. Flashcards

(78 cards)

1
Q

How many pairs of pharyngeal (branchial) outpouchings are present during embryological development?

A

5

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2
Q

Which anatomical structure contains the superior, middle, and inferior constrictors?

A

Pharynx

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3
Q

The superior, middle, and inferior pharyngeal constrictors are derived from which branchial arch?

A

3rd-4th

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4
Q

The mandible is derived from which branchial arch?

A

1st

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5
Q

The lateral outpouchings of the foregut in the region of the primitive pharynx are called:

A

Pharyngeal pouch

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6
Q

The first pharyngeal pouch initially becomes elongated and is then incorporated into the temporal bone to form the epithelial lining of the:

A

Middle ear

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7
Q

The thymus develops from which pharyngeal pouch?

A

3rd

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8
Q

The 4th to 5th pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the:

A

Superior parathyroid

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9
Q

The precursor of ____ forms a ventral diverticulum of endodermal tissue on the floor of the pharynx between the 1st and 2nd arches. It can also be found between the tuberculum impar and copula.

A

C. Thyroid gland

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10
Q

The persistence of a connection between the thyroid diverticulum and the floor of the pharynx gives rise to:

A

B. Thyroglossal duct cyst

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11
Q

The duct of the submandibular gland that opens on either side of the tongue frenulum is called:

A

B. Wharton’s duct

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12
Q

Continually but slowly growing palatal bone and horizontal process in the midline of the mandible is called:

A

C. Torus mandibularis

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13
Q

Papillae that function as licking elements and receptors of texture and pressure sensations are called:

A

A. Filiform papillae

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14
Q

Papillae identified as little round smooth nibs found in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and functioning as taste buds for salty and sweet foods are called:

A

B. Fungiform papillae

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15
Q

V-shaped papillae located near the sulcus terminalis of the tongue are called:

A

C. Vallate papillae

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16
Q

Papillae located in the posterolateral part of the tongue are called:

A

D. Foliate papillae

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17
Q

The anterior pillar of the oropharynx is formed by which muscle?

A

B. Palatoglossus

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18
Q

Bony overgrowth that causes difficulty in wearing dentures is called:

A

C. Torus mandibularis

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19
Q

Papillae responsible for taste function are:

A

B. Fungiform papillae

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20
Q

Papillae responsible for licking function are called:

A

A. Filiform papillae

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21
Q

The space that lies between the teeth and lips is called the:

A

B. Vestibule

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22
Q

The muscle that lies underneath the floor of the mouth is the:

A

B. Mylohyoid

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23
Q

The muscle that protrudes the tip and depresses the tongue is called the:

A

B. Genioglossus

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24
Q

The motor nerve fiber supply to the tongue is provided by:

A

D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)

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25
The muscle that elevates the soft palate is called:
A. Levator veli palatini
26
Which of the following is NOT part of the nasopharynx?
D. Palatine tonsil
27
The superior interdigitation of the superior constrictor muscle is called:
A. Passavant’s ridge
28
The palatoglossus muscle represents the posterior border of the oral cavity.
A. True
29
The genioglossus muscle depresses the tongue as a whole.
A. True
30
Crenated tongue is the result of compression of the tongue adjacent to the teeth.
A. True
31
The hypopharynx is related to structures including the epiglottis and esophagus.
A. True
32
Foliate papillae are parallel mucosal folds located in the most anterior lateral aspect of the tongue.
B. False
33
The nasopharynx is the area above and posterior to the hard palate, communicating with the choanae and Eustachian tube.
A. True
34
The innervation of the papillae that divides the anterior ⅔ and posterior ⅓ of the tongue is provided by Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal).
A. True
35
Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by multiple telangiectatic lesions in the skin and mucosa.
A. True
36
Synonyms for fissured tongue include plicated tongue and scrotal tongue.
A. True
37
Whitish lesions in children are considered normal. Histological examination shows hyperplastic epithelial growth, which is not considered malignant.
A. True
38
Geographic tongue appears as raised red areas with no filiform papillae.
A. True
39
Crenated tongue is produced by dental pressure and indentation of the marginal tongue.
A. True
40
Black hairy leukoplakia is caused by pigmented hypertrophy of the filiform papillae.
A. True
41
Lingual tonsils are subepithelial conglomerations of lymphoid tissue situated in the posterior oropharyngeal aspect of the tongue, which hypertrophy during puberty or post-tonsillectomy.
A. True
42
Lingual linea alba is a white linear area of keratinization in the lateral aspect of the tongue formed by friction and molding of the most lateral aspect of the tongue.
A. True
43
Fordyce spots are large tubulovesicular sebaceous glands commonly present in the lips.
A. True
44
Stomatitis nicotina presents as grayish-white lesions that are thickened and umbilicated.
A. True
45
Epulis fissuratum is a sessile inflammatory lesion of the maxillary alveolar edge, which is seen as a product of chronic dental trauma.
A. True
46
Leukoplakia are white lesions seen in the oral cavity with 5 to 10% malignant potential.
A. True
47
Lichen planus is an immunologic disorder with lymphocyte infiltration in the basal layer of the epithelium.
A. True
48
Aphthous stomatitis is a painful and debilitating oral mucosal ulceration that usually heals within 10-14 days.
A. True
49
Inflammation of the salivary ejector in Wharton’s duct results in cessation of saliva flow into the oral cavity and retention of saliva in the involved gland.
A. True
50
Sialolithiasis may cause retention of saliva and secondary infection of the gland.
A. True
51
Peritonsillar abscess causes the bulging of the anterior pillar and soft palate with deviation and edema of the uvula.
A. True
52
Ranula are obstructions of the ducts or canaliculi of exocrine glands seen in the sublingual gland.
A. True
53
The sensation of pain, touch, and temperature is transmitted by the lingual nerve, and the motor function of the tongue is innervated by the lingual nerve to the chorda tympani.
B. False
54
Periodontitis is a chronic degenerative destruction of the periodontal structure.
A. True
55
Erythema multiforme are rapidly progressive lesions that contain a necrotizing center.
B. False
56
Sjogren’s syndrome is characterized by parotid gland swelling with associated keratoconjunctivitis and xerostomia.
A. True
57
Herpes simplex is a vesicular eruption with a dermatomal distribution.
A. True
58
Candida is part of normal flora but can become opportunistic.
A. True
59
Squamous cell carcinoma comprises 80% of upper aerodigestive cancers.
A. True
60
The frenulum is located anteroinferiorly and connects to the floor of the mouth and gingiva.
A. True
61
Pott’s disease primarily affects which space in the neck?
B. Prevertebral space
62
Which structures are enclosed in the middle deep cervical fascia?
D. All of the above
63
The superficial cervical fascia contains which of the following?
D. All of the above
64
The deep cervical layer consists of which structure?
D. All of the above
65
The parapharyngeal space is a potential space shaped like:
C. An inverted pyramid
66
The masticator space extends from the angle of the mandible superiorly to the skull base and over which muscle?
A. Temporalis muscle
67
The canine space is the potential space between which two muscles?
A. Levator anguli oris and levator labii superioris
68
The mental space is a potential space for the spread of abscesses from which location?
B. Teeth
69
Which of the following are borders of the posterior triangle of the neck?
D. All of the above
70
Which structure can become secondarily involved with any deep neck space infection by direct spread?
C. Carotid sheath
71
What are the complications of deep neck infections?
D. AOTA (All of the above)
72
Does the superficial cervical fascia (SCF) include the Superficial Musculoaponeurotic System (SMAS) that extends from the epicranium to the axilla and chest?
A. True
73
What structures compose the deep cervical fascia superficial layer?
E. All of the above ## Footnote Structures include Sternocleidomastoid (SCM), Trapezius, Parotid, and Posterior triangle structures.
74
What divisions compose the deep cervical fascia middle layer?
C. Both A and B ## Footnote A. Muscular division (Infrahyoid strap muscles) and B. Visceral division (Pharynx, Larynx, Esophagus, Thyroid).
75
What are the amplifiers and modifiers of the immune system?
D. All of the above ## Footnote Includes Antigen-presenting cells (APCs), Interleukins, and Interferons.
76
Which characteristic of the immune system pertains to an amplified response to a second exposure?
B. Memory
77
What are the boundaries of the peritonsillar space?
Medially: Capsule of the palatine tonsil, Laterally: Superior pharyngeal constrictor, Superiorly: Anterior tonsillar pillar, Inferiorly: Posterior tonsillar pillar.
78
What are the typical presentations of a retropharyngeal abscess?
F. All of the above ## Footnote Includes Dysphagia, Difficulty breathing (DOB), Stridor, Croupy cough, and Torticollis.