chosen to represent the general public, who decide collectively whether the prosecution has proven that the defendant is guilty.

Question 100

define ‘bias’

Answer 100

a tendency to favour one side in an argument or when making a judgement.

Question 101

define ‘sterotype’ (in relation to jury decision making)

Answer 101

a type of schema that causes the individual to judge people on their membership of a specific social group and to treat all members of that group as similar.

Question 102

define ‘halo effect’ (in relation to jury decision making)

Answer 102

the tendency to stereotype physically attractive people as possessing other positive characteristics e.g. honesty, friendliness etc.

Question 103

define ‘benevolent sexism’ (in relation to jury decision making)

Answer 103

the tendency to treat women more leniently than men accused of the same crime.

Question 104

define ‘double deviance’ (in relation to jury decision making)

Answer 104

the tendency to treat women more harshly than men if they violate gender role expectations.

Question 105

define ‘in-group’ (in relation to jury decision making)

Answer 105

any group to which the individual judges themselves as belonging to. According to social identity theory, people are motivated to look favourably on in-group members.

Question 106

define ‘out-group’ (in relation to jury decision making)

Answer 106

any group where the individual judges themselves to belong to a corresponding in-group.

Question 107

who are the Crown Prosecution Service (CPS)?

Answer 107

The CPS is responsible for prosecuting criminal cases investigated by the police and other investigative authorities, in England and Wales.

Question 108

what is an adversarial system?

Answer 108

The adversarial system or adversary system is a legal system used in the common law countries where two advocates represent their parties’ case or position before an impartial person or group of people, usually a judge or jury, who attempt to determine the truth and pass judgment accordingly.

Question 109

what are the three factors/characteristics that influence jury-decision making?

Answer 109

1. gender
women tend to get treated more leniently than men (benevolent sexism)
- Wiest and Duffy (2013) found that, in real criminal cases, women and men tend to be treated differently, with women more likely to be judged guilty of manslaughter and men of murder. However, the treatment of women depended somewhat on how closely they fit the ‘traditional’ female gender role.

2. attractiveness
the more attractive you are, the less likely you are to be prosecuted for an offence (halo effect / attractiveness-leniency effect).
- Castellow et al. (1990) found that, where a man was accused of sexually harassing a woman, that PPs were twice as likely (83%) to convict the defendant when he was unattractive and the complainant was attractive as when the defendant was attractive and the complainant unattractive (41%).

3. ethnicity
if your ethnicity identifies with the juries in-group, you are less likely to be prosecuted.
- Mitchell et al. (2005) did a meta-analysis of studies of the effect of ethnicity on jury verdicts. They found that jurors of various ethnicities were slightly more likely to judge a defendant guilty if they came from one of their ethnic outgroups

Question 110

what is ‘pre-trial publicity’?

Answer 110

information about a criminal case that is known to the jurors before the trial begins. It usually comes from news media, but might also be things like local gossip about the case.

Question 111

what is ‘confirmatory bias’? (in relation to PTP and jury decisions)

Answer 111

the tendency for people to pay more attention to information that is consistent with what they already believe. PTP may cause a juror to process evidence differently according to whether it confirms what they already believed from the PTP.

Question 112

what are source-monitoring errors? (in relation to PTP and jury decisions)

Answer 112

errors people make when attributing the source of their memories. Jurors may not be able to distinguish information they learned from PTP from information they were told in court.

Question 113

how does pre-trial publicity influence jury decisions?

Answer 113

Jurors are expected to decide their verdicts based only on the evidence that is presented in court. The judge usually instructs the jury to ‘put from their mind’ anything else they might have seen or heard about the case.

Psychologists have questioned whether jurors can actually do this. Some crimes attract large amounts of publicity in the form of news reports in newspapers, on TV and on the Internet. This means that jurors may have seen and heard lots about a case before it ever gets to court. If this pre-trial publicity implies that the defendant is guilty or innocent it is possible that jurors will use it when reaching their verdict, even though they have been told to ignore it. The process is similar to the problem with PEI and EWT. The juror is unable to distinguish between what they know from the PTP and what they know from the trial evidence.

Question 114

(AO3) assess/TWE does pre-trial publicity influence jury-decision making?

Answer 114

(S) supporting evidence Padawer-Singer and Barton (1975) found that pps were significantly more likely to convict the defendant in a mock-jury trial if they had first been exposed to newspaper articles that suggested the defendant was guilty.

(W) supporting evidence Ruva & McEvoy (2008) found that exposure to PTP did affect the verdict and the pps’ perceptions of the defendant’s credibility. They also found that pps tended to recall the PTP as being part of the trial evidence, showing that source-monitoring errors are a problem with PTP.

(W) mock-juror trials lack EV/mundane realism therefore, their responses may be biased.

(W) not much of an issue in the UK It is worth knowing that exposure to negative PTP is more of a problem in the US than the UK. The UK has very strict laws about what newspapers can report before the end of a trial. In the US, laws about free speech mean that negative PTP is more frequently published.

Question 115

define ‘practice’ (in relation to the HCPC principles and ethics in forensic psychology)

Answer 115

the use of specialised knowledge in the workplace. In psychology, it generally means using psychology to assess or deliberately change people’s behaviour, as opposed to doing research studies or developing theory (although practitioners may also be doing these things).

Question 116

define ‘fitness to practise’ (in relation to the HCPC principles and ethics in forensic psychology)

Answer 116

having the appropriate skills, knowledge, character, and health to be able to fulfil the professional role. A profession who never updated their training would not be maintaining their fitness to practise.

Question 117

define ‘professional boundaries’ (in relation to the HCPC principles and ethics in forensic psychology)

Answer 117

the lines between what is and is not permissible when working in a professional role with clients. This covers both legal boundaries (i.e. a professional is not supposed to break the law) but also the lines between e.g. work and friendship. For example, a clinical psychologist who started a romantic relationship with a client would be breaking professional boundaries.

Question 118

who are ‘practitioners’ (in relation to the HCPC principles and ethics in forensic psychology)

Answer 118

‘Practitioners’ are psychologists who work directly with clients, assessing and changing their behaviour. Areas of professional practice in psychology are: clinical, forensic, health, educational, sports and occupational psychology.

In order to work under one of these titles, a psychologist must be suitably qualified and registered with the Health and Care Professions Council. Anyone who calls themselves e.g. a forensic psychologist but who is not licensed by the HCPC is committing a criminal offence. Registered practitioners must renew their registration regularly, and keep to a strict code of conduct. If they act unprofessionally, they may be disciplined by the HCPC. If found guilty, they could be required to retrain, or be suspended or barred from practice.

Question 119

what is the HCPC code of Practise for Psychologists?

Answer 119

1. be able to practise safely and effectively within their scope of practice
2. be able to practise within the legal and ethical boundaries of their profession
3. be able to maintain fitness to practise
4. be able to practise as an autonomous professional, exercising their own professional judgement
5. be aware of the impact of culture, equality and diversity on practice
6. be able to practise in a non-discriminatory manner
7. understand the importance of and be able to maintain confidentiality
8. be able to communicate effectively
9. be able to work appropriately with others
10. be able to maintain records appropriately
11. be able to reflect on and review practice
12. be able to assure the quality of their practice
13. understand the key concepts of the knowledge base
    relevant to their profession
14. be able to draw on appropriate knowledge and skills to inform practice
15. understand the need to establish and maintain a safe practice environment

Question 120

what are the BPS guidelines?

Answer 120

1. respect
- individual differences
- privacy
- confidentiality
- informed consent

2. competence
- training & expertise
- self-monitoring & reflection

3. responsibility
- foreseeing and avoiding harm (risk management)

4. integrity
- boundaries
- honesty
- acting on misconduct

Question 121

summarise psychological formulation

Answer 121

Once a person has been convicted of a crime, a forensic psychologist may be involved in what happens next. The role of the forensic psychologist is to assess the offender. They are interested in: (1) what are the reasons for their offending? (2) how much risk does the offender present to others? and (3) what can be done to reduce their risk of further offending?

Offence analysis is the process of understanding why the offender committed their crimes. It typically involves identifying the conditions under which offending occurs (e.g. time, location, environmental cues) and the cognitive/emotional processes that underpin offending (e.g. pro-crime attitudes). Case formulation involves using the offence analysis to come up with a set of ways to manage and reduce the offender’s risk of further criminality. This could involve treatments to change pro-criminal thinking, interventions for drug addiction, or possibly education/training that help the offender adopt a more legitimate lifestyle.

Question 122

define ‘psychological formulation’

Answer 122

a structured approach to identifying the factors underlying (e.g.) persistent criminal behaviour which leads to an understanding of the changes needed and the mechanisms/treatments required to bring about change.

Question 123

define ‘functional analysis’ (in relation to psychological formulation)

Answer 123

a process of understanding offending by looking for the function/purpose that offending serves for the offender.

Question 124

define ‘offence analysis’ (in relation to psychological formulation)

Answer 124

a process of assessing an offender in order to identify the internal and external factors that support and trigger offending.

Question 125

define ‘offence cycles’ (in relation to psychological formulation)

Answer 125

when the offence is repeated.

Question 126

is there a difference between ‘case’ and ‘psychological’ formulation?

Answer 126

no they are both the same and used interchangeably

Question 127

what things are included in case formulation?

Answer 127

assessment of individual characteristics
forensic psychologists begin by assessing the individual’s psychological and emotional makeup. This involves examining factors such as personality traits, cognitive functioning, and any underlying mental health disorders. By understanding these individual characteristics, psychologists can identify potential predispositions that may influence criminal behaviour.

examination of developmental history
Psychological formulation also involves delving into the individual’s developmental history. This includes exploring childhood experiences, family dynamics, and significant life events that may have shaped their offending tendencies. Early life experiences can have a profound impact on personality development and may offer insights into maladaptive coping mechanisms or trauma that contribute to criminal behaviour.

analysis of social and environmental factors
Forensic psychologists consider the broader social and environmental context in which an individual operates. There may be specific environmental influences that trigger or support offending like the individual’s peer group, or situations in which offences are more likely.

evaluation of motivations and intentions
Unravelling the motives behind criminal behaviour is a central aspect of psychological formulation. Forensic psychologists seek to identify the underlying motivations and intentions that drive an individual to commit a crime. This involves analysing factors such as personal gain, revenge, psychological distress, or a combination of complex psychological factors.

risk assessment and future predictions
Psychological formulation often involves conducting risk assessments, evaluating the likelihood of an individual engaging in future criminal conduct. By considering the interplay of various psychological factors, psychologists can provide valuable insights into potential reoffending risks. This can help legal professionals and prison/probation personnel make informed decisions about sentencing, parole, and rehabilitation.

Question 128

how is offence analysis determined?

Answer 128

police evidence

court records

forensic interviews and observations

Question 129

what is ‘risks-needs-responsivity’ in relation to psychological formulation?

Answer 129

Risks-Needs-Responsivity (RNR) model of case formulation - an approach to case formulation based around the assessment of the offender’s risk level, an identification of the needs he has (in relation to offending) and the choosing of the treatment options most likely to work.

Question 130

what is the ‘good lives model’ in relation to psychological formulation?

Answer 130

of case formulation - an approach to case formulation based around the assumption that crime is a maladaptive way for the person to meet their psychological needs, and helping them pursue positive goals in a pro-social way.

Question 131

(AO3) evaluation of psychological formulation

Answer 131

(S) psychological case formulation goes beyond diagnosis a strength is that case formulation goes beyond diagnosis. diagnosis focuses on mental health disorders and treats them in a general way (e.g. medication or psychotherapy). formulation is more personal, even if it does include diagnosis, it takes a more holisitc approach and acts as a plan tailored to the individual.

(S) supportive evidence/application value Whitehead et al. (2007) report a case study/case formulation of ‘Mr C’, who had a long criminal record. They relate his offending to his adverse childhood experiences of violence and sexual abuse within and outside the family. They formulated his case using the GLM, helping him identify positive goals in life: forming productive friendships and helping others. In prison, Mr C completed 100 hours of cognitive-behavioural therapy to change his criminal thinking patterns. After his release, he was fairly successful at avoiding further offending. When he did lapse, he used his ‘safety plan’ to ensure that he did not re-engage with his criminal friends, and instead sought support from people who would help him.

(W) issues with reliability/validity psychological formulation relies on the information given to the psychologist there and then. other things may happen to change with formulation (e.g. if the offender is in prison, being in a different environment may increase their risk of re-offending). a formulation needs to be flexible, yet this raises issues about its validity/reliability.

(W) subject to interpretation in case formulation Connell (2015) reports a case study/case formulation of ‘Connor’, a repeat offender with a heroin and alcohol problem. Connell used functional analysis to show that Connor had learned that drug use served to protect him from the feelings of shame and rejection he felt from his foster parents when he was unable to find a job. The aim of the case formulation was to help Connor find and keep a job when he was released from prison, as this would help him avoid further offending. Connell does not report whether Connor was successful in avoiding crime after release. Rather, she discusses how the use of functional analysis gives us an insight into the history of Connor’s persistent offending.

• there is a lot of interpretation of the information/data given and this is subjective depending on the psychologist.

Question 132

what is the biological treatment for offenders?

Answer 132

A biological view of offending assumes that biological factors contribute to a person’s crimes. It follows from this that changing the person on a biological level may reduce their risk of reoffending. It has been suggested that some sexual offending originates in the person’s sexual drives, which have developed in harmful ways. Therefore, some sexual offenders are offered (or required to take) drugs which reduce their sexual drives, which may then reduce their tendency to offend. Two types of drug used for this purpose are androgen antagonists and GnRH agonists. Both drugs work by reducing the effect of sex hormones like testosterone on the brain. There is evidence that these drugs can help sex-offenders avoid reoffending, but not on their own; they need to be used with other treatment approaches.

Question 133

what is drug treatment? (when used to treat offenders)

Answer 133

a chemical deliberately ingested in order to alter the functioning of the body. In psychology, most drugs of interest act on the nervous system to alter some aspect of thinking, feeling or behaviour.

Question 134

what is an anti-androgen (AA)? (when used to treat offenders)

Answer 134

a drug that reduces sexual drives by blocking the activity of male sex hormones like testosterone on the nervous system.

Question 135

what is gonadotrophin releasing hormone agonists (GnRHA)? (when used to treat offenders)

Answer 135

a drug that reduces sexual drives by causing GnRH levels to rise. GnRH stimulates the release of other sex hormones. However, GnRH agonists cause GnRH to increase so much that the hormone becomes depleted and the both cannot release any more. After this point, GnRH levels drop off sharply, and so lower levels of other sex hormones are released.

Question 136

what is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)? (when used to treat offenders)

Answer 136

an antidepressant drug that works by blocking the reuptake of serotonin by presynaptic terminals. This causes the levels of serotonin in the synapses to increase. SSRIs have been used with sex offenders.

Question 137

assumptions of biological treatments for offending

Answer 137

• sexual drives motivate offending
• reduced sexual drive = reduced risk

Question 138

define ‘paedophilia’

Answer 138

when someone experiences an abnormal or unnatural attraction towards children.

Question 139

define ‘paraphilia’

Answer 139

refers to abnormal sexual drives that tend to involve dangerous activities and intense sexual arousal to atypical situations or individuals.

Question 140

(AO3) evaluation of hormone/biological treatment for offenders

Answer 140

(S) supporting evidence Lievesley et al. (2014) did a thematic analysis on semi-structured interviews with 13 male sex offenders receiving drug treatment. They found that, as treatment went on, there was a reduction in sexual content in the offenders’ interviews. The offenders reported that a reduction in their own sexual preoccupations had allowed them ‘breathing space’ to think more clearly about their offending and its impact on their victims.

(S) effectiveness Winder et al. (2018) measured the responses of sex offenders to SSRIs (an antidepressant) and AA (a hormone suppressant). Over six months, levels of sexual thoughts, feelings and behaviour fell significantly. The change occurred faster in the group receiving AAs. but both groups ended up at about the same level.

(W) hormone treatment can be expensive and hard to administer/supervise.

(W) side effects like mood swigs, weight changes,

Question 141

what is cognitive-behavioural therapy/CBT for offenders? (short definition)

Answer 141

an approach to changing people that aims to alter how they think by altering how they act. CBT is used with offenders and also in clinical psychology.

Question 142

overview of CBT for offenders

Answer 142

Cognitive behavioural treatments for offending aim to change the offender’s thinking processes. Offenders may have schemas that e.g. cause them to interpret others’ behaviour as threat or provocation, or which justify offending (e.g. ‘the victims deserve it’). CBT aims to help the offender recognise these thinking patterns and then choose alternative ways of thinking and acting. The underlying assumption is that by helping the offender change their behaviour, they will learn to change their thinking. CBT uses education, reflection, and behavioural exercises (e.g. role play). It is often used in prisons or with offenders on probation. It can be used individually or with groups. A leading form of CBT is anger management training, which is used with violent offenders. It involves (1) learning to recognise the signs of anger; (2) learning skills to avoid anger and violence; and (3) practising in a safe environment.

Question 143

summarise the steps of anger-management training (AMT)

Answer 143

a CBT for violent offending. It is based on the idea that violent offenders (1) interpret the behaviour of others as a threat or provocation; (2) don’t recognise their own anger and the role it plays in their offending; and (3) lack the skills to control their own anger and deal with difficult situations in a nonviolent way. AMT has three phases: (1) cognitive preparation; (2) skills acquisition; (3) application practice.

Question 144

what does anger-management training (AMT) aim to achieve?

Answer 144

Anger management training is a therapeutic approach commonly employed with offenders to address issues related to uncontrolled anger and aggressive behaviour. This form of intervention aims to help individuals understand and manage their anger more effectively, ultimately reducing the likelihood of future aggressive incidents.

Question 145

assumptions of the cognitive model of anger and violence (novaco, 2011)

Answer 145

The cognitive model of anger and violence (Novaco, 2011) assumes that violent actions are caused by feelings of anger, an emotional response. Anger happens when the individual appraises an event as either a threat or provocation by another person. What matters here is that the event is not what causes the anger but rather the way the individual makes sense of the event. For example, Jim is standing in a crowd at the bus stop, waiting for a bus. Someone treads on his foot. This is the stimulus (event). What happens next depends on how Jim appraises the stimulus. If he perceives it as accidental, perhaps due to the crowding, Jim is unlikely to respond much because he isn’t angry at the person who trod on his foot. He will probably say nothing, just try to move away. On the other hand, if Jim perceives that the other person trod on his foot deliberately, then Jim is likely to become angry.

Question 146

what are the stages of anger and violent offending (according to novaco, 2011)

Answer 146

1. stimulus an event which triggers an emotional or negative response.

2. cognitive appraisal anger then happens if the individual appraises an event as a threat or provocation by another person.

3. anger

4.
justificatory schemas
the individual activates their justificatory schemas, which tell them that it is OK to respond to the provocation with aggressive acts of their own.

disrupted appraisal
individual’s ability to re-appraise the situation (e.g. by thinking it is okay and the incident was accidental) is reduced.

reduced inhibitions
similarly, the individual’s inhibitory control decreases and they may lash out.

Question 147

how does anger management target the different stages of anger?

Answer 147

1. changes the schemas used to appraise situations so that the individual is less likely to become angry
2. changing te justifactory schemas that the person uses when angry, telling them it is OK to act violently.
3. giving jim skills to interrupt the escalating cycle of anger, calm himself down and rethink the situation in a less angry way.

Question 148

what happens during AMT?

Answer 148

AMT is usually given as a group intervention, with between 20-40 hours of therapy. It is organised into three phases: (1) cognitive preparation; (2) skills acquisition; and (3) application practice. These phases overlap and the trainer and clients will switch back and forth between them.

Question 149

what are the 3 main phases of AMT?

Answer 149

1. cognitive preparation in this phase, the client is taught about how anger works and learns how to understand their own cognition that lead to anger.

2. skills acquisition
in this phase, the client learns ways to change their cognitions and control their reactions so they are less likely to become angry and more able to deal with their anger without violence.

Question 150

what happens during the cognitive preparation stage of AMT?

Answer 150

this is the first stage of the therapy, and is when the client is learning about how anger works and being able to understand their own cognitions that lead to anger.

Identification of Automatic Thoughts:
In the cognitive model, individuals are taught to recognize automatic thoughts—spontaneous, often subconscious cognitions that arise in response to specific situations. These automatic thoughts can significantly influence emotional reactions, including anger. Offenders undergoing anger management training learn to identify and analyse these automatic thoughts, particularly those that contribute to heightened anger.

Recognising Cognitive Distortions:
The cognitive model emphasises the presence of cognitive distortions—irrational and biased ways of thinking that can contribute to negative emotions. Offenders explore common cognitive distortions related to anger, such as overgeneralization, magnification, and personalization. Addressing these distortions is a key aspect of cognitive restructuring within anger management programs.

Question 151

what happens during the skills acquisition stage of AMT?

Answer 151

this is the second phase of the therapy and focuses on the client learning ways to change their cognitions and control their reactions so they are less likely to become angry and more able to deal with their anger without violence. this includes:

Challenging and Restructuring Thoughts:
A central component of anger management training is the process of challenging and restructuring maladaptive thoughts. Offenders work with therapists or facilitators to examine the evidence supporting and contradicting their automatic thoughts. By introducing more balanced and realistic perspectives, individuals can alter their cognitive patterns, leading to a reduction in anger and aggressive reactions.

Understanding Triggers and Beliefs:
The cognitive model also explores the interplay between specific triggers and core beliefs that contribute to anger. Offenders learn to identify the situations, events, or perceptions that evoke anger and examine the underlying beliefs associated with these triggers. This understanding is crucial for developing targeted coping strategies.

Coping Skills Development:
Cognitive-behavioural interventions within anger management training focus on teaching practical coping skills. These skills may include problem-solving techniques, effective communication strategies, and the ability to reframe negative thoughts. By acquiring these skills, individuals enhance their capacity to respond to anger-inducing situations in a more adaptive and controlled manner.

Emotional Regulation:
The cognitive model recognizes the role of thought processes in emotional regulation. Offenders learn to regulate their emotions by modifying thought patterns and adopting healthier perspectives. This process involves developing self-awareness and emotional intelligence to better understand, express, and manage emotions like anger.

Question 152

(AO3) evaluating CBT as a treatment for offending

Answer 152

(S) cost-benefit-analysis Aos et al. (2006) reviewed reoffending rates among 1500 offenders receiving Anger Replacement Therapy (another CBT). They found a 24% reduction in reoffending compared with offenders who had no therapy. They estimated that every $1 spent on ART led to $11.66 in savings to the victims of crime and the government. this shows that the therapy is effective at reducing reoffending and crime rates, as well as being cost-effective.

(S) acceptability CBT may be a more socially desirable/acceptable form of rehabilitation for offenders. therapy is personal and uniquely tailored to the individual, this is useful because it makes the individual feel important and valued. developing a good relationship with the offender and implementing good coping strategies is useful in reducing re-offending rates.

(W) contradictory evidence Howells et al. (2005) evaluated the effectiveness of AMT in male violent offenders in an Australian prison. The treatment group received 20 hours of AMT over 10 sessions. The control group were on a waiting list for treatment. A range of self-report measures were used to assess the impact of AMT on understanding of anger, angry thoughts and feelings and aggressive behaviour. Overall, the study did not find that AMT had much impact. Howells et al. concluded that AMT in their study had limited effectiveness because (1) the programme was too short; (2) many participants had limited motivation to change; (3) lots of the offenders had multiple problems, like drug dependency; and (4) AMT may only work with a specific subgroup of offenders.

(W) reliability/validity CBT is reliant on self-report data. this may pose issues of reliability and validity as the offender may lie about their true emotions/feelings to appear more socially desirable or display demand charcateristics. this is a problem because it creates bias, which reduces the reliability of the session and consequently, the validity.

Question 153

contemporary study howells et al. (2005)

Answer 153

AIMS
- To see whether anger management is more effective in producing change than no treatment
- To see if pre-treatment offender characteristics can predict any improvement in treatment

SAMPLE
- 418 Australian male offenders
- Sentences ranging from 1 month to 26 years
- Mean age of 28.8 years
- 42% committed violence without bodily harm
- 6% committed injuries causing death.
-73% of PP’s had never completed an anger management programme before.

IV anger management vs. no anger management
DV the effectiveness and progress of the programme

list 3 examples of questionnaires they used 1) STAXI
- How the offender’s anger is expressed
2) WAKS
- Understanding of how to deal with their anger
3) STRS
- Treatment readiness

PROCEDURE
1. 418 male Australian offenders were put on an anger management programme 73% of which had never been on one before
2. The AM programme lasted 10, two hour sessions that were focused on the cognitive approach
3. It was based on Norace (1997) with structured exercises looking at skills of identifying provoking situations, relaxation, assertion, prevention of relapse and restructuring
4. During this time some ppts completed a checklist of the content covered
5. Ppts in experimental and control answered 6 different questionnaires through self-report (such as WAKS to measure understanding of how to deal with anger and STRS to measure treatment readiness)
6. Those in the control group were put on the waiting list received treatment after the study

RESULTS
- There was no statistically significant differences between pre-treatment and post-treatment however those who were motivated to change improved the most
- Treatment group improved by 1.5 in controlling their anger compared to 0.5 increase for control

CONCLUSIONS
- The overall impact of the anger management programme was small
- Offenders who were motivated to change showed greatest improvements and those who were poorly motivated showed less or no change

Question 154

(AO3) evaluation of contemporary study howells et al. (2005)