1 Flashcards

(124 cards)

1
Q

damage to the hepatic atery during difficult cholecsytecotmy can cause what?

A

bile duct strictures

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2
Q

what are the sequelea leading to chronic inflammation

A

resolution, organisation, supparation, chronic inflammation

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3
Q

which sinus is unpaired

A

superior sagital sinus

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4
Q

what are the 3 stages of gastric secretion

A

cephalic -smell/taste
gastric
intestinal

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5
Q

what does the zona glomerulosa secrete

A

aldosterone

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6
Q

what does the fasiculata secrete

A

glutocorticoids

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7
Q

what does the reticularis secrete

A

androgens

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8
Q

what is the main cytokine in surgery

A

IL6

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9
Q

what is the proximal border of anatomical snuffbox

A

styloid process of ulna

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10
Q

what is the contents of the anaotmical snuffbox

A

radial artery, superficial branch of radial nerve, cephalic vein

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11
Q

where does long head of biceps insert

A

suprglenoid tubercle of scapula

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12
Q

where does short head of biceps insert

A

coracoid process of scapula

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13
Q

where does the triceps insert

A

onto olecranon process of ulna

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14
Q

what causes increased anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

MUD PILES CAT (carbon monoxide, aminoglycosides, theophylline) methanol, urea, diabetic ketoacidosis, paraldehyde, isoniazid and iron, lactic acidosis, ethanol, salicyclates

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15
Q

what forms the posterior wall of the epiploic foramen

A

IVC

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16
Q

what lines the proximal urethra

A

pseudostratified columnar

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17
Q

what lines distal urethra

A

squamous epithelium

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18
Q

what causes stagnant hypoxia

A

crush injury

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19
Q

unilateral raised hemidiapragm during cardio surgery is usually caused by what

A

unilateral phrenic nerve injury

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20
Q

what causes the v wave in JVP

A

tricupsis closure and atrial filling

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21
Q

what causes x wave JVP

A

rapid atrial filling

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22
Q

what causes y wave JVP

A

opening tricuspid valce and emptying of blood into right ventricle

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23
Q

what causes c wave JVP

A

ventricles begin to contract bulging of AV valves, bulging tricuspid into atrium

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24
Q

what kind of necrosis does dead brain undergo

A

liquefactive

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25
how is azygous vein formed
R and lumbar and right subcostal vein
26
how is hemiazygous formed
left lumbar and left subcostal vien enters diaphragem through left crus of diaphragm
27
how is accessory hermiazygous formed
union of 4th to 8th intercostal veins
28
where do the majority of ectopic pregnancies occur
ampulla of fallopian tube
29
when do you get mycotic aneursyms?
bacterial infection
30
where does the radial nerve enter the forearm
anterior to the lateral epicondyle between brachialis and brachioradialis
31
where does the posterior interosseous nerve enter forearm
between two heads of supinator muscle
32
where does ulnar nerve enter foreamr
between two heads of flexor carpi ulnaris
33
where does median nerve enter the forearm
between two heads of pronator teres
34
where does brachial artery nerve enter forearm
between biceps tendon and median nerve
35
where do the inferior epigastric vessels lie
between transversus abdominis and peritoneum
36
how does sarcomas metastasise
across facial planes and metastasise via the blood stream
37
what is the most common cause osteomyeleits in sickle cell
salmonella
38
what nerve causes the cremasteric reflex
genitofemoral nerve
39
what antiboides are increased in Hashimotos thyroiditis
anti-thyroglobulin and anti-microsomal
40
side effects of TURP
Fluid overload, hypertension and reflex bradycardia
41
what supplies pec minor
medial pectoral nerve
42
what supplies pec major
medial and lateral pectoral nerve
43
where is calcitonin release from and what does it do
released from thyroid gland and inhibits PTH
44
Which muscle is attached to the anterior aspect of the fibrous capsule that encases the elbow joint
brachialis
45
whats in the middle mediastinum
Pericardium Heart Aortic root Arch of azygos vein Main bronchi
46
where is zinc absorbed
duodenum and jejunum
47
what causes the symptoms of dumping syndrome
increased insulin release
48
commonest cause of hesitancy and poor stream in children
posterior urethral valves
49
what is the pathology behind achalasia
progressive degeneration of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus in the oesophageal wall, leading to failure of relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter
50
which factor-synthesised outside the liver is least likely to be reduced if there is reduced hepatic function
Factor VIII is synthesised in the endothelial cells of the liver rather than the liver itself and therefore is less prone to the effects of hepatic dysfunction.
51
Where are most musculi pectinati found
musculi pectinati are found in the atria, hence the reason that the atrial walls in the right atrium are irregular anteriorly.
52
how is PTH secreted
by chief cells of parathyroid
53
what are the effects of PTH on bone
Binds to osteoblasts which signal to osteoclasts to cause resorption of bone and release calcium.
54
what are the effects of PTH on the kidney
Active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule. Decreases reabsorption of phosphate.
55
A 23 year old lady is undergoing a trendelenberg procedure for varicose veins. During the dissection of the saphenofemoral junction, which of the structures listed below is most liable to injury?
deep external pudendal artery runs under the long saphenous vein close to its origin and may be injured
56
equivalent to the pre-test probability
prevalence
57
how are the bulbouretral galnds form
from the urogenital sinus
58
what are the characteristic findings of median arcuate ligement
weight loss, epigastric bruit and abdo pain
58
what is the median arcuate ligament formed of
r and left crura of diaphragm
59
where does the sympathetic chain lie in relation to the pleura
posterior to the parietal pleura
60
where does the IVC start
L5
61
where does the sphenoid sinus drain in to
sphenoethmoidal recess
62
which is the only muscle to arise from the dorsum of the foot
extensor digitorum brevis
63
which nerve innervated both the ear and throat
glossopharyngeal
64
where does spinal cord terminate in neonates
L3
65
what is spondylolisthesis
one vertebra is DISPLACED relative to its immediate inferior
66
what bacterial infection can mimic appendicitis
yersinia enterocolitica
67
what type of bilirubin is raised in biliary atresia
conjugated
68
where does superior vagina drian into
iliac nodes
69
where does inferior vagina drain into
superficial inguinal nodes
70
what are the branches of the axillary artery
SCREW THE LAWYER SAVE A PATIENT superior throacic artery thoracoacromial artery lateral thoracic subscapular anterior circumflex posterior circumflex
71
which muscle passess posteriorly to lateral malleolus
peroneus BREVIS
72
operation for an obstructing rectal cancer
loop colostomy
73
which anaesthetic medicine can cuase histamine release
atracurium
74
what pathology is in the AAA
loss of elastic fibres from the media
75
what part of intervertrebral disc bulges to cuase sciatica
nucleus pulposus
76
which drug can be given via a peripheral line
metaraminol
77
which drug can cause generalised muscular contractions following administration
suxamethonium
78
what forms the posterior wall of the epiploic foramen
IVC
79
what lies posterior to the carotid sheath
cervical sympathetic chain
80
where does long head of biceps arise
infraglenoid tubercle
81
where is the femoral artery palpated
1-2cm inferior to the mid inguinal point
82
what symptoms will someone have if the have damage to the median nerve at the elbow
unable to pronate forearm weak wrist flexion ulnar deviation of the wrist
83
what are the boundaries of the deep inguinal ring
superolaterally-transversalis fascia inferomedially-inferior epigastric artery
84
where are paneth cells found
secretory cells in crypts of Lieberkuhn
85
where do inferior and superior gluteal arteries arise from
internal iliac
86
where do opiates act
in the medullary resp centres
87
is the posterior aspect of the knee synovial
yes its intrasynovial
88
how does osgood schlatter present
worse on activity, settles with rest caused by multiple micro fractures at the point of insertion of the tendon onto the tibial tuberosity
89
where does subclavian artery travel in relation to middle scalene
anterior
90
where does subclavian vien lie
anterior to anterior scalene at level of first rib
91
what is the commonest brain tumour in kids
astrocytoma
92
sudden anaemia and low reticulocytes in someone with sickle cell
parovirus
93
what incision for children
transverse supra umbilical
94
what may mimic achalasia
trypanosoma cruzi
95
what relation does chorda tympani run in relation to pars flaccida
medially
96
otic ganglion supplies where
parotid gland
97
ptergoplatine supplies where
lacrimal apparatus
98
what do parietal cells secrete
HCL, Ca, mg, intrinsic factor, NA
99
what is the main pathological response in burns
haemolysis
100
what does emphysema do to lung compliance
increase lung compliance
101
how does scaphoid get its blood supply
dorsal carpal branch
102
what happens to aponeurosis of rectus sheath below arcuate line
its deficient
103
where does oesophageal varices drain
hemiazygous vein
104
what does secretin do
secrete water and electrolytes
105
what lies most posteriorly in the spleen
lienorenal ligament
106
what is the mylohyoid innervated by
Mandibular branch CNV3
107
What is contained within the adductor canal
saphenous nerve, superficial femoral artery and superficial femoral vein
108
what is at the lower sternal angle
arch of aorta, thoracic duct crosses the midline, azygous vein joins SVC, tracheal bifurcation,costal cartilage of second rib
109
what drains into superior meatus
posterior ethmoidal sinus
110
what drains into middle meatus
fronal sinus, maxillary sinus, anterior and middle ethmoidal sinus
111
what drains into inferior meatus
nasolacrimal duct
112
what innervates the anterior scrotal skin
ilioinguinal nerve
113
what type of drug is an antimetabolite
5 FU
114
what type of drug is an anthracycline
doxorubicin, inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis by intercalating base pairs
115
what kind of drug is cyclophosphamide
alkalating agent, DNA cross links and death
116
what is type 1 statistical error
tests rejects a true null hypothesis
117
what is a type II error
null hypothesis is accepted when it is false
118
what kind of murmus is arortic regurgitation
early diastolic murmur
119
what kind of necrosis in malignant hypertension
fibrinoid
120
what is a bartons fracture
distal radial fracturs with radiocarpal dislocation
121
what is measured with helium dilution
functional residual capacity, residual volume and total lung capacity
122
what is vital capacity reduced in
PE, infiltration, effusions, weak resp muscles eg MG, GBS, myopathies, skeletal abnormalities
123
what are the contents of the anatomical snuffbox
radial artery, superficial branch of radial nerve, cephalic vein