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1
Q

are small, pinpoint hemorrhages measuring 1-2 mm in size, typically seen on mucosal or serosal surfaces.

A

Petechiae

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2
Q

What distinguishes hemorrhage by diapedesis from hemorrhage by rhexis?

a) Rhexis involves blood escaping intact vessels.
b) Diapedesis occurs through damaged vessels.
c) BOTH are processes where red blood cells leak out.
d) NEITHER is correct.

A

Answer: d) NEITHER is correct

Explanation: Rhexis occurs through vessel rupture, while diapedesis involves red blood
cells escaping through intact vessels

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3
Q

What lesion involves passive accumulation of blood on the venous side of circulation?

a) Hyperemia
b) Congestion

c) Edema
d) Shock

A

Answer: b) Congestion

Explanation: Congestion is the passive accumulation of blood within the venous system, often associated with cyanosis

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4
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypoproteinemia?

a) Pulmonary embolism

b) Generalized edema (anasarca)

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

A

Answer: b) Generalized edema (anasarca)

Explanation: Hypoproteinemia leads to low plasma oncotic pressure, causing generalized edema.

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5
Q

Which condition is characterized by fluid accumulation in the thoracic cavity?

a) Hydroperitoneum

b) Hydrothorax

c) Anasarca

d) Ascites

A

Answer: b) Hydrothorax
Explanation: Hydrothorax refers to the accumulation of fluid within the pleural cavity.

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6
Q

What process involves obstruction of a blood vessel by a dislodged clot or other mass?

a) Infarction

b) Thrombosis

c) Embolism

d) Edema

A

Answer: c) Embolism

Explanation: Embolism occurs when a mass travels through the circulatory system and lodges in a blood vessel, obstructing blood flow.

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7
Q

Which of the following is a potential consequence of left-sided heart failure?

a) Pulmonary edema

b) Ascites

c) BOTH a and b

A

Answer: a) Pulmonary edema

Explanation: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the lungs, resulting in pulmonary edema.

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8
Q

What type of thrombus is formed within the heart chambers or large vessels?

a) Mural thrombus

b) Valvular thrombus

c) BOTH a and b

d) NEITHER of the two

A

Answer: a) Mural thrombus

Explanation: Mural thrombi are clots that form on the walls of the heart chambers or large blood vessels

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9
Q

Which of the following is associated with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

a) Hypovolemia

b) Uncontrolled clotting and bleeding

c) BOTH a and b
d)NEITHER of the two

A

Answer: b) Uncontrolled clotting and bleeding

Explanation: DIC is characterized by the formation of widespread microthrombi, leading to both clotting and bleeding issues.

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10
Q

What is the immediate concern when a bubble of air enters the circulatory system?

a) Edema

b) Embolism

c) Shock

d) Congestion

A

Answer: b) Embolism

Explanation: Air embolism occurs when air enters the bloodstream, potentially causing blockages in blood vessels

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11
Q

Which of the following is not an outcome of chronic inflammation?

a) Tissue destruction

b) Formation of granulomas

c) Immediate vascular leakage

d) Angiogenesis

A

Answer: c) Immediate vascular leakage

Explanation: Immediate vascular leakage is characteristic of acute inflammation, not chronic inflammation. Chronic inflammation involves tissue destruction, granuloma formation, and angiogenesis.

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12
Q

Which of the following is primarily responsible for vasodilation during the early stages of inflammation?

a) Histamine

b) Prostaglandins

c) Leukotrienes

d) Bradykinin

A

Answer: a) Histamme

Explanation: Histamine is the key mediator causing vasodilation immediately after tissue injury, promoting blood flow to the site.

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13
Q

Which of the following immune cells dominate in the first 24 hours of acute inflammation?

a) Macrophages

b) Lymphocytes

c) Neutrophils

d) Basophils

A

Answer: c) Neutrophils

Explanation: Neutrophils are the first responders to acute inflammation, arriving within hours to perform phagocytosis

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14
Q

Which of the following exudates is most likely associated with severe infections?

a) Serous

b) Purulent

c) Hemorrhagie

d) Catarrhal

A

Answer: b) Purulent

Explanation: Purulent exudate contains pus, which indicates severe infection and the accumulation of neutrophils and dead cells

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15
Q

Which factor plays a crucial role in wound contraction during the repair phase?

a) Fibroblasts

b) Myofibroblasts

c) Collagen fibers

d) Keratinocytes

A

Answer: b) Myofibroblasts

Explanation: Myofibroblasts are specialized cells responsible for contracting the wound edges to reduce the size of the wound

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16
Q

Which of the following contributes to the resolution of acute inflammation?

a) Persistence of neutrophils

b) Switch to anti-inflammatory cytokines

c) Continuous tissue damage

d) Formation of granulomas

A

Answer: b) Switch to anti-inflammatory cytokines

Explanation: The transition to anti-inflammatory cytokines (like IL-10). resolution of inflamination and healing

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17
Q

Which cell type is associated with fibrosis during wound healing?

a) Neutrophils

b) Fibroblasts

с) Маcrophages
d) Eosinophil

A

Answer: b) Fibroblasts

Explanation: Fibroblasts produce extracellular matrix components, such as collagen, leading to fibrosis during tissue repair

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18
Q

Which of the following is true about granulation tissue?

a) It is primarily composed of cosinophils.

b) It forms after scar tissue develops
c) It contains new capillaries and fibroblasts.

d) It inhibits the proliferation of epithelial cells.

A

swer: c) It contains new capillaries and fibroblasts.

Explanation: Granulation tissue consists of newly formed capillaries and fibroblasts, which are critical for tissue repair

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19
Q

Which mediator increases vascular permeability but does not cause vasodilation?

a) Histamine

b) Prostaglandins

c) Leukotrienes

d) Bradykinin

A

Answer:

c) Leukotrienes r

Explanation: Leukotrienes increase vascular permeability but typically do not induce vasodilation.

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20
Q

Which of the following does not promote chronic inflammation?

a) Persistent infections.

b) Foreign body presence

c) Rapid resolution of injury

d) Autoimmune diseases

A

Answer: c) Rapid resolution of injury

Explanation: Rapid resolution of injury prevents chronic inflammation, while persistent infections and autoimmune diseases promote it

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21
Q

Which cytokine plays a major role in angiogenesis during wound healing?

a) IL-1

b) TNF-a

c) VEGF

d) IFN-y

A

Answer: c) VEGE

Explanation: Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF) promotes the formation of new blood vessels during tissue repair

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22
Q

Which of the following is true about labile cells?

a) They are terminally differentiated.

b) They do not regenerate after injury.

c) They divide throughout life.

d) They are restricted to muscle tissues.

A

Answer: c) They divide throughout life

Explanation: Labile cells, such as epithelial cells, continuously divide to replace old or damaged cells

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23
Q

Which mediator primarily sensitizes nerve endings to cause pain?

a) Histamine

b) Prostaglandins

c) Serotonin

d) Bradykinin

A

Answer: b) Prostaglandins

Explanation: Prostaglandins increase the sensitivity of pain receptors, causing inflammation-associated pain

Bradykinin can indeed play a role in causing pain. It is a peptide that causes blood vessels to dilate (enlarge), and it can induce pain by directly stimulating nerve endings. However, prostaglandins are primarily responsible for sensitizing these nerve endings, making them more responsive to bradykinin and other pain-inducing substances.

So, while bradykinin does contribute to pain, prostaglandins are the main mediators that sensitize the nerve endings to enhance the sensation of pain. Both work together in the complex process of pain and inflammation

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24
Q

Which of the following is a feature of fibrosis?

a) Accumulation of leukocytes

b) Deposition of collagen. c) Formation of granules

d) Immediate tissue regeneration

A

Answer: b) Deposition of collagen

Explanation: Fibrosis involves excessive collagen deposition, which can result in sear tissue formation.

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25
Which chemotactic factor attracts neutrophils during inflammation?
Answer: b) C5a Explanation: C5a, a complement component, is a potent chemoattractant for neutrophils.
26
Which cells are primarily responsible for phagocytosis in chronic inflammation?
Answer: b) Macrophages Explanation: Macrophages are key phagocytie eells during chronic inflammation, removing debris and pathogens.
27
Which of the following is not typically seen in acute inflammation? a) Vasodilation. b) Exudate formation c) Fibrosis d) Edema
Answer: c) Fibrosis Explanation: Fibrosis is a hallmark of chronic inflammation, not acute inflammation.
28
Which process refers to the replacement of lost tissue with the same type of cells?
Answer: b) Regeneration. Explanation: Regeneration restores the normal structure and function of the damaged tissue
29
Which of the following mediators causes fever?
Answer: b) IL-1 Explanation: IL-1 acts on the hypothalamus to raise body temperature, resulting in fever.
30
Which combination best describes the systemic effects of acute inflammation? a) Fever and leukocytosis b) Vasoconstriction and antibody production. c) Angiogenesis and edema d) Searring and fibrosis
Answer: a) Fever and leukocytosis Explanation: Acute inflammation leads to systemie effects, including fever and increased white blood cell count (leukocytosis).
31
Why does increased hydrostatic pressure lead to edema?
Answer: c) It forces fluid out of capillaries into tissues. Explanation: Elevated hydrostatic pressure drives fluid out of the vascular compartment into the interstitial space, leading to edema formation.
32
How does Virchow's Triad explain the formation of thrombi? a) Only mechanical injury is required for thrombus formation. b) Blood stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability work independently. c) A combination of blood stasis, injury, and hypercoagulability promotes thrombus formation. d) None of the factors directly affect thrombus formation.
Answer: c) A combination of blood stasis, injury, and hypercoagulability promotes thrombus formation.
33
Which condition best illustrates increased vascular permeability? a) Pulmonary edema from heart failure b) Liver cirrhosis with ascites c) Trauma-induced inflammation d) Nephrotic syndrome
Answer: c) Trauma-induced inflammation Explanation: Trauma increases vascular permeability, allowing proteins and fluid to leak into tissues.
34
What distinguishes mural thrombi from occlusive thrombi? a) Mural thrombi completely block the vessel lumen.. b) Occlusive thrombi attach loosely to vessel walls. c) Mural thrombi are found on the vessel walls, whereas occlusive thrombi block the entire vessel. d) Both thrombi form only during infection.
Answer: c) Mural thrombi are found on the vessel walls, whereas occlusive thrombi block the entire vessel. Explanation: Mural thrombi are attached to vessel walls without full blockage, while occlusive thrombi obstruct the vessel entirely.
35
Both cardiogenic and hypovolemic shock lead to tissue hypoxia. How do they differ? a) Cardiogenic shock results from blood loss, and hypovolemic shock from heart failure. b) Cardiogenic shock involves heart failure, while hypovolemic shock results from blood or fluid loss. c) Hypovolemic shock increases cardiac output, while cardiogenic shock does not. d) Both cause hypoxia through systemic infections.
Answer: b) Cardiogenic shock involves heart failure, while hypovolemic shock results from blood or fluid loss. Explanation: Cardiogenic shock is due to impaired heart function, while hypovolemic shock arises from volume depletion
36
Why does left-sided heart failure more often cause pulmonary edema than right- sided heart failure? a) Left-sided failure increases systemic venous pressure. b) It causes backflow into pulmonary veins, raising lung capillary pressure. c) Right-sided failure has more impact on kidney function. d) It directly increases pulmonary artery pressure.
Answer: b) It causes backflow into pulmonary veins, raising lung capillary pressure. Explanation: Left-sided heart failure impairs blood flow from the lungs, leading to fluid accumulation.
37
. How does protein deficiency contribute to generalized edema? a) It raises hydrostatic pressure within arteries. b) It reduces oncotic pressure, promoting fluid leakage into tissues. c) It triggers systemic vasodilation. d) It prevents sodium retention.
Answer: b) It reduces oncotic pressure, promoting fluid leakage into tissues. Explanation: Protein deficiency lowers plasma oncotic pressure, reducing fluid reabsorption from interstitial spaces.
38
Which combination of factors would most likely result in venous congestion?
Answer: a) Increased arterial inflow and decreased venous outllow Explanation: Reduced venous outflow leads to blood accumulation in veins, causing congestion.
39
Which statement about pulmonary edema is correct? a) It occurs when hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary artery decreases. b) It is characterized by protein-rich fluid in alveoli. c) It results from increased capillary permeability in the lungs. d) It leads to systemic vasoconstriction.
Answer: c) It results from increased capillary permeability in the lungs. Explanation: Pulmonary edema can result from damage to capillaries, increasing fluid leakage into alveoli.
40
Both mural and valvular thrombi can dislodge to cause embolism. Which is more likely to travel to the brain? a) Mural thrombi b) Valvular thrombi c) Neither a nor b d) Both a and b
Answer: b) Valvular thrombi Explanation: Thrombi on heart valves are more prone to embolization and can travel to cerebral vessels, causing strokes.
41
Why does chronic liver disease increase the risk of ascites? a) It decreases venous return to the heart. b) It lowers albumin production, reducing plasma oncotic pressure. c) It inhibits sodium absorption. d) It increases lymphatic drainage from the abdomen.
Answer: b) It lowers albumin production, reducing plasma oncotic pressure. Explanation: Hypoalbuminemia from liver disease promotes fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity.
42
Which mechanism best explains shock lung (congestive atelectasis)? a) Pulmonary artery dilation. b) Fluid overload in the alveoli c) Collapse of alveoli due to prolonged capillary congestion d) Bronchoconstriction from allergic reactions
Answer: c) Collapse of alveoli due to prolonged capillary congestion Explanation: In shock, blood pooling in the lungs compresses alveoli, impairing gas exchange.
43
Why does disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) cause both thrombosis and hemorrhage? a) It increases platelet production, b) It simultaneously depletes clotting factors and promotes coagulation. c) It reduces blood pressure. d) It affects only venous thrombi.
Answer: b) It simultaneously depletes clotting factors and promotes coagulation. Explanation: DIC consumes clotting factors, leading to thrombosis and a bleeding tendency,
44
Both embolism and thrombosis can cause infarction. How does their mechanism differ? a) Embolism is always due to air bubbles, while thrombosis involves clots. b) Embolism involves foreign material traveling to occlude vessels, while thrombosis is the formation of a clot at the site. c ) Thrombosis affects only veins, while embolism affects arteries. d) Embolism and thrombosis are unrelated to each other.
Answer: b) Embolism involves foreign material traveling to occlude vessels, while thrombosis is the formation of a clot at the site, Explanation: Thrombi form locally, whereas emboli travel to block distant vessels.
45
. How does neurogenic shock differ from other types of shock? a) It involves heart failure. b) It results from fluid loss. c) It occurs due to the loss of sympathetic vascular tone. d) It increases cardiac output.
Answer: c) It occurs due to the loss of sympathetic vascular tone. Explanation: Neurogenic shock leads to excessive vasodilation from impaired autonomic control.
46
. Why do prostaglandins play a critical role in pain during inflammation? a) They increase platelet aggregation. b) They sensitize nerve endings, amplifying the pain response. c) They inhibit the release of histamine. d) They decrease blood flow, causing tissue ischemia.
Answer: b) They sensitize nerve endings, amplifying the pain response. Explanation: Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) lowers the pain threshold, increasing the sensitivity of peripheral nerves to inflammatory stimuli.
47
How does edema develop during acute inflammation? a) Vasodilation reduces capillary hydrostatic pressure. b) Increased vascular permeability allows fluid to leak into tissues. c) Neutrophil migration draws fluid into tissues. d) Platelet aggregation promotes water retention.
Answer: b) Increased vascular permeability allows fluid to leak into tissues. Explanation: Vascular leakage occurs as endothelial cells separate, permitting plasma proteins and fluids to move into the extracellular space.
48
Which process ensures that leukocytes accumulate at the site of injury? a) Diapedesis b) Chemotaxis c) Phagocytosis d) Margination
Answer: b) Chemotaxis Explanation: Chemotaxis is the movement of leukocytes along a chemical gradient toward the site of infection or injury
49
Which of the following mediators increase vascular permeability? a) Histamine b) Leukotrienes c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Histamine and leukotrienes promote vascular leakage, enabling immune cells to infiltrate tissues.
50
Why does chronic inflammation result in fibrosis? a) Neutrophils release collagen-degrading enzymes. b) Fibroblasts secrete excessive collagen in response to persistent injury. c) Lymphocytes inhibit tissue repair mechanisms. d) Vascular permeability decreases over time.
Answer: b) Fibroblasts secrete excessive collagen in response to persistent injury. Explanation: Prolonged inflammation activates fibroblasts to lay down collagen, leading to scar formation and fibrosis.
51
Which cells are primarily responsible for phagocytosis of dead tissue during chronic inflammation? a) Eosinophils b) Neutrophils c) Macrophages d) Mast cells
Answer: c) Macrophages Explanation: Macrophages engulf and digest dead cells, debris, and pathogens during chronic inflammation.
52
How does nitric oxide influence blood flow during inflammation? a) It induces bronchoconstriction. b) It promotes vasodilation, increasing blood flow. c) It enhances platelet adhesion. d) It triggers neutrophil apoptosis.
Answer: b) It promotes vasodilation, increasing blood flow. Explanation: Nitric oxide relaxes vascular smooth musele, enhancing blood flow to the site of inflammation.
53
Which phase of inflammation involves the formation of a phagosome? a) Adhesion b) Emigration c) Phagocytosis d) Chemotaxis
Answer: c) Phagocytosis Explanation: Phagocytosis involves the engulfing of pathogens into vesicles called phagosomes for intracellular degradation.
54
Why do granulomas form in chronic inflammation? a) To block vasodilation at the injury site b) To encapsulate pathogens or foreign material that cannot be destroyed c) To prevent chemotaxis of neutrophils d) To inhibit fibroblast activation
Answer: b) To encapsulate pathogens or foreign material that cannot be destroyed Explanation: Granulomas isolate persistent pathogens or irritants that resist elimination.
55
Which cells are the first responders during acute inflammation? a) Lymphocytes b) Macrophages c) Neutrophils d) Eosinophils
Answer: c) Neutrophils Explanation: Neutrophils are the first to drive at the site of inflammation, providing an initial defense.
56
How does histamine promote inflammation? a) It decreases vascular permeability. b) It causes vasodilation and vascular leakage. c) It inhibits leukocyte migration. d) It triggers fibroblast activity.
Answer: b) It causes vasodilation and vascular leakage. Explanation: Histamine promotes inflammation by increasing blood flow and vascular permeability.
57
Which process describes the movement of leukocytes through vessel walls into tissues?
Answer: b) Diapedesis Explanation: Diapedesis is the passage of leukocytes through the endothelial wall into the tissue
58
Which inflammatory mediators directly induce pain? a) Bradykinin b) Prostaglandin E2 c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Bradykinin and prostaglandin E2 enhance the sensitivity of pain receptors.
59
Which cells dominate during chronic inflammation?
Answer: b) Macrophages Explanation: Macrophages play a central role in chronic inflammation by phagocytosing debris and secreting cytokines.
60
. Why is edema a common feature of acute inflammation? a) Neutrophils release water into tissues. b) Vascular permeability allows plasma to leak into tissues. c) Lymphatic drainage increases. d) Platelets aggregate in tissue spaces.
Answer: b) Vascular permeability allows plasma to leak into tissues. Explanation: Fluid accumulation in tissues results from increased permeability of blood vessels.
61
Which outcome characterizes the resolution phase of inflammation? a) Scar tissue formation b) Complete restoration of tissue structure c) Formation of granulomas d) Persistent fibrosis.
Answer: b) Complete restoration of tissue structure Explanation: Resolution restores tissues to their normal state without lasting damage,
62
How do fibroblasts promote healing? a) By enhancing neutrophil recruitment b) By secreting collagen to form the extracellular matrix c) By inhibiting macrophage activity d) By preventing capillary growth
Answer: b) By secreting collagen to form the extracellular matrix Explanation: Fibroblasts deposit collagen, providing structural support for regenerating tissue.
63
Why does acute inflammation sometimes progress to chronic inflammation? a) The initial injury resolves quickly. b) Persistent infection or irritants remain at the site. c) Neutrophil activity subsides too carly. d) Excessive collagen deposition inhibits tissue repair.
Answer: b) Persistent infection or irritants remain at the site. Explanation: Ongoing injury or infection sustains the inflammatory response, leading to chronie inflammation.
64
Which cells are involved in the formation of granulomas?
a) Neutrophils b) Macrophages c) Lymphocytes d) Both band e Answer: d) Both b and e Explanation: Macrophages and lymphocytes collaborate to form granulomas, isolating persistent pathogens..
65
Which phase of wound healing involves fibroblast proliferation? a) Hemostasis phase b) Proliferative phase c) Inflammatory phase d) Remodeling phase
Answer: b) Proliferative phase Explanation: Fibroblasts multiply during the proliferative phase, aiding tissue repair.
66
Which inflammatory mediators promote vasodilation?
a) Histamine b) Nitric oxide c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Both histamine and nitric oxide relax vascular smooth muscles, increasing blood flow.
67
. How does chronic inflammation affect tissue structure? a) It reduces immune cell activity. b) It promotes fibrosis through..... c) It enhances tissue regeneration d) It prevents angiogenesis.
Answer: b) It promotes fibrosis through collagen deposition. Explanation: Persistent inflammation stimulates fibroblasts to deposit collagen, leading to scar formation.
68
. Why are fibroblasts essential for wound healing? a) They seerete histamine to reduce inflammation. b) They produce collagen, forming new tissue. c) They prevent macrophage activation. d) They inhibit vascular permeability.
Answer: b) They produce collagen, forming new tissue. Explanation: Fibroblasts generate collagen, supporting tissue repair and regeneration.
69
Answer: d) Both b and e Explanation: Eosinophils and mast cells play roles in allergic reactions and parasitic defenses.
70
What marks the transition from acute to chronic inflammation? ) Persistent macrophage activity a) Resolution of infection b c) Neutrophil dominance d) Formation of scar tissue
Answer: b) Persistent macrophage activity Explanation: Chronic inflammation is characterized by prolonged macrophage involvement and tissue remodeling.
71
. A dog presents with sudden respiratory distress after long-distance travel. Which condition should be suspected first? a) Pulmonary edema b) Pulmonary thromboembolism c) BOTH a and b d) NEITHER of the two
Answer: b) Pulmonary thromboembolism Explanation: Pulmonary embolism is a common complication following prolonged inactivity or stress
72
A cat presents with pale mucous membranes, tachycardia, and lethargy. What diagnostic approach should be prioritized? a) Check for dehydration levels b) Perform a complete blood count (CBC) c) BOTH a and b d) NEITHER a nor b
Answer: b) Perform a complete blood count (CBC) Explanation: These signs suggest anemia or blood loss, requiring a CBC for confirmation.
73
A veterinarian observes a thrombus in a cow's jugular vein post-venipuncture. What is the most likely cause? a) Blood stasis b) Endothelial injury c) BOTH a and b d) NEITHER of the two
Answer: c) BOTH a and b Explanation: Thrombosis often results from blood stasis and vessel wall injury.
74
Which intervention is most appropriate for a dog with left-sided heart failure presenting with pulmonary edema? a) Administer loop diuretics b) Increase dietary sodium c) BOTH a and b d) NEITHER of the two
Answer: a) Administer loop diuretics Explanation: Diuretics help reduce fluid accumulation in pulmonary edema.
75
What condition could develop from injecting a solution containing bubbles into a vein? a) Thromboembolism b) Air embolism c) BOTH a and b d) NEITHER of the two
Answer: b) Air embolism Explanation: Air embolism can occur when air bubbles obstruct blood flow in a vessel.
76
A horse presents with jugular vein distention and ascites. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) Right-sided heart failure b) Left-sided heart failure c) Pulmonary edema d) Anemia
Answer: a) Right-sided heart failure Explanation: Right-sided heart failure often leads to systemic venous congestion and ascites.
77
Which of the following best describes the process of infarction? a) Tissue necrosis due to infection b) Necrosis resulting from vascular obstruction c) Tissue inflammation without neerosis d) Hemorrhagic diathesis leading to necrosis
Answer: b) Necrosis resulting from vascular obstruction Explanation: Infarction refers to tissue death due to blocked blood supply.
78
A dog with chronic liver disease shows signs of generalized edema. What is the most likely cause? a) Hypoalbuminemia b) Hyperkalemia (Potassium K-kalium) c) Increased plasma oncotic pressure d) BOTH a and b
Answer: a) Hypoalbuminemia Explanation: Chronic liver disease reduces albumin production, leading to generalized edema.
79
What is the primary mechanism involved in septic shock? a) Blood volume loss b) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability c) Decreased cardiac output d) Hypercoagulability
Answer: b) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability Explanation: Septic shock results from widespread vasodilation and leaky vessels due to infection.
80
A veterinarian notices petechial hemorrhages on a cow's mucosal surfaces. Which condition should be considered first? a) Coagulopathy b) Hyperemia c) BOTH a and b d) NEITHER of the two
Answer: a) Coagulopathy Explanation: Petechial hemorrhages often indicate an underlying coagulopathy.
81
Which of the following factors would likely exacerbate chronic inflammation despite the removal of the initial offending agent? a) Fibroblast overactivation b) Persistent cytokine release c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Even if the offending agent is removed, fibroblast overactivation can lead to fibrosis, and persistent eytokine release can prolong the inflammatory response.
82
How would impaired neutrophil diapedesis affect inflammation? = DIABETES a) Pathogen clearance would be delayed. b) Granuloma formation would be accelerated. c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: a) Pathogen clearance would be delayed. Explanation: Neutrophils are essential in the early phase of inflammation. Without diapedesis, they cannot reach the site of infection to clear pathogens efficiently.
83
What would happen if macrophages failed to transform into epithelioid and giant cells? a) Chronic inflammation would accelerate. b) Granulomatous inflammation would fail to develop. c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: b) Granulomatous inflammation would fail to develop. Explanation: Epithelioid and giant cells are essential for forming granulomas, a hallmark of chronic inflammation.
84
Why would excessive fibroblast activation during healing be detrimental? a) It can cause excessive scar formation. b) It can lead to contractures, impairing tissue movement. c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Overactive fibroblasts deposit excessive collagen, leading to scar tissue and contractures, reducing tissue flexibility.
85
What would be the consequence of unchecked complement activation (C5-C9) during inflammation? a) Formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC) b) Increased tissue damage c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Uncontrolled complement activation can result in MAC formation, which directly damages host tissues.
86
How would blocking arachidonic acid metabolism impact the inflammatory response? a) Prostaglandin synthesis would decrease. b) Leukotriene production would be inhibited. c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Arachidonic acid metabolism is required for the synthesis of both prostaglandins and leukotrienes, critical mediators of inflammation.
87
Which of the following would happen if vascular permeability were left unchecked during a severe inflammatory response? a) Persistent edema formation b) Development of hypovolemic shock c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Excessive vascular permeability leads to fluid leakage, causing edema and, in severe cases, hypovolemic shock.
88
What is the primary consequence of macrophages failing to secrete TNF-a during inflammation? a) Impaired fever induction b) Reduced apoptosis of infected cells c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: TNF-a plays a crucial role in inducing fever and promoting the apoptosis of infected cells, limiting pathogen spread
89
Why would failure of the kinin system impair the inflammatory response? a) It would reduce vasodilation. b) It would inhibit pain perception. c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: The kinin system, especially through bradykinin, promotes vasodilation and pain, which are essential features of inflammation.
90
Which condition would most likely result from an abnormal increase in cosinophils? a) Chronic allergic reaction b) Parasitic infection c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Eosinophils are elevated in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, where they play defensive roles.
91
What would happen if lymphocytes failed to transition from acute to chronic inflammation? a) Persistent neutrophil infiltration b) Lack of granuloma formation. c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Without lymphocyte involvement, it would entail neutrophil-dominated acute condition and the absence of macrophage formation (leading to granuloma formation).
92
Which of the following would likely develop if fibrosis became excessive during the healing process? a) Contracture deformity b) Impaired tissue remodeling c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Excessive fibrosis leads to contractures and disrupts normal tissue architecture, impairing function.
93
Why would failure to clear fibrin impair healing? a) Persistent exudate formation b) Delayed tissue remodeling c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Fibrin must be cleared for tissue remodeling to proceed. If not, exudate persists, and healing is delaved.
94
What would be the consequence of excessive anti-inflammatory activity? a) Increased susceptibility to infections b) Chronic inflammation c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: a) Increased susceptibility to infections Explanation: Suppressing the immune response too much leaves the body vulnerable to infections
95
Which symptom would most likely result from overproduction of leukotrienes? a) Bronchoconstriction b) Increased vascular permeability c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Leukotrienes cause bronchoconstriction and increase vascular permeability, leading to edema.
96
Which of the following would happen if prostacyclin (PG12) production is impaired? a) Increased platelet aggregation b) Reduced vasodilation c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation and promotes vasodilation, so its absence results in clotting and reduced blood flow
97
What is the most immediate effect if reactive oxygen species (ROS) production is blocked during phagocytosis? a) Impaired bacterial killing b) Reduced chemotaxis. c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: a) Impaired bacterial killing Explanation: ROS are essential for killing bacteria inside phagocytic cells.
98
How would impaired lymphocyte proliferation affect chronic inflammation? a) Granuloma formation would be impaired. b) Antibody production would decrease. e) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Lymphocyte proliferation is essential for granuloma formation and antibody production during chronic inflammation
99
What happens if mast cells fail to degranulate during an allergic response? a) Histamine release decreases. b) Vascular permeability decreases. c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Mast cell degranulation releases histamine, promoting vascular permeability. Without it, allergic responses are impaired
100
Which outcome would result from prolonged cytokine release during chronic inflammation? a) Tissue destruction b) Fibrosis c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
Answer: c) Both a and b Explanation: Persistent cytokine release contributes to tissue destruction and fibrosis, hallmark signs of chronic inflammation.

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