02b: Prostate Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

Majority of blood to prostate comes from (X) artery off of (Y) artery.

A
X = inferior vesical
Y = internal pudendal
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2
Q

Most common malignancy in males 15-35 years old:

A

Testicular cancer

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3
Q

T/F: No major genetic factors for testicular cancer.

A

True

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4
Q

Which aspect of history would put patient at risk for testicular cancer?

A

Undescended testis

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5
Q

Diagnosis of testicular cancer via:

A

Hx, PE, and scrotal ultrasound

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6
Q

Rx for testicular cancer:

A
  1. Surg excision of testicle (inguinal approach)

2. Chemo (super effective, even with metastasis)

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7
Q

Which tumor markers can be followed to assess efficacy of Rx for testicular cancer?

A
  1. AFP
  2. bHCG
  3. LDH
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8
Q

BPH treatment regimen:

A
  1. Alpha blockers (terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin, Alfuzosin)
  2. 5a-reductase inhibitors (Finasteride, Dutasteride)
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9
Q

Function of alpha blocker Rx in BPH:

A

Relax smooth muscle at bladder neck

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10
Q

Pt being treated for BPH: PSA will decrease by as much as (X)% due to (Y) meds.

A
X = 50
Y = 5a-reductase inhibitors
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11
Q

T/F: BPH Rx regimen will not affect sexual function.

A

False - 5a-reductase inhibitors have potential sexual side effects (can be irreversible!)

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12
Q

T/F: No major genetic factors for prostate cancer.

A

False - positive FHx and HPC1 gene are risk factors

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13
Q

(High/low) (X) diet is risk factor for prostate cancer:

A

High

X = fat

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14
Q

Why is PSA high in prostate cancer?

A

Cancer cells have destabilized basement membrane, so more leaks out

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15
Q

“Med castration” for prostate cancer can include which hormonal treatments?

A
  1. GnRH agonist (Lupron)
  2. Estrogen
  3. Antiandrogens
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16
Q

What’s the next step in Rx for patients with metastatic prostate cancer who have failed hormonal therapy?

A

Chemo (with goals to contain cancer and alleviate pain)

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17
Q

Standard chemo Rx for prostate cancer includes (X). What’s the mechanism of action?

A

X = Abiraterone (in combo with prednisone)

Inhibits 17a hydroxylase (thus inhibiting androgen synthesis)

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18
Q

Predominant blood supply to penis:

A

Internal pudendal a

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19
Q

Which a predominantly responsible for blood supply to erectile tissue of penis?

A

Cavernosal a (runs through corpus cavernosa)

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20
Q

T/F: Urethra runs through corpus cavernosa.

A

False - corpus spongiosum

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21
Q

55 yo M smoker presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction. What do you suspect is the cause? What would you test for?

A

Arteriogenic (atherosclerotic);

DM, CAD, cholesterol, etc.
Check for distal pulses

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22
Q

What are some endocrine diseases that cause erectile dysfunction?

A
  1. DM
  2. Thyroid disease
  3. Testosterone deficiency
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23
Q

Basic workup for erectile dysfunction includes which labs?

A
  1. T, LH
  2. TSH
  3. Lipid/cholesterol panel
  4. HbA1c
  5. Prolactin
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24
Q

Which PDE5 inhibitor would you recommend for patient with ED that is already paying for multiple meds?

A

Tadalafil (longest half-life, fewer doses; insurance won’t cover)

25
Common side effects of viagra:
HA, flushing, dyspepsia; maybe transient/mild visual effects
26
List the injectable meds for ED:
3 Ps: 1. Papavarine (PDE inhibitor) 2. Prostaglandin E1 (vasodilator) 3. Phenoxybenzamine/phentolamine (alpha-R blockade)
27
T/F: Penile prostheses are last-resort for erectile dysfunction.
True
28
Priapism: (painless/painful) prolonged erection indicates arterial problem. Is this an emergency?
Painless | No; uncontrolled arterial flow
29
Priapism: (painless/painful) prolonged erection indicates venous problem. Is this an emergency?
Painful | Yes, low-flow priapism (blood trapped in erection chambers); penis can become ischemic
30
Rx options for priapism:
Oral meds (sympathomimetics), irrigation, shunts (extreme case)
31
Condyloma on penis caused by:
HPV
32
T/F: Circumcision essentially eliminates risk of penile cancer.
True
33
RFs for penile cancer:
1. Smoking 2. Poor hygiene 3. HPV infection/sex partners
34
Sequence of spermatogenesis:
Spermatogonium, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoan
35
T/F: Exogenous testosterone decreases sperm production.
True
36
Histo: endometrium in (X) phase has multiple simple, tubular glands in stroma with abundant mitotic activity.
X = proliferative
37
Endometrium has (X) epithelium.
X = pseudostratified
38
Day (X) of menstrual cycle begins change from proliferative to secretory endometrium.
X = 16
39
Histo: endometrium in (X) phase has glands with prominent subnuclear vacuoles. There is (high/low) mitotic activity.
X = early secretory No mitoses
40
Day (X) of menstrual cycle: sub- and supra-nuclear vacuoles are seen with apical discharge.
X = 18
41
Histo: endometrium in (X) phase has "saw-toothed" glands and (Y) in gland lumen.
``` X = late secretory Y = secretions ```
42
Max stromal edema in endometrium is seen on day (X) of menstrual cycle.
X = 22
43
Predecidual changes in endometrium include:
Indistinct perviascular aggregates of cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm
44
Stromal granulocytes in endometrium is classic for day (X) of menstrual cycle and represents preparation for:
X = 26 Menstruation (predecidual change; inflammatory cells enter stroma, ready to mop up debris from menstruation)
45
Most common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding is:
Anovulatory breakdown (endometrium right around menopause loses ability to respond properly to hormones)
46
Anovulation: excess (progesterone/estrogen) leading to disordered (X)
Estrogen, relative to progesterone X = gland proliferation (super large grands with relative scarcity of stroma)
47
Endometrial hyperplasia is related to abnormally high, prolonged level of (X). Which diseases/situations might cause this?
X = estrogen 1. Menopause/persistent anovulation 2. PCOD 3. Granulosa cell tumors 4. Estrogen replacement Rx 5. Obesity
48
Key histo characteristic that distinguishes high grade from low grade endometrial hyperplasia:
Presence of atypia
49
20% of endometrial cancer is (X) type with (Y) cells. This type is (less/more) aggressive and (dependent/non-dependent) on estrogen.
X = non-endometrioid Y = serous, clear More Non-dependent
50
Endometrioid Adenocarcinoma grade depends on % of:
Solid growth pattern (non-squamous/non-morular); | G1 is up to 5%, G2 is 6-50%, G3 is over 50%
51
Presence of plasma cell in endometrial stroma is pathognomonic for:
Chronic endometritis
52
List some etiologies for chronic endometritis:
1. Chronic PID 2. Postpartm (retained gestational tissue) 3. IUD 4. TB or other infections (chlamydia)
53
A(n) (X) cyst is also called a "chocolate cyst".
X = endometriotic (filled with degenerated blood products)
54
A mass of benign endometrial glands/stroma projecting into endometrial cavity.
Endometrial polyp
55
Hydatidiform moles tend to occur in (older/younger) women.
Two ends of spectrum (below 20 and over 45)
56
Which classic symptom would a woman with hydatidiform mole present with?
Bleeding in either late 1st T or early 2nd T
57
T/F: Hx of hydatidiform mole puts woman at higher risk of having future incidence of moles.
True
58
p57 staining will be positive in (complete/partial) hydatidiform mole.
Partial (imprinted gene is maternally expressed)
59
T/F: Choriocarcinomas are highly malignant but also highly responsive to chemo.
True