.

Question 1

Which of the following is required for a supervisor or staff sergeant with respect to the
organizational competency of “Our Mindset” ?
a. I weigh the pros and cons of alternatives, and select the best solution or course of
action.
b. I actively look for opportunities to engage positively with the communities and
members we serve.
c. I identify potential opportunities or problems and suggest solutions.
d. I act on, acknowledge, and support ideas from others.
e. I look at the whole picture to understand and consider other possible implications.

Answer 1

d. I act on, acknowledge, and support ideas from others.

Question 2

Which of the following is not a symptom of excited delirium ?

a. Shouting.
b. Disorientation.
c. Convulsions
d. Acute onset of paranoia.
e. Impaired thinking.

Answer 2

c. Convulsions

Question 3

With respect to Service Procedure 01-02 – Appendix B (Risk Assessment – Level of
Search), and specifically Level 3 searches, which of the following factors is not
representative of the heightened safety concerns common to all persons held for a Show
Cause hearing:

a. Lodged in a cell and awaiting transportation.

b. The duty to protect prisoners while in custody and their expectation that while in
custody their safety is not compromised.

c. Unsupervised while being transported in a prisoner transportation wagon.

2
d. Transportation, lodging, escorting of prisoner at court conducted by unarmed
court officers.

e. The demeanor or emotional state of the individual.

Answer 3

e. The demeanor or emotional state of the individual.

Question 4

With respect to Service Procedure 01-03 (Persons in Custody), when it is determined that
a person with a disability cannot be accommodated while in custody, members must:

a. Notify the Officer in Charge.
b. Ensure the prisoner is placed in a cell by themselves.

c. Clearly articulate the reasons for the determination in their memorandum book
including all accommodation options considered.

d. Ensure that any infringement of a persons right to be accommodated is minimal in
nature.

e. Consider all available accommodation options.

Answer 4

c. Clearly articulate the reasons for the determination in their memorandum book
including all accommodation options considered.

Question 5

According to the article Seven Signposts – The drive to be a leader, which of the
following statements is correct:
a. Most mid-level managers wish to move into more challenging roles.
b. People with less leadership potential tend to gravitate towards administrative work.

c. Leaders with the energy and resilience needed to thrive don’t always align with
assigned work.

d. People with leadership potential find the role of a leader interesting and the work of
leading motivating and fun.

e. People with high leadership potential cite the perks of the role (title, pay, prestige) as
a primary driver.

Answer 5

d. People with leadership potential find the role of a leader interesting and the work of
leading motivating and fun.

Question 6

Which of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal syndrome:
a. Impaired thinking.

b. Seizures.
c. Delerium tremens (DTs);
d. Obstructive Sleep Apnea.
e. Unsteadiness

Answer 6

c. Delerium tremens (DTs);

Question 7

According to Service Procedure 01-08 (Criminal Code Release), Appendix D
(Undertaking Given to an Officer in Charge), the Officer in charge upon deciding that it
is appropriate to compel a person to enter into conditions on a Form 11.1 shall:

a) Ensure a copy of the applicable release form and a copy of the Form 11.1 are sent
by TPS eFax forthwith to Records Management Services – Operations and the
Bail & Enforcement Unit forthwith if including a reporting condition to Bail and
Parole.

b) Ensure a copy of the applicable release form and a copy of the Form 11.1 are
delivered to the divisional Detective Sergeant.

c) Ensure a copy of the applicable release form and a copy of the Form 11.1 are sent
by TPS eFax forthwith to the Inquiry Desk - CPIC.

d) Ensure the person signs all copies of the Form 11.1
e) Release the person by way of a Form 10 or POA 134 as appropriate.

Answer 7

a) Ensure a copy of the applicable release form and a copy of the Form 11.1 are sent
by TPS eFax forthwith to Records Management Services – Operations and the
Bail & Enforcement Unit forthwith if including a reporting condition to Bail and
Parole.

Question 8

With respect to Service Procedure 02-19 (Report to a Justice/Order for Continued
Detention), and specifically the retention of found property, the guideline for
retention of a found bike is:
a. 30 days.
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. One month
e. 10 business days.

Answer 8

a. 30 days.

Question 9

With respect to Service Procedure 04-02 (Death Investigations), which of the following
statements is incorrect:
a. A supervisory officer when dealing with the sudden unexpected death, apparent
suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death
or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present, shall ensure the
attendance of a divisional detective.

b. The Officer in Charge when notified of an unnatural sudden death
involving a foreign national, shall ensure that a copy of the report is
forwarded by facsimile to the Unit Commander - Intelligence Division -
International Assistance.

c. A supervisor officer upon receiving a request for notification of next of
kin outside the jurisdiction of the Service shall if the initial contact is by
telephone, follow with a CPIC message or e-mail.

d. A divisional detective when the deceased cannot be readily identified shall
consider the use of the FIS Forensic Artist to complete a reconstructed
image for a media release.

e. The Officer in Charge when notified of an unnatural sudden death shall ensure
detective personnel attend the scene.

Answer 9

b. The Officer in Charge when notified of an unnatural sudden death
involving a foreign national, shall ensure that a copy of the report is
forwarded by facsimile to the Unit Commander - Intelligence Division -
International Assistance.

Question 10

According to Service Procedure 04-15 (Regulated Interactions), absent exigent
circumstances, who has been designated by the Chief of Police as the designate
authorized to approve access to restricted records ?
a. The Staff Superintendent – Corporate Risk Management.
b. The Director – Records Management Systems.
c. A Deputy Chief of Police.
d. The Deputy Chief – Community Safety Command.
e. The Director – Legal Services

Answer 10

c. A Deputy Chief of Police.

Question 11

With respect to Service Procedure 04-18 (Crime and Disorder Management), which of
the following is the responsibility of the Officer in Charge:
a. Report in writing to the Unit Commander on the results of any Crime
Management Initiative.
b. Ensure that both local and service-wide crime prevention initiatives are
brought to the attention of all members.

c. Ensure the use of directed patrol, targeted enforcement and other initiatives to
respond to high crime or high occurrence locations and serial occurrences.

d. Promote and implement crime management initiatives to respond to identified
crime, public disorder and road safety problems, including repeat calls for
service and repeat victimization.

e. Encourage officers to document the intelligence information on crimes, active
criminals, and disorder issues in the applicable eReports.

Answer 11

a. Report in writing to the Unit Commander on the results of any Crime

Question 12

With respect to Service Procedure 04-18, Appendix A (Guidelines for Divisional Crime
Management), which of the following is a key step in establishing the Crime
Management Process:
a. Long-term operational planning to set priorities for the division.
b. Short-term/daily strategic planning and measurement to establish direction as
required.

c. Focused operational debriefing of all prisoners.
d. Integrated role for Divisional CPLC’s.
e. Project co-ordination and integration.

Answer 12

d. Integrated role for Divisional CPLC’s.

Question 13

With respect to Service Procedure 04-18 (Crime and Disorder Management), and
specifically Appendix D (Divisional Deployment), which of the following is a
responsibility of the Major Crime component of Detective Operations:
a. Street robberies.
b. Break and enters.
c. Shootings and investigations relating to the use of firearms.
d. Street level drugs.
e. Youth gang investigations.

Answer 13

d. Street level drugs.

Question 14

With respect to Service Procedure 04-35 (Source Management - Confidential Source),
which of the following is not a primary concern that shall be considered by all officers
when establishing a relationship with a source:
a. The administration of justice.
b. Public safety.
c. The age of the source.
d. Safety of the source.
e. Corporate liability.

Answer 14

c. The age of the source.

Question 15

According to Service Procedure 05-04 (Domestic Violence), which of the following is
the responsibility of a supervisory officer when notified of domestic violence or a
domestic incident:
a. Attend the scene for all domestic violence calls.
b. Document the circumstances in the memorandum book, including if no
arrest was made, why no arrest was made/charge laid, when applicable.
c. Ensure the victim and dependents are offered the assistance of Victim
Services and other community agencies.
d. Advise the OIC of all the circumstances.
e. Ensure that the victim and dependents are offered the assistance of Victim
Services Toronto and other community agencies.

Answer 15

a. Attend the scene for all domestic violence calls.

Question 16

A fourteen (14) year old male has been sexually assaulted. Which of the following
Sexual Assault Care Centres is an appropriate facility to take the child to for examination
and treatment related to the sexual assault:
a. The Hospital for Sick Children.
b. The Scarborough Hospital (Birchmount Campus).
c. Trillium Health Care Centre - Mississauga.
d. Womens College Hospital.
e. All of the above.

Answer 16

e. All of the above.

Question 17

A team comprised of a police officer and Children’s Aid Society social worker interview
a child at school in relation to sexual abuse suspected of taking place in the home,
without first notifying the parents of the child. According to Service Procedure 05-06
(Child Abuse), the parents of the child shall be informed of the interview:
a. forthwith.
b. as soon as practicable.
c. as soon as reasonably possible.
d. immediately, except during the stages of the initial investigation where
police or child care protection worker(s) need access to the child at school
or child care setting as a continuation of the investigation process.
e. When it is determined that there is no immediate risk to the child or when
the child will be apprehended as a child in need of protection under the
Child and Family Services Act.

Answer 17

c. as soon as reasonably possible.

Question 18

According to Service Procedure 05-16 (Hate/Bias Crimes), the supervisory officer upon
being notified of an incident suspected to be a hate/bias crime shall advise the
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of all the relevant facts.
a. Supervisory officer - TPOC.
b. Duty Inspector – Duty Desk.
c. Officer in Charge.
d. Divisional Detective Sergeant.
e. Hate Crime Coordinator.

Answer 18

c. Officer in Charge.

Question 19

With respect to Service Procedure 05-26 (Child Abductions), which of the following is a
duty of the Officer in Charge upon being notified of a possible child abduction:
a. Notify all divisional personnel.
b. Consult with the investigating officer to determine if an AMBER Alert
should be initiated.
c. Ensure a bulletin is published on Pushpin.
d. Coordinate the divisional response in conjunction with the case manager.
e. Ensure the assistance of INT, Covert OPS – SMS, or Specialized Criminal
Investigations – Homicide is requested, where appropriate.

Answer 19

a. Notify all divisional personnel.

Question 20

With respect to Service Procedure 06-04 (Emotionally Disturbed Persons), when a police
officer is not apprehending a suspected EDP under the MHA who is 16 years of age, and
the MCIT is unavailable, the officer shall:
a. Complete the applicable eReports.
b. Determine if this is a child in need of protection under the Child and
Family Services Act.
c. Notify the next of kin or public trustee, if necessary.
d. Contact the Community Referral Police Access Line for support.
e. Ensure the person is offered Victim Services.

Answer 20

d. Contact the Community Referral Police Access Line for support.

Question 21

According to Procedure 07-05 (Service Vehicle Collisions), which of the following is the
responsibility of the supervisory officer:
a. Ensure a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport has been sent to FLT.

b. When detailed to attend a reportable or non-reportable SVC that has occurred
outside the city of Toronto, obtain a copy of the collision report from the
investigating officer.

c. When in receipt of a SVCR shall review for completeness, accuracy, and
investigative integrity and submit to the Unit Commander prior to reporting off
duty.

d. Notify the Officer in Charge – TPOC.
e. Ensure the SLRD401 is forwarded to the Ministry of Transportation within ten
(10) days of the vehicle collision.

Answer 21

b. When detailed to attend a reportable or non-reportable SVC that has occurred
outside the city of Toronto, obtain a copy of the collision report from the
investigating officer.

Question 22

According to Service Procedure 08-01 (Employee and Family Assistance Program), the
EFAP will only breach confidentiality when required by law, such as when there is a need to report a health professional where there is reason to believe that they are not working in accordance with the standards of the:

a. Regulated Health Professions Act.
b. Health Protection and Promotion Act.
c. Personal Health Information Protection Act.
d. Ontario Health Care Consent Act.
e. Ministry of Health and Long Term Care Act.

Answer 22

a. Regulated Health Professions Act.

Question 23

With respect to Service Procedure 08-04 (Members Involved in a Traumatic Critical
Incident), the Officer in Charge or Civilian Equivalent when involved in an assessment of
a traumatic incident when not assigned a memorandum book shall:

a. Submit an internal correspondence (TPS 649) to the Unit Commander.
b. Ensure a TPS 765 is completed and submitted in compliance with
Procedure 08-03.
c. Create a written record of all factors considered and actions taken.
d. Submit an E-mail correspondence to “Critical Incident Response Team”
providing relevant details of the incident.
e. Ensure the TPA delivers pizza and free coffee for the troops.

Answer 23

c. Create a written record of all factors considered and actions taken.

Question 24

According to Service Procedure 08-11 (Workplace Violence), the Officer in Charge or
Designate, upon becoming aware of, or ought reasonably to be aware of, workplace
violence or the threat of workplace violence, including domestic violence, shall when the
source of the workplace violence is external to the Service, ensure the applicable eReport
numbers are provided to the members Unit Commander and:
a. Unit Commander – Occupational Health and Safety.
b. OHS - MAS.
c. Unit Commander – Professional Standards.
d. OHS - WICB Services
e. Unit Commander - Labour Relations.

Answer 24

c. Unit Commander – Professional Standards.

Question 25

With respect to Service Procedure 08-13 (Workplace Accomodation – Medical), which of the following is a factor under the Code to be considered in determining undue hardship: a. Whether or not it is viable to modify tasks. b. Cost. c. Whether or not it is viable to modify working conditions – hours of work, shift schedules. d. The potential for internal retraining relevant to the alternative position. e. The requirement for internal training relevant to the position (which does not include upgrading of academic qualifications).

Answer 25

b. Cost.

Question 26

With respect to Service Procedure 10-01 (Emergency Incident Response), which of the following is not a consideration when developing a communication strategy: a. Will the communication be accessible to the target audience ? b. the target audience. c. the form of communication. d. The nature of the emergency. e. The information to include in the communication.

Answer 26

d. The nature of the emergency.

Question 27

According to Service Procedure 10-13 (Threats to School Safety), a Supervisory Officer upon being notified of a school lockdown shall: a. Notify the Officer in Charge. b. Assign an officer to attend that school. c. Provide information and updates on the situation when inquiries are made by the school principal or designate in the area of the threat. d. In addition to unit-specific policies, when requested by officers on the scene, shall notify all identified schools when it is recommended that there be a Lockdown, Hold and Secure, or Shelter in Place. e. Identify a parent staging area.

Answer 27

b. Assign an officer to attend that school.

Question 28

With respect to Service Procedure 08-12 (Workplace Harassment), which of the following statements is correct: a. The definition of workplace harassment under the Ontario Human Rights Code is broader than the definition contained in the Occupational Health and Safety Act (OHSA). b. The Officer in Charge/Designate when the source of the workplace harassment is external to the Service shall ensure the applicable eReport numbers are provided to the involved member’s Unit Commander and the Unit Commander – Corporate Risk Management (CRM) prior to the completion of the tour of duty. c. A complaint of workplace harassment that is vexatious or malicious in nature may result in discipline. d. The Unit Commander shall arrange for the re-assignment to reasonable alternative duties. e. The Officer in Charge/Designate shall arrange for counselling which is gender and culturally specific.

Answer 28

c. A complaint of workplace harassment that is vexatious or malicious in nature may result in discipline.

Question 29

With respect to Service Procedure 13-08 (Uniform Suspension from Duty), which of the following statements is incorrect: a. The likelihood that the officer will re-offend is to be taken into consideration when determining if an immediate suspension from duty is appropriate. b. The suspending officer shall deliver all surrendered Service issued uniform and equipment to the suspended officer’s Unit Commander. c. When recommending to the Chief whether to revoke or continue a suspension from duty, Professional Standards shall consider if there are any court imposed bail conditions. d. When suspending an officer from duty, the suspending officer shall notify the Duty Senior Officer. e. The Unit Commander upon learning that a police officer under their command has been suspended shall ensure the suspended officer’s Staff Superintendent/Director is notified of the suspension.

Answer 29

a. The likelihood that the officer will re-offend is to be taken into consideration when determining if an immediate suspension from duty is appropriate.

Question 30

An officer on your platoon has been placed on a Special Review in accordance with Service procedure 13-11 (Unsatisfactory Work Performance). This officer has demonstrated an effort to comply but has not sufficiently met the threshold level. Under these circumstances, the maximum total time frame for the Special Review is: a. 60 days. b. 90 days. c. 120 days. d. 150 days e. 180 days

Answer 30

e. 180 days

Question 31

According to Service Procedure 14-02 (Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals - Uniform), each unit will be responsible for providing the officer's performance report for the previous _________ police reporting periods to the Unit Commander. a. 10 b. 12 c. 13. d. 14 e. 15

Answer 31

c. 13.

Question 32

According to Service Procedure 15-01 (Use of Force), a supervisor, when notified of a firearm discharge incident shall: a. Support and assist the FDI and investigate as required. b. Notify the Officer in Charge - TPOC forthwith. c. Ensure the Duty Senior Officer has been notified. d. Ensure the on-call FDI has been notified. e. Review ICCS recordings, where applicable, and record the results of this review in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR) and memorandum book.

Answer 32

a. Support and assist the FDI and investigate as required.

Question 33

With respect to Service Procedure 15-01 (Use of Force), which of the following statements is incorrect: a. An incident in which force was actually used including the Demonstrated Force presence of a CEW requires a separate UFR Form 1 from each individual member involved. b. The POU, Mounted Unit, or Marine Unit when assisting the POU, when operating/responding as a team, shall submit a Team Report UFR Form 1 in situations where force is displayed or used. c. Members are required to submit a UFR Form 1 and a TPS 584 to the Chief of Police when a member uses a CEW. d. Members may use an intermediate weapon such as their issued baton, OC spray or conducted energy weapon (CEW) as a force option to prevent themselves from being overpowered when violently attacked. e. The information from the UFR Form 1 shall not be contained in an officers personnel file.

Answer 33

b. The POU, Mounted Unit, or Marine Unit when assisting the POU, when operating/responding as a team, shall submit a Team Report UFR Form 1 in situations where force is displayed or used.

Question 34

With respect to Service Procedure 15-01 (Use of Force), the Officer in Charge upon being notified of a firearm discharge by a member shall: a. Notify the Duty Senior Officer. b. If the firearm discharge results in injury or death to a person, notify the unit commander. c. Ensure a Detective is assigned to support and assist the PRS-FDI during the course of the firearm discharge investigation in accordance with “Additional Investigative Requirements - Firearm Discharge” section of Service procedure 15-01. d. Ensure the Officer in Charge of the division in which the firearm discharge occurred has been notified, if the discharge did not occur in the members home unit. e. Advise the Unit Commander at the first available opportunity and provide regular updates.

Answer 34

b. If the firearm discharge results in injury or death to a person, notify the unit commander.

Question 35

With respect to Service procedure 15-10 (Suspect Apprehension Pursuit), which of the following is not a responsibility of the Road Supervisory Officer: a. Advise the pursuit supervisor of any methods to be used to terminate the pursuit, when practicable. b. Monitor the communication. c. Assume the role of pursuit supervisor in the absence of an Operations Supervisor – Communications Services. d. Order the pursuit abandoned, when appropriate and advise the pursuit supervisor accordingly. e. Ensure the applicable eReports are completed, prior to the completion of duty, if applicable.

Answer 35

a. Advise the pursuit supervisor of any methods to be used to terminate the pursuit, when practicable.

Question 36

``` Short Term: For the purpose of medical accommodation means the prognosis for full recovery is within: a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 6 months e. 1 year ```

Answer 36

d. 6 months

Question 37

According to Article 5.01 of the Uniform Collective Agreement, a member shall be notified of any disciplinary action taken against the member by way of documentation (currently TPS 930) and has the right to respond thereto in writing within: a. 5 working days. b. 10 days. c. 10 working days. d. 14 days. e. 14 working days.

Answer 37

c. 10 working days.

Question 38

``` According to Article 7.07 of the Uniform Collective Agreement, the normal tour of duty for the Second Tour is: a. 6:00 am to 2:00 pm. b. 7:00 am to 3:00 pm. c. 8:00 am to 4:00 pm. d. 2:00 pm to 10:00 pm e. 4:00 pm to 12:00 midnight. ```

Answer 38

c. 8:00 am to 4:00 pm.

Question 39

According to the Memoranda of Understanding between the Toronto Police Services Board and the Toronto Police Association relating to Probationary Constables, a probationary constable who is disputing a recommendation to dispense with his/her services shall notify: a. The Association and the Probationary Constables Unit Commander. b. The Association and Labour Relations. c. The Association and the Standing Committee on Probationary Constables. d. The Association and Board. e. Bob Kemp.

Answer 39

a. The Association and the Probationary Constables Unit Commander.

Question 40

``` An officer may respond to their annual appraisal by preparing a TPS 649 within __________ days of being counselled. a. 7 b. 10 c. 14 d. 21 e. 30 ```

Answer 40

b. 10

Question 41

``` A member, within _________ (excluding Saturday or Sunday) of submitting a written resignation, may request the Chief of Police, either directly or through the Association, to withdraw said resignation. a. 24 hours. b. 48 hours. c. 72 hours. d. 5 days. e. 7 days. ```

Answer 41

b. 48 hours.

Question 42

When did the Ministry of Community and Correctional Services approve the use of Conducted Energy Weapons (CEW’s) for tactical units, hostage rescue teams, preliminary perimeter control containment teams, and qualified front line supervisors ? a. March 2005. b. February 2003. c. February 2004. d. April 2006. e. May 2003.

Answer 42

c. February 2004.

Question 43

A police officer has an unintentional discharge with a CEW. No injuries are sustained. According to Service Procedure 15-09 (Conducted Energy Weapon), the officer is required to: a. Complete and submit a UFR Form 1 to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the tour of duty. b. Notify a Communications Supervisor. c. Submit a TPS 105 to the Officer in Charge. d. Notify the Officer in Charge e. Stick his/her tongue on the probe and test for current.

Answer 43

a. Complete and submit a UFR Form 1 to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the tour of duty.

Question 44

Which of the following is one of the expectations of a Supervisor/Sergeant/Staff Sergeant in relation to the core value “We lead and inspire” ? a. I make myself available to mentor high potentials individuals, even outside my own area. b. I identify future leaders across the Service, and look for specific opportunities to further their development, including my mentoring support. c. I use a broad range of leadership approaches to energize, motivate, and inspire others to do their best. d. I provide positive and constructive feedback, and recognize successes and accomplishments. e. I seek to be credible and authentic in my leadership.

Answer 44

d. I provide positive and constructive feedback, and recognize successes and accomplishments.

Question 45

According to Service Procedure 01-01 (Arrest), when entering a dwelling house to effect an arrest, in all cases, members shall ensure proper announcement is made prior to entry (identification, purpose of entry, etc.) except: a. In exigent circumstances. b. As provided in the warrant. c. When conducting a dynamic entry. d. When there is an endorsement on the arrest warrant under ss. 529(1) CC. e. in circumstances of fresh pursuit.

Answer 45

b. As provided in the warrant.

Question 46

According to the TPS Modernization Plan, which of the following is not one of the four strategic fronts to expedite and ensure culture change: a. Reflecting the diversity of Toronto’s population through the members of the Service. b. Technology and information management. c. Structures and business processes. d. People management and human resources strategy. e. Leadership and decision-making.

Answer 46

a. Reflecting the diversity of Toronto’s population through the members of the Service.

Question 47

``` With respect to the Toronto Police Service 2017-2020 Business Plan, there are three main goals. These goals are being structured using the SMART framework. In this acronym, the “T” stands for: a. Target b. Teamwork c. Task d. Timely e. Technology. ```

Answer 47

d. Timely

Question 48

Which of the following is an expectation of a Manager/Inspector/Superintendent in relation to the core value “Our impact, We are emotionally intelligent” ? a. I champion an inclusive culture of diversity and trust in which differences are valued. b. I reinforce and help others understand the vision and think positively about the future. c. I take action to calm others in stressful situations. d. I clearly and effectively communicate complex issues to diverse audiences. e. I put myself in others’ shoes and try to see things from their perspective, including their lived experiences.

Answer 48

d. I clearly and effectively communicate complex issues to diverse audiences.

Question 49

According to Article 6.01 of the Uniform Collective Agreement, if a satisfactory settlement at Step 1 fails, the Association may within ______ working days submit the grievance to the Chief of Police or his/her designate. a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 14 e. 20

Answer 49

e. 20

Question 50

``` With respect to the Toronto Police Service People Plan, under the four strategic themes, how many change initiatives exist ? a. 23 b. 27 c. 33 d. 35 e. 42 ```

Answer 50

b. 27

Question 51

According to Service Procedure 05-01 (Preliminary Homicide Investigation), every sudden unexpected death of a child under ____ years shall be treated as suspicious and a member of the On-Call Team – Homicide Squad (On-Call Homicide Team) shall be consulted by the attending divisional Detective. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 16 e. 18

Answer 51

e. 18 | pg 99

Question 52

According to Service Procedure 04-14 (Regulated Interactions), the Supervisory Officer – Go Review, if there are any issues or concerns with a Regulated Interaction Report that is being reviewed: a. shall notify the police officer’s supervisory officer. b. shall consult with the submitting police officer’s Officer in Charge. c. in exigent circumstances only, may notify the Staff Superintendent – Detective Operations. d. may contact the Controller – Regulated interactions for clarification and assistance as required. e. shall return the Regulated Interaction Report to the submitting police officer for amendment.

Answer 52

d. may contact the Controller – Regulated interactions for clarification and assistance as required.

Question 53

According to Service Procedure 05-04 (Domestic Violence), the supervisory officer when notified of a revocation of consent shall ensure: a. A “NOTIFY” has been sent to Divisional Policing Support Unit (COMOBS); b. An investigation is undertaken expeditiously; c. A copy of the revocation document is sent by TPS eFax forthwith to Records Management Services – Operations. d. Supplementary information is added to the original Domestic Assault eReport. e. A Revocation of Consent to Communicate text template is added to the original Domestic Assault eReport.

Answer 53

b. An investigation is undertaken expeditiously;

Question 54

According to Service Procedure 04-35 (Source Management – Confidential Source), a level 2 source shall only be managed by a handler – level 2 unless otherwise approved by: a. The Controller. b. The Unit Commander – Intelligence Services (INT). c. Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source Management (CO-SMS). d. Staff Superintendent – Detective Operations e. Deputy Chief – Specialized Operations Command.

Answer 54

a. The Controller.

Question 55

According to Service Procedure 13-06 (Complaint Withdrawal), when a complainant wishes to withdraw an OIPRD complaint, prior to the commencement of a PSA hearing, the Investigating Supervisor shall: a. Complete the 004-0303 OIPRD and submit electronically to the OIPRD Liaison Officer. b. Ensure the complainant has completed the withdrawal portion of the TPS 901, if applicable. c. Provide the complainant and respondent officer with a copy of the complaint withdrawal. d. Notify the OIPRD Liaison Officer. e. Ensure the complainant is provided with a copy of the TPS 930.

Answer 55

c. Provide the complainant and respondent officer with a copy of the complaint withdrawal.

Question 56

With respect to Service Procedure 13-09 (Civilian Complaint and Discipline Process), which of the following is a possible outcome available in the process for a civilian member ? a. Suspension without pay. b. Suspension without pay pending recommendation for termination. c. Internal informal resolution. d. Verbal reprimand. e. Written reprimand.

Answer 56

c. Internal informal resolution. | pg 230

Question 57

With respect to Service Procedure 13-16 (Special Investigations Unit), the Chief’s Administrative Investigation in relation to a firearm discharge where injury occurs shall be assigned to: a. Professional Standards. b. Professional Standards Support. c. Specialized Criminal Investigations – Homicide. d. PRS – Corporate Risk Management (CRM) e. PSS SIU Liaison Investigator.

Answer 57

a. Professional Standards

Question 58

With respect to Service Procedure 13-16 (Special Investigations Unit), notes are to be completed and submitted before the end of the police officers tour of duty, except where excused by: a. The Chief of Police. b. The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designate. c. The Duty Senior Officer. d. A Deputy Chief of Police. e. Deputy Chief – Priority Response Command.

Answer 58

a. The Chief of Police. | pg243

Question 59

According to Service Procedure 14-02 (Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals), when recommending the withholding of a constable’s reclassification, the Unit Commander shall ensure that ____________ are immediately advised of the recommendation via E-Mail. a. Human Resources b. HRPMA – Employee Records. c. Compensation and Benefits. d. Separation and Retention. e. Toronto Police Association.

Answer 59

b. HRPMA – Employee Records.

Question 60

According to Service Procedure 15-01 (Use of Force), where a court order, subpoena, or prosecutor’s request for disclosure of a UOF Form 1 is received, such request shall be directed to: a. The Unit Commander. b. Unit Commander – Professional Standards. c. Legal Services. d. Labour Relations. e. Coordinator – Records Management Services – Access and Privacy Section.

Answer 60

c. Legal Services.

Question 61

According to Service Procedure 15-16 (Uniform, Equipment and Appearance Standards), any jewelry or non-issued articles lost, stolen, damaged, or destroyed shall not be repaired or replaced at the expense of the Service, except when otherwise authorized by: a. The Chief Administrative Officer, b. The Deputy Chief. c. The Chief of Police. d. The Unit Commander. e. None of the above.

Answer 61

a. The Chief Administrative Officer,

Question 62

According to Service Procedure 15-17 (In-Car Camera System), the supervisory officer where a Service vehicle has been involved in a collision that has caused the vehicle engine to stop shall ensure: a. The ICCS video has been uploaded to the system. b. The vehicle is towed to the appropriate Service garage for ICCS uploading. c. If the vehicle is drivable, it is returned to its home unit for ICCS uploading. d. The vehicle is not restarted. e. HELP desk is notified forthwith.

Answer 62

d. The vehicle is not restarted.

Question 63

Which of the following does not fall under the logistics pillar of the Toronto Police Service Incident Command Organizational Chart ? a. Feeding. b. Resource. c. Facilities d. Transportation. e. Supply.

Answer 63

b. Resource.

Question 64

According to the article titled “Seven Signposts”, which of the following is not one of the seven facets that predict performance in future roles: a. Emotional Intelligence. b. Managed derailment risks. c. Self-Awareness. d. The drive to be a leader. e. Leadership traits.

Answer 64

a. Emotional Intelligence

Question 65

According to the article “Seven Signposts – The ability to learn from experience”, which of the following statements is correct ? a. It’s estimated that just 10% of the global workforce are highly agile learners. b. Learning agility is especially crucial during the initial months of employment. c. Leaders who are less capable of learning from experience are prone to simply describe their experiences. d. Learning agile leaders adopt and employ leadership strategies from others. e. Nearly 30% of the Fortune 100 assess the learning agility of internal and external

Answer 65

c. Leaders who are less capable of learning from experience are prone to simply

Question 66

According to the article “Seven Signposts – Leadership Traits”, which of the following statements is correct ? a. Skills reflect our personality. b. People with a strong need for achievement are more likely to succeed. c. Most leaders plateau despite early success. d. Extroverts have a higher likelihood of success. e. High-potential leaders are inclined to act like leaders.

Answer 66

e. High-potential leaders are inclined to act like leaders.

Question 67

Within the Toronto Police Service, which of the following is one of our principles ? a. Inclusive and Engaged. b. Actively Accountable and Sustainable. c. Tired and Weary. d. Transparent and Engaged. e. Collaborative and Trusted.

Answer 67

d. Transparent and Engaged.

Question 68

Which of the following describes how the TPS serves and engages with the public, stakeholders, and partners ? a. More open, inclusive and engaging decision-making and information sharing both internally and externally, recognizing that in a policing environment not all information can be shared publicly. b. An ability to take risks, admit and learn from mistakes, respond quickly to concerns and engage creatively on solutions. c. Collaborative, inclusive, and engaging internally and externally with a diversity of lived experiences and perspectives. d. Preparation and support for the community – building their resilience for the continuous change and improvement required in the community. e. Kick ass and take names.

Answer 68

b. An ability to take risks, admit and learn from mistakes, respond quickly to concerns and engage creatively on solutions.

Question 69

With respect to the TPS Modernization Plan and specifically Chapter 6 (Culture Change), major changes to HR policies and programs should include a new system to evaluate the effectiveness of training that includes: a. Metrics for increased operational efficiency. b. Internal and external consultation. c. Public perception data obtained through community consultation. d. Indicators of the degree to which Service Members engage with the community and apply their training. e. Measurement of executive and employee performance to determine to what extent training objectives are being met.

Answer 69

a. Metrics for increased operational efficiency.

Question 70

With respect to the 2019 TPS Organizational Chart, which of the following does not fall under the responsibility of the Strategy Management S/Supt ? a. Strategic Planning. b. Analytics and Innovation. c. People, Strategy, & Performance. d. Customer Service Excellence. e. Corporate Projects.

Answer 70

c. People, Strategy, & Performance.

Question 71

According to the Toronto Police Service’s Competency Framework, when considering “Our Development”, which of the following is incorrect: a. I know my personal strengths and development needs, and actively develop myself. b. I encourage members to take ownership of their personal and professional development. c. I reflect on the performance of others, learn from their experience and act on it. d. I coach, guide, train, mentor and develop others. e. I provide longer-term coaching and mentoring to members.

Answer 71

c. I reflect on the performance of others, learn from their experience and act on it.

Question 72

As an incident to arrest, a police officer may search for: a. weapons. b. anything that could cause injury (not including drugs and alcohol). c. most things that can assist in a person’s escape, but not weapons. d. Identification. e. The Magna Carta.

Answer 72

a. weapons.

Question 73

An accused person under the age of eighteen (18) years of age may be lodged in a divisional cell only: a. when a decision has been made to hold the young person in custody pending a bail hearing. b. when there is an adult present in the cells but there is adequate space to isolate the young person from the adult. c. when the young person consents to being lodged in the Divisional cell. d. to prevent injury or to protect others from aggressive behaviour AND when there is no adult present in the cells. e. when a parent or adult friend/relative consents to the young person being lodged in the Divisional cell

Answer 73

d. to prevent injury or to protect others from aggressive behaviour AND when there is no adult present in the cells.

Question 74

With regards to the Toronto Police Service Procedure 01-03 (Persons in Custody), when a person in custody is brought into the station, the Officer in Charge shall: a. ensure the person has had the opportunity to contact counsel. b. consider whether the circumstances of the arrest and continued detention is lawful and required. c. evaluate the physical state of the person and inquire if he/she has any disabilities. d. ensure that all required medication is dispensed to the person. e. monitor the person

Answer 74

b. consider whether the circumstances of the arrest and continued detention is lawful and required.

Question 75

According to Toronto Police Service Procedure 01-03 (Spit Shields), spit shields shall not be applied: a. in public view. b. unless all de-escalation methods have been unsuccessful. c. to prevent a prisoner from spitting on an object. d. if the person has a history of breathing problems. e. when the person is lodged in a cell.

Answer 75

d. if the person has a history of breathing problems. | pg39

Question 76

According to Service’s Procedure 01-08 – Appendix B, an Officer in Charge upon deciding that it is appropriate to release a person on a Form 10 shall: a. ensure the Form 10 has been discussed with the person in custody. b. ensure the applicable E-reports have been completed. c. ensure the first court appearance has been established as eight (8) weeks from the date of release. d. Forward a copy of the completed Form 10 to the divisional Detective Sergeant. e. Ensure the fingerprinting date has been established at least two weeks prior to the court date in compliance with Procedure 01-07.

Answer 76

b. ensure the applicable E-reports have been completed.

Question 77

With respect to the Extreme Event Recommendations – January, 2017, which of the following statements is correct ? a. The role of Incident Commander is defined in TPS Governance as the supervisory officer who has taken charge of the incident. b. The role of the first Supervisory Officer to arrive on scene is to obtain a briefing from the first officer/member on scene and assume the role of Incident Commander until relieved from that function. c. Officers assigned to any call for service would be expected to “Clear and Stage” when directed by their own dispatcher. d. Area Command is an expansion of the Incident Command Function, primarily designed to manage multiple incidents/IMT’s. e. The Incident Command Post is the location from which Incident Command oversees incident management and usually operates out of the Major Incident Command Centre.

Answer 77

d. Area Command is an expansion of the Incident Command Function, primarily designed to manage multiple incidents/IMT’s.

Question 78

In relation to Service Governance – Part II Standards of Conduct, Code of Conduct, which of the following is not included in the definition of Discreditable Conduct ? a. fails to report a matter that is his or her duty to report. b. contravenes any provision of the Act or regulations. c. is guilty of oppressive or tyrannical conduct towards an inferior rank. d. is guilty of an indictable criminal offence or criminal offence punishable upon summary conviction. e. assaults any other member of a police force.

Answer 78

a. fails to report a matter that is his or her duty to report.

Question 79

According to Service Governance, Article 2.12.1, Sergeants shall visit members: a. regularly. b. as frequently as possible. c. whenever possible. d. upon request. e. promptly.

Answer 79

b. as frequently as possible.

Question 80

With respect to the Toronto Police Service People Plan 2017-2019, and specifically Our People, which of the following is a key initiative under this theme: a. Mapping current training programs against the competencies. b. Developing a new training portal where members will be able to find the competency framework, various useful tools, and other resources. c. A performance management program, including developmental planning. d. Identifying gaps and opportunities for enhancements to ensure that competencies are appropriately reflected and embedded in training. e. An organizational cultural assessment focused on listening to members and getting their input on our culture, particularly what needs to be retained, as well as what needs to change to support more community-centric service delivery.

Answer 80

c. A performance management program, including developmental planning

Question 81

According to Service Procedure 10-03 (Bomb Threats), a police officer upon locating a suspicious device shall secure the area by establishing a minimum perimeter of __________ metres around the package device. a. 20 b. 30 c. 50 d. 75 e. 100

Answer 81

b. 30

Question 82

According to Service Procedure 10-05 (Incidents Requiring the Emergency Task Force), the first police officer, upon confirming that the incident requires the attendance of the ETF shall notify the Communications Operator – Communications Services of: a. Location of traffic points. b. Location of suspects. c. Relationship to suspect, if any, of a hostage or other persons requiring assisted evacuation. d. If suspecting or confirming an act of terrorism. e. Mental and physical condition of suspect.

Answer 82

d. If suspecting or confirming an act of terrorism. | pg212

Question 83

According to Service Procedure 13-16 (Special Investigations Unit), the Officer in Charge when notified, or having identified, that an officer requires medical and/or psychological assistance shall make a memo book entry. This memo book entry must include: a. The name of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designate. b. Subject or witness officer designation. c. The members behaviour. d. The name of the on-call CIRT/PSV notified. e. Any resulting delay in the completion of the involved officer’s notes.

Answer 83

e. Any resulting delay in the completion of the involved officer’s notes.

Question 84

With respect to Service Procedure 13-18 (Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct), which of the following statements is correct: a. The telephone number 416-434-7090 is available between the hours of 0700 and 1700 each business day. b. The telephone number 416-808-9070 is available between the hours of 0800 and 1600 each business day. c. The telephone number 416-343-7090 is available between the hours of 0800 and 1600 each business day. d. The telephone number 416-808-7090 is available between the hours of 0700 and 1600 each business day. e. The telephone number 416-808-7090 is available between the hours of 0700 and 1700 each business day.

Answer 84

c. The telephone number 416-343-7090 is available between the hours of 0800 and 1600 each business day.

Question 85

According to Service Procedure 15-10 (Suspect Apprehension Pursuit), which of the following is recognized as a method of terminating a pursuit: a. The tandem stop. b. Rolling block. c. The use of a helicopter, when available. d. Strategic use of rear, side and combination methods for stopping vehicles. e. Booking T.O.

Answer 85

b. Rolling block.

Question 86

According to Service Procedure 15-16 (Uniform, Equipment and Appearance Standards), a member when on a leave of absence for a period longer than ___________ consecutive days shall, unless otherwise directed by the Chief of Police, return to their Unit Commander all of their Service issued use of force equipment. a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120 e. 150.

Answer 86

c. 90

Question 87

Unless cancelled or extended, an AMBER alert will have a duration of: a. 5 hours b. 6 hours c. 8 hours d. 10 hours e. 24 hours.

Answer 87

a. 5 hours

Question 88

Which of the following meets the definition of tertiary grounds: a. detention is necessary for the protection or safety of the public, including any victim of or witness to an offence. b. the grounds used to detain a person to ensure their attendance in court in order to be dealt with according to law. c. detention is necessary if any substantial likelihood exists that the accused person will, if released from custody, commit a criminal offence or interfere with the administration of justice. d. means the grounds used to justify the detention of the accused person in order to maintain confidence in the administration of justice, having regard to all the circumstances, including the circumstances surrounding its commission. e. means a set of facts or circumstances that would lead a person of ordinary care and judgement to have a strong belief beyond mere suspicion.

Answer 88

e. means a set of facts or circumstances that would lead a person of ordinary care and judgement to have a strong belief beyond mere suspicion.

Question 89

Level 2 Missing Person Search means the level of search when: a. a person is under 16 years of age. b. a person is Over seventy (70) years of age. c. a person is reported missing and there are extenuating circumstances. d. missing person searches are ineffective. e. a person is over sixty five (65) years of age or infirm.

Answer 89

e. a person is over sixty five (65) years of age or infirm.

Question 90

According to Procedure 05-05 (Sexual Assault) The CYAC (Child and Youth Advocacy Center) will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases that include: a. Physical assaults when the victim is under the age of (14) years and the suspect is a known adult. b. Occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended. c. Physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim us under the age of eighteen (18) and the suspect is a caregiver, parent, or person in trust or authority. d. sexual offences when the victim is under the age of sixteen (16) years and the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate of the Sex Crimes Investigative Office. e. the occurrence involves an offence under s. 272 or 273 of the CC (sexual assault with a weapon, sexual assault causing bodily harm, wounds, maims, or endangers life).

Answer 90

b. Occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended.

Question 91

Procedure 01-03 Appendix “E” (Persons in Custody - Lodging of Trans Persons): a. The Officer in Charge must ensure the safety of such persons, up to and including segregation from other prisoners and transportation in a separate compartment and vehicle to and from or between facilities. b. Police Officers, Court Officers, and Special Constables assigned to booking duties shall ensure that information regarding a trans prisoner’s gender identity or gender history is marked on the prisoner transport list. c. When lodging a trans person, the Officer in Charge shall determine the most appropriate placement of the individual. d. A prisoner shall be lodged according to their self identified gender or lodging preference. e. The officer in charge shall contact the Court Services supervisor to confirm that the person can be held in court cells in such a manner that will address any safety concerns.

Answer 91

c. When lodging a trans person, the Officer in Charge shall determine the most appropriate placement of the individual.

Question 92

According to the article The Signs of Potential (Korn Ferry Institute): a. Those lacking self-awareness will struggle to grow and develop. b. Those at high risk of derailing lack insight into their strengths and weaknesses. c. Those without the traits of a leader will struggle to be effective. d. Those who are self aware are on the fast track to becoming a high-performing leader. e. Those who aren’t quick to reason out solutions with their team will devote precious effort to managing the stress associated with leadership roles.

Answer 92

a. Those lacking self-awareness will struggle to grow and develop.

Question 93

According to The Way Forward – Our Action Plan, The Strategy Map, we will be transparent and engaged by: a. Focusing every day on building trust and addressing community concerns: b. Consistently listening to, and considering, the best interests of our communities and neighbourhoods and demonstrating this to the public. c. Providing services that are centered on communities and neighbourhoods. d. Managing change thoughtfully and assessing, mitigating and monitoring risks. e. Working collaboratively in partnership with others to develop sustainable solutions and apply the most appropriate resources to needs.

Answer 93

d. Managing change thoughtfully and assessing, mitigating and monitoring risks.

Question 94

According to The Way Forward – Our Action Plan, which of the following is a key element of the new Performance Management Program: a. Identifying gaps and opportunities for enhancements to ensure that competencies are appropriately reflected and embedded in training. b. Anchored in the Service’s overall goals and objectives and those of individual Commands, cascading down to individual units within each Command. c. Modifying existing training and/or developing new training where necessary. d. A high performing customer service culture to anticipate and respond to member’s everyday HR needs. e. Developing a new training portal where members will be able to find the competency framework, various useful tools, and other resources.

Answer 94

b. Anchored in the Service’s overall goals and objectives and those of individual Commands, cascading down to individual units within each Command.

Question 95

With respect to the memorandum of understanding regarding Membership Communications, where there is a dispute in relation to the memorandum of understanding that is not otherwise resolved, paragraph 7(c) indicates that the parties have agreed to a single arbitrator, that person being: a. Oswald C. Mline Q.C. b. Simon B. Milime Q.C. c. Robert M. Kemp Q.C. d. Odhran S. Klime Q.C. e. Owen B. Shime Q.C.

Answer 95

e. Owen B. Shime Q.C.

Question 96

According to the memoranda of understanding between the Toronto Police Services Board and the Toronto Police Association, with respect to Constable Reclassification, any reclassification which is being withheld will be deferred, the constable will be counselled, and the reclassification will be reconsidered in a further: a. 30 days. b. 60 days. c. 90 days. d. 120 days. e. 6 months.

Answer 96

c. 90 days.

Question 97

A member is absent from work during a period of time in respect of which a supplementary insurance benefit applies, however is required to attend court. According to article 9.02(f) of the Collective agreement, the member is entitled to: a. lieu time for use following the member’s return to work. b. Cash or time. c. the equivalent of a court appearance on a regularly scheduled day off. d. two (2) days off. e. one half (1/2) of the callback allowance that would otherwise apply.

Answer 97

a. lieu time for use following the member’s return to work.

Question 98

With respect to the Uniform Collective Agreement, Article 6 – Grievance Procedure, in the event of a grievance that proceeds to Step 2, the Chief of Police or his/her designate shall render a written decision within _________ of the Step 2 meeting. a. 5 days. b. 7 days. c. 7 working days. d. 10 days. e. 10 working days.

Answer 98

b. 7 days.

Question 99

According to Service Governance Definitions, a Notice of Hearing must be served at least ____________ before the police officer’s first appearance at a hearing. a. 10 days. b. 7 days. c. 5 days. d. 72 hours. e. 48 hrs.

Answer 99

d. 72 hours.

Question 100

According to Service Governance Definitions, an Infant means: a. a child less than 3 months of age. b. a child less than 6 months of age. c. a child less than 9 months of age. d. a child less than one year of age. e. None of the above.

Answer 100

d. a child less than one year of age.

Question 101

According to Service Governance Definitions, a “child” means: a. any person under the age of 12 years. b. any person under the age of 16 years. c. any person under the age of 18 years. d. any person who is, or appears to be, under the age of 16 years. e. any person who is, or appears to be, under the age of 16 years, including a child under a protection order who is 16 or 17 years old.

Answer 101

c. any person under the age of 18 years.

Question 102

According to Service Governance Definitions, “Abduction, Parental” means: a. unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of fourteen (14) whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person. b. unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of sixteen (16) whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person. c. unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of eighteen (18) whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person. d. unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of fourteen (14) where there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person. e. unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of sixteen (16) where there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, including a child under a child protection order with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person.

Answer 102

a. unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of fourteen (14) whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person.

Question 103

According to Service Procedure 15-17 (In-Car Camera System), a police officer when it is necessary to deactivate the ICCS or mute audio recording during an investigation or incident shall: a. Notify a supervisor. b. Advise the subject that the recording is being deactivated. c. Review the recording utilizing the ICCS viewer application. d. Note the reasons for the decision in the memorandum book. e. Ensure the recording has not already been classified.

Answer 103

d. Note the reasons for the decision in the memorandum book.

Question 104

Having regard to Procedure 01-15 (Bail Hearings and Detention Orders), which statement is correct: a. Bail opposition shall be considered whenever the safety of the victim, the victim’s dependents, or the public is believed to be at risk because of the actions of an accused person or because the nature of the crime demands it. b. Bail opposition must be considered whenever the safety of the victim or the public is believed to be at risk because of the actions of an accused person or because the nature of the crime demands it. c. Bail opposition may be considered whenever the safety of the victim, the victim’s dependents, or the public is believed to be at risk because of the actions of an accused person or because the nature of the crime demands it. d. Bail opposition shall be considered whenever the safety of the victim or the public is believed to be at risk because of the actions of an accused person or because the nature of the crime demands it. e. Bail opposition must be considered whenever the safety of the victim, the victim’s dependents, or the public is believed to be at risk because of the actions of an accused person or because the nature of the crime demands it, or in circumstances where appropriate conditions must be sought to govern the behavior of and accused person and protect the victim, witness, and community.

Answer 104

a. Bail opposition shall be considered whenever the safety of the victim, the victim’s dependents, or the public is believed to be at risk because of the actions of an accused person or because the nature of the crime demands it.

Question 105

With respect to the TPS Organizational Competency Framework, which of the following is one of the levels expected of a Supervisor/Sergeant/Staff Sergeant in relation to the competency “We are accountable and deliver results” ? a. I have the courage and confidence to intervene and right a wrong, even when no one is watching. b. I empower direct reports to make decisions. c. I consistently strive to exceed objectives and standards of performance. d. I encourage others to aim high and meet or exceed expectations. e. I do my best to add value, and expect the same of others.

Answer 105

b. I empower direct reports to make decisions.

Question 106

According to Service Procedure 04-14 (Regulated Interactions), the Supervisory Officer – GO Review, if the Regulated Interaction Report is incomplete, shall: a. Notify the Office in Charge. b. Document the areas of the report which contravene the procedure. c. Return the Regulated Interaction Report to the submitting police officer for amendment. d. Ensure access to the Regulated Interaction Report is restricted. e. Contact the Controller – Regulated Interactions for clarification and assistance, when required.

Answer 106

c. Return the Regulated Interaction Report to the submitting police officer for amendment.

Question 107

Which of the following is not a duty of a police officer as set out in section 42(1) of the Police Services Act (PSA): a. Assisting victims of crime. b. Preserving the peace. c. Performing lawful duties that the chief of police assigns. d. laying charges and participating in prosecutions. e. Conducting investigations.

Answer 107

e. Conducting investigations.

Question 108

With respect to Service Procedure 04-35 (Source Management – Confidential Source), a police officer, in the case of an unscheduled communication or meeting shall: a. Notify a member of CO-SMS. b. Ensure a second officer is present. c. Notify the Detective Sergeant. d. Notify a supervisory officer as soon as possible. e. Forward all reports to a supervisory officer in a secure fashion prior to the completion of the current tour of duty or as directed by a supervisory officer.

Answer 108

d. Notify a supervisory officer as soon as possible.

Question 109

With respect to Service Procedure 05-01 (Preliminary Homicide Investigation), the second police officer upon completion of the initial investigation shall: a. scan and attach memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport. b. complete the TPS 303 and TPS 466 as applicable. c. If the suspect has left the scene, obtain and broadcast all relevant information including a description, whether the suspect is armed, and the mode and direction of travel. d. Notify a supervisory officer. e. Take charge of the scene until relieved by a supervisory officer.

Answer 109

a. scan and attach memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport.

Question 110

According to Service Procedure 08-15 (Naloxone), Naloxone nasal spray requires storage protection from extreme temperature changes and must be stored between: a. 15°C - 30°C with brief excursions permitted between 8°C and 38°C. b. 15°- 25°C with brief excursions permitted between 4°C - 40°C. c. 10°- 25°C with brief excursions permitted between 6°C - 35°C. d. 5°- 30°C with brief excursions permitted between 2°C - 40°C. e. 12°- 32°C with brief excursions permitted between 5°C - 38°C.

Answer 110

b. 15°- 25°C with brief excursions permitted between 4°C - 40°C.