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Question 1

What is maximum period an active duty member can reenlist for?

Answer 1

6 years

Question 2

What is maximum period a reserve member can reenlist for

Answer 2

8 years

Question 3

For a member that reenlists 24 hours or more after discharge, in order to keep the rate they held at the time of discharge they have to ____________

Answer 3

Reenlist between 3 months from separation or be in the open rate list

Question 4

A reservist reenlisting between ____ of her/his discharge does not requires a physical exam

Answer 4

24 hours

Question 5

Who approves the reenlistment for a reserve member serving on extended active duty?

Answer 5

CG PSC-EPM

Question 6

Personnel coming from one of the following are not required to become a U. S. citizen before reenlisting

Answer 6

Micronesia

Question 7

A reservist not reenlisting between 24 hours that have _____, won’t be allowed back in the SELRES without a waiver

Answer 7

More than 13 years combined service

Question 8

ISTT should contact separating members within _____ from their EOE.

Answer 8

90 – 120 days

Question 9

Which of the following is not authorized to effect reenlistments?

Answer 9

Retired CMC

Question 10

The earliest a you can effect a reenlistment is ____

Answer 10

3 months

Question 11

Which of the following forms are required to be forwarded to PSC as soon as a reenlistment is effected?

Answer 11

DD Form 4, CG-4170A, CG-2020D, SGLI-8286, SGLI-8286A

Question 12

The Commandant will involuntarily extend all reserve enlistments in effect during war or national emergency for a period not later than _____

Answer 12

6 months from the end of the war or national emergency

Question 13

A 14 month extension can be authorized for the following circumstances with the exception of ______

Answer 13

Complete a vessel deployment

Question 14

How long does a reservist not in active duty need to be affiliated in order to qualify for the Selected Reserve Educational Assistance Program?

Answer 14

30 days

Question 15

Which of the following is not a valid reason to delete an extension before its goes into effect?

Answer 15

When dropped from school for a DUI

Question 16

The abbreviation SR stands for ______

Answer 16

General apprenticeship, recruit

Question 17

Among the personnel listed below, Who is considered the senior person?

Answer 17

A FSCS with 26 years of total service (12 Coast Guard, 14 Navy) and 5 years as an E-8

Question 18

For an award certificate, what is the correct way to write a member’s name?

Answer 18

Yeoman Second Class Bart E. Simpson

Question 19

What is the maximum amount of credits you can get for advancement from your sea time?

Answer 19

30

Question 20

<p>

| The Bronze Star Medal is worth \_\_\_\_\_ credits for advancement</p>

Answer 20

<p>

| 5 </p>

Question 21

A Chief that wants to compete for advancement must have 2 years as an E-7 before her/his ________

Answer 21

Terminal eligibility date

Question 22

An E-8 competing for advancement must have 12 years of ______

Answer 22

Active service

Question 23

SED are always ____ before the exam month

Answer 23

3 months

Question 24

When computing the SWE Marks Factor for an E-6, all the EERs for the previous _____ will be use

Answer 24

15 months prior to the SWE eligibility date

Question 25

For members attending advance training that want to compete in the SWE, what EERs are used to compute their SWE Marks Factor?

Answer 25

Marks done before the member entered advance training

Question 26

Who is authorized to sign EPQs?

Answer 26

Have to be at least one rank above the person and in the same rate

Question 27

A SN attending YN “A” can re-test for his EPME EOCT _____

Answer 27

Every 7 days

Question 28

A BM1 that got authorization change rates and to attend HS “A” school will report to the TRACEN as a _____

Answer 28

BM2

Question 29

Earlier this year EM1 Jones came to the Coast Guard directly from the Navy without losing rank. She wants to know is she can take next May’s SWE. You tell her _____ .

Answer 29

She have to have 2 years TIR in active duty in any branch of the armed forces

Question 30

EM1 Jones also wants to know how many sea duty points she will have for the SWE. You tell her _____

Answer 30

That CG PPC (adv) will make the determination of her sea points

Question 31

A BM2 that laterals to OS3 will have his sea points PSD ____

Answer 31

Will carry any points made as an E-4 and above until he makes OS2

Question 32

A member that is retired after he is declared unfit for duty and took the latest SWE will be ______

Answer 32

Advanced if his name is above the cut-off, the promotion will be done before he retires

Question 33

Advancements resulting from the SWE process shall be effective _____

Answer 33

On the 1st and the 16th of the month

Question 34

Personnel reduced to ___ will have their designators removed.

Answer 34

E-1

Question 35

Aside from “a” school, when does a non-rate get a designator assign to her/him?

Answer 35

When the person appears in the eligibility list

Question 36

Before a commanding officer can request a restoration/advancement of a formerly held rank/rate they need to observe the member for at least _____ but not more than _____ .

Answer 36

5 months 36 months

Question 37

How soon after a reduction to E-1 can a commanding officer advance the member to E-2?

Answer 37

There is no time constraint

Question 38

Personnel that get advanced after reduction in grade will not get a new promotion certificate.

Answer 38

False

Question 39

Periods of evaluation for members considered for reduction by reason of incompetence are ______

Answer 39

3 months

Question 40

Who can reduce a Chief Petty Officer for incompetence?

Answer 40

The Commandant

Question 41

4. Which of the following is not a legitimate reason for frocking an enlisted member?

Answer 41

To entitle the member to the proper travel entitlement

Question 42

Which of the following is not a valid Eligibility Date?

Answer 42

1 January

Question 43

Which of the following is a valid Terminal Eligibility Date?

Answer 43

1 January

Question 44

Which of the following is not a valid reason to request a substitute SWE?

Answer 44

Change of CO’s recommendation

Question 45

Strikers are not allowed to have any NJPs for ___ before being recommended for advancement

Answer 45

6 months

Question 46

Which of the following rates is not open for striking?

Answer 46

OS

Question 47

Placement on the striker list is done by ______

Answer 47

DTG in the message

Question 48

OIC in ashore units need ______ before they can wear the OIC Insignia

Answer 48

Serve as a designated OIC for six months

Question 49

When are miniature Coxswain Insignias authorized?

Answer 49

Never

Question 50

Measuring the qualities that the Coast Guard values in people, falls under what type of factor?

Answer 50

Professional

Question 51

EER Approving Official must be ____ .

Answer 51

OIC E-7 or above

Question 52

E-2 EER are due _____.

Answer 52

July

Question 53

Which of the following is a valid reason to skip a marking period?

Answer 53

Member is away TDY for more than 92 days

Question 54

For reduction in rate by reason for incompetence the CO is required to do a EER effective ____

Answer 54

The day before the reduction in rate

Question 55

In the EER process the terms: Low, Middle and high refer to ____

Answer 55

Performance standards

Question 56

A mark of 6 is considered _____

Answer 56

Excellent

Question 57

An E-6 with a sum of marks that falls below ___ in their performance factor will lose their eligibility for their good conduct award.

Answer 57

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