1 Flashcards

Question

IS A DESTINATION ALTERNATE REQUIRED? §91.169

Answer 1

“1-2-3” RULE A destination alternate is always required, unless: ■ An instrument approach is published and available for the destination, AND, ■ For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA: ▷ Ceiling will be at least 2000’ above airport elevation; and ▷ Visibility will be at least 3 SM.

Answer 2

Use the alternate airport minima published in the procedure charts, or, if none: Precision approach: 600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility. Non-precision approach: 800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility. If no instrument approach available at the alternate: Ceiling & visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR.

Answer 3

WAAS with baro-VNAV? LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 are allowed as basis for the flight plan’s alternate (Requires Special Authorization & RNP availability). WAAS Without baro-VNAV? Flight plan may be filed based on LNAV or circling minimas at the alternate (regardless of the available approaches at the destination). Equipped with a non-WAAS GPS? Flight plan can be based on GPS approach availability at either the destination or the alternate, but not at both.

Answer 4

Controlled airspace: IFR Cruising altitudes are as assigned by ATC. Uncontrolled airspace: based on magnetic course

Answer 5

Ensure obstacle clearance if plane: - crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35ft AGL, - reaches 400 ft AGL before turning, and - climbs at least 200 Feet per NM Pilots are encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal VMC or in IMC

Answer 6

Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) □ Provides obstacle clearance only. □ Printed either textually or graphically. □ Graphic ODPs are titled “(OBSTACLE).” Standard Instrument Departure (SID) □ Provide obstacle clearance and reduces workload by simplifying ATC clearance, minimizing radio communications. □ May include special radio failure procedures. □ SIDs are always published graphically. - You are not required to accept a SID. To avoid it, state “NO SIDs” in the flight plan’s remarks section. - Transition routes connect the end of the basic SID procedure to the enroute structure.

Answer 7

Non-RNAV DP □ Uses ground-based navigation (e.g., VOR, DME, NDB). RNAV DP □ Require at least RNAV 1 performance. □ Identified with the word “RNAV” in the title. RADAR DP □ Uses ATC radar vectors to a route, NAVAID, or fix after departure. □ Annotated “RADAR REQUIRED.”

Answer 8

■Ensures plane can climb/turn in any direction from a runway with obstacle clearance. ▷ All departures assessed using a 40:1 (~152 FPNM) Obstacle Clearance Surface (OCS). ▷ Standard required climb: **200 FPNM** ▷ The Required Obstacle Clearance (ROC) continues along the departure route until reaching 1,000 ft (non-mountainous areas) or 2,000 ft (mountainous) ▷ Assessment area is **25 NM** (non mountainous areas) or **46 NM** (mountainous) from departure airport. ▷ Pilots responsible for obstacle clearance beyond this distance when not operating on a published route, or when flying below the MEA, MOCA, or ATC assigned altitude. ■ If a runway fails to meet the diverse departure criteria, an Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) isdeveloped.

Answer 9

■ Cross the Departure End of the Runway (DER) at least 35 feet above DER elevation ■ Climb to 400 feet above DER elevation before making any turns ■ Continue climbing until reaching the minimum IFR altitude.

Answer 10

DVA allows ATC to vector aircraft below the Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA) or Minimum IFR Altitude (MIA) immediately after takeoff while still meeting obstacle clearance requirements.

Answer 11

■ A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC. ■ The pilot visually conducts climbing turns over the airport up to the published "climb to" altitude, from which he proceeds to the instrument portion of the departure. ■ Designed to avoid obstacles beyond 3 SM from the departure end of the runway (DER), as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than the standard 200 FPNM. ■ Advise ATC as early as possible prior to departure of the intent to fly a VCOA. ■ Published in the “Take-Off Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures” section of the TPP. ■ May appear as an option on graphic ODPs

Answer 12

“CRAFT” ■ C - Clearance limit. ■ R - Route. ■ A - Altitude. ■ F - Frequency (for departure). ■ T - Transponder code. Clearance void time – The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart. “Hold for release” – You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure. Release time – The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR. Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) – A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT. Abbreviated departure clearance – “Cleared (...) as filed (...)”

Answer 13

ATC-coded arrival procedure that serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made - simplify clearnace Transition routes connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedure Pilots can state "NO STARs" in remarks section of flight plan. Don't have to accept a STAR

Answer 14

- Obey with lateral routing, published speed restrictions on procedure (unless ATC) - Don't descend until authorized ATC

Answer 15

“Climb via (the SIDs name)” authorizes the pilot to: ▷ When used in the IFR departure clearance, in a PDC, DCL or when cleared to a waypoint depicted on a SID, to join the procedure after departure or to resume the procedure. ▷ When vertical navigation is interrupted and an altitude is assigned to maintain which is not contained on the published procedure, to climb from that previously-assigned altitude at pilot's discretion to the altitude depicted for the next waypoint. ▷ Once established on the depicted departure, to navigate laterally and climb to meet all pub

Answer 16

▷ Descend at pilot's discretion to meet published restrictions and latteraly navigate on a STAR ▷ When cleared to a waypoint depicted on a STAR, to descend from a previously assigned altitude at pilot's discretion to an altitude depicted at that waypoint ▷ Once established on the depicted arrival, to descend and to meet all published or assigned altitude/speed restrictions A climb/descend via clearance deletes previously assigned speed restrictions.

Answer 17

- Not a clearance; used for planning purposes only - Pilots must not descend to an "expect" altitude without additional ATC clearance

Answer 18

▷ Normally preceded by the phrase “climb and” or “descend and”. ▷ Pilot should begin the climb or descent to the assigned altitude upon receipt of the clearance ▷ In the US, any published restrictions on a STAR above the assigned altitude are cancelled.

Answer 19

Start climb/descent at pilot discretion and comply the crossing restriction.

Answer 20

- A “cruise clearance” can be issued by ATC to allocates a block of airspace to the flight. This airspace begins at the minimum IFR altitude and extends to the altitude (including) specified in the clearance - Within this block, you are free to climb and descend. However, once you start descending and verbally report leaving an altitude, you may not return to it without additional ATC clearance. - A cruise clearance also allows you to begin an approach at the destination without receiving an additional “cleared for approach” clearance. However, this clearance does not allow the pilot to descend under IMC below the applicable minimum IFR altitudes nor does it imply ATC is exercising control over aircraft in class G airspace.

Answer 21

Except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below: ▷ Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none: ▷ Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course. ▷ Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

Answer 22

the Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold) on a vertically guided instrument approach procedure (ILS, LNAV/VNAV, LPV, etc) at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or to go around.

Answer 23

Maximum Authorized Altitude

Answer 24

Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA

Answer 25

Minimum Descent Altitude which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing.

Answer 26

Minimum Enroute Altitude: The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated “MEA GAP” on IFR charts.

Answer 27

MOCA - Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude: The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR

Answer 28

Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids.

Answer 29

Minimum Turning Altitude: Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes. Annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction.

Answer 30

Minimum Vectoring Altitude: The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs

Answer 31

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non- mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas. OROCA may not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.

Answer 32

▷ Rigidity in space, and ▷ precession.

Answer 33

Attitude Indicator (AI): shows bank and pitch information Heading indicator (HI): reflects changes in heading, but cannot measure the heading directly. Turn Indicators: show rate-of-turn and rate of roll. Turn-and-slip indicators show rate-of-turn only.

Answer 34

ALTIMETER - In the US, when operating below 18,000’ MSL regularly set the altimeter to a station within 100 NM. Above 18,000’ MSL, the altimeter should be set to the standard sea level pressure of 29.92” Hg, and operate in Flight Levels (FL). - High to Low - Watch out below. Use caution when flying from high pressure to low pressure areas. If altimeter setting is not updated, altitude will indicate higher, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired. Flying from hot to cold areas results in the same error. VERTICAL SPEED INDICATOR (VSI) - Indicates rate-of-climb in fpm and rate trend AIRSPEED INDICATOR (ASI) - The airspeed indicator measures the difference between impact (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and ambient pressure from the static port. The result pressure is called dynamic pressure and corresponds to airspeed. - Dynamic Pressure (airspeed) = Impact Pressure – Static pressure

Answer 35

■ Indicated altitude – Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH). ■ Pressure altitude – Altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane (QNE). Used when flying above the transition altitude (18,000’ in the US) ■ Density altitude – Pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations. ■ True altitude – Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL). ■ Absolute altitude – Height above airport elevation (QFE).

Answer 36

■ Indicated airspeed (IAS) – indicated on the airspeed indicator ■ Calibrated airspeed (CAS) – IAS corrected for instrument & position errors. ■ Equivalent airspeed (EAS) – CAS corrected for compressibility error. ■ True airspeed (TAS) – Actual speed through the air. TAS is CAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure. ■ Mach number – The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound. ■ Ground speed – Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.

Answer 37

■ White arc - Flap operating range. Starts at Vs0; ends at Vfe ■ Green arc - Normal operating range.Starts at Vs1; ends at Vno ■ Yellow arc - Caution range. Fly only in smooth air and only with caution. ■ Red line - Vne

Answer 38

■ Airspeed indicator– Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude. ▷ Higher altitudes → airspeed indicates lower than it should. ▷ Lower altitudes → Indicates higher than it should. ■ Altimeter – will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked. ■ VSI – freezes on zero. ▷ After verifying a blockage in the static port, you should use an alternate static source or break the VSI window (in which case, expect reverse VSI information). ■ When using the alternate static source: (a lower static pressure is measured) ▷ Airspeed indicator – indicate a faster speed than it should. ▷ Altimeter – indicate higher than it should. ▷ VSI – momentarily show a climb.

Answer 39

The only instrument affected is the airspeed indicator. ■ Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open? Airspeed drops to zero. ■ Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged? The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable. ■ When suspecting a pitot blockage, consider the use of pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.

Answer 40

Altimeter – Set to local altimeter settings or to airport elevation. Shows surveyed elevation ±75 ft

Answer 41

Northern hemisphere: UNOS Undershoot North/ Overshoot South Northern hemisphere: ANDS Accelerate North/ Decelerate South

Answer 42

Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS) Provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems.

Answer 43

Air Data Computers (ADC) Replaces the mechanical pitot-static instruments. The ADC receives inputs from the pitot, static and outside temperature ports and computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and altitude.

Answer 44

computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course or vertical speed

Answer 45

Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director throughout the flight. The FMS also automatically monitors and selects the most appropriate navigation source for accurate positioning. (GPS, VOR/DME, INS etc.)

Answer 46

Primary Flight Displays (PFD) – Displays flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI and heading as well as rate tapes.

Answer 47

Multi-Function Displays (MFD) moving maps, aircraft system status, weather and traffic. It may also be used as a backup for other displays, such as the PFD or EICAS.

Answer 48

“A TOMATO FLAMES” – A - Altimeter T - Tachometer for each engine. O - Oil temperature indicator for each engine. M - Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine. A - Airspeed indicator. T - Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine. O - Oil pressure gauge for each engine. F - Fuel quantity gauge for each tank. L - Landing gear position lights (if retractable gear). A - Anticollision lights (for aircraft certified after March 11, 1996). M - Magnetic direction indicator (magnetic compass). E - ELT, if required by §91.207. S - Safety belt / shoulder harness.

Answer 49

“FLAPS” – F - Fuses (spare set). L - Landing light (if for hire) . A - Anticollision lights. P - Position lights (navigation lights). S - Source of electrical power (i.e., battery).

Answer 50

For IFR day: all VFR day equipment + GRABCARD For IFR night: all VFR day + VFR night + GRABCARD “GRAB CARD” – G - Generator / alternator. R - Radios. Two-way radio communication & navigational equipment suitable for the route to be flown. A - Altimeter (sensitive, adjustable for barometric pressure) B - Ball (slip-skid indicator). C - Clock. Shows hours, minutes and seconds with sweep-second pointer or digital representation. Installed as part of aircraft equipment. A - Attitude indicator. R - Rate-of-turn indicator. D - Directional gyro (heading indicator).

Answer 51

■ 108.0 to 117.95 MHz, excluding 108.10-111.95 with odd tenths (reserved for LOC frequencies). ■ Full scale deflection: 10º. ■ Pilot must verify correct and usable VOR station with morse ID before using it VOR Receiver Checks (§91.171) ■ Perform every 30 calendar days VOR limitations: cone of confusion, reverse sensing (if used incorrectly), requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station

Answer 52

▷ VOT ±4º ▷ Repair Station ±4º ▷ VOR ground checkpoint ±4º ▷ VOR airborne checkpoint ±6º ▷ Dual VOR cross-check ±4º ▷ Above a prominent ground landmark on a selected radial at least 20 NM from a VOR, flying at a “reasonable low altitude” ±6º VOR check sign-off D.E.P.S – D - Date E - Error (bearing error) P - Place S - Signature

Answer 53

■ Tuned automatically with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC). ■ Due to slant range error, when flying overhead the station, DME indicates greater than zero. ■ Slant range error is negligible at 1 NM DME station per every 1000ft height. (For example, at 5000 ft, slant range error is negligible when further than 5 NM of the station)

Answer 54

■ 190-535 kHz ■ Low to medium frequency band. ■ ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) in aircraft points towards the NDB. ■ Magnetic Bearing = Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing

Answer 55

Provides lateral course guidance - Width: Between 3°-6° so that at threshold = 700 ft - Coverage range: 35° to each side of the centerline for the first 10NM and 10° up to 18NM from the antenna and 18 NM up to an altitude of 4500'.

Answer 56

■ Provides vertical course guidance. ■ Width: 1.4º (full deflection is 0.7º either direction) ■ Range: typically up to 10 NM. ■ Slope: typically 3°. ■ Errors: False glide slope above normal glide slope.

Answer 57

■ Provide range information over specific points along the approach. ■ Outer marker: 4-7 miles out. Indicate the position at which the aircraft should intercept the GS ■ Middle marker: ~3500ft from the runway. Indicates the approximate point where the GS meets the decision height. Usually 200ft above touchdown zone elevation. ■ Inner marker: between the MM and runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT II ILS approach ■ Back course marker: Indicates the FAF on selected back course approaches. Not part of the ILS approach

Answer 58

■ Provides basic visible means to transition between instrument-guided flight into a visual approach. ■ ALS extends from the landing threshold into the approach area up to: ▷ 2,400-3,000 ft (precision) ▷ 1,400-1,500 ft (non-precision)

Answer 59

■ The constellation consists of +24 satellites orbiting above the earth. The system is designed so that at least 5 satellites are in view at any given location on earth ■ Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals. GPS can substitute ADF or DME, except for ADF substitution on NDB approaches without a GPS overlay (“or GPS” in title). ▷ Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) □ Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) □ Facilitates APV approaches such as LPV and LNAV/VNAV and non-precision LP approaches.

Answer 60

■ Types: ▷ Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) ▷ VOR/DME RNAV ▷ DME/DME RNAV ▷ Inertial Reference Unit / System (IRU/ IRS) ■ RNAV VNAV - Vertical NAVigation guidance. ■ BARO-VNAV - An RNAV system that uses the barometric altitude to compute vertical guidance for the pilot. ■ Published RNAV routes include Q (FL180 to FL450) and T (1,200 AGL to 18,000 MSL) routes and are designated RNAV 2 unless charted as RNAV 1. ■ Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB) - the published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route.

Answer 61

■ RNP is: ▷ A statement of navigation equipment and service performance. ▷ RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting. ■ All RNAV approaches are RNP approaches ▷ Most US RNP approaches are titled “RNAV (GPS)" ▷ US Approaches with “RNAV (RNP)” in the title are “AR” (Authorization Required) approaches, which require special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft and operation. RNP approach minima and equipment: ■ GLS DA minima using GBAS (formerly LAAS) ■ LP MDA or LPV DA minima require RNP achieved by WAAS. ■ LNAV / VNAV DA achieved by VNAV-approved WAAS, or BARO-VNAV systems. ■ LNAV MDA - achieved by a basic, unaugmented IFR-approved GPS

Answer 62

■ Area Navigation (RNAV) ▷ RNAV is a system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overfly ground-based stations. ■ GNSS is a broad term for satellite-based RNAV systems. ▷ GPS is the GNSS operated by the USA. ■ Performance Based Navigation (PBN) ▷ PBN is a general basis for navigation equipment standards, in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality for specific operation contexts (e.g., final approach, enroute, missed approach). ■ Required Navigation Performance (RNP) ▷ RNP is a specific statement of PBN for the flight segment and aircraft capability. ▷ RNP is also defined as RNAV + navigation monitoring and alerting functionality (RAIM or WAAS)

Answer 63

Basic attitude instrument flying skills: - Cross check - Instrument interpretation - Aircraft Control Common errors: - Fixation - Omission - Emphasis

Answer 64

▷ Pitch instruments: Attitude Indicator, Altimeter, Airspeed Ind., and VSI. ▷ Bank instruments: Attitude ind., Heading ind., Mag. Compass, and Turn Coordinator. ▷ Power instruments: Airspeed, Tachometer, Manifold pressure

Answer 65

“MARVELOUS VFR C500” * Missed approach * Airspeed ±10 kts / 5% change of filed TAS (whichever is greater) * Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude) * VFR on top when an altitude change will be made. * ETA changed ±2 min, or ±3 min in North Atlantic (NAT) * * Leaving a holding fix/point * Outer marker (or fix used in lieu of it) * * Unforecasted weather (§91.183) * Safety of flight * Vacating an altitude / FL * Final Approach fix * * Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure * Compulsory reporting points A * (§91.183) * 500 - unable climb/descent 500 fpm * Required only in non-radar environments (including ATC radar failure)

Answer 66

Non-charted holding clearance items: ▷ Direction of hold from the fix (e.g., N, W, S, NE) ▷ Holding Fix ▷ Radial, course, airway, or route on which to hold. ▷ Leg length in miles (if DME or RNAV) or minutes otherwise. ▷ Direction of turns (if left). Otherwise, right turns are standard. ▷ Expect Further Clearance (EFC) time Charted holding clearance items ▷ Holding Fix ▷ Direction of hold from fix (e.g., N, W, S, E) ▷ EFC Start speed reduction 3 minutes before reaching the hold fix.

Answer 67

5 Ts ▷ Turn ▷ Time ▷ Twist ▷ Throttle ▷ Talk MAKE ALL HOLD TURNS: ■ 3º per second, or ■ 30º bank angle, or ■ 25º bank angle if using a Flight Director AT THE HOLD FIX, REPORT TO ATC: “[Callsign] Over [place] [altitude] at [time]”

Answer 68

“A PTA TEN R” - ■ Aircraft ID. ■ Position. ■ Time. ■ Altitude. ■ Type of flight plan ■ ETA and name of next reporting fix. ■ Name only of the next succeeding point along the route of flight. ■ Any pertinent remarks.

Answer 69

■ Start timing outbound abeam/over the fix (whichever is later). Or, if the abeam point cannot be determined, start the time at the completion of the outbound turn. ■ Adjust the outbound leg so the inbound leg takes: ▷ At or below 14,000’ MSL – 1 minute ▷ Above 14,000’ MSL – 1.5 minutes ▷ DME/GPS holds – fly the outbound leg to the specified distance from the fix/waypoint. Max holding speed 6000ft or below: 200 kts

Answer 70

■ A PT is a maneuver that enables: ▷ Course reversal. ▷ A descent from IAF. ▷ Inbound course interception. ■ Max speed - 200 kts. ■ Remain within the charted distance, typically 10 NM ■ The shape of the maneuver is mandatory if a teardrop or holding- in-lieu of a PT is published. Otherwise, only the direction of the turn is mandatory. ■ A teardrop procedure may be published in lieu of a PT. In that case: ▷ No IF published? Intermediate segment begins 10 miles prior to the final approach fix. ▷ Nav facility located on the airport? Final approach starts at completion of the teardrop turn. However, the final approach segment begins on the final approach course 10 miles from the facility. ■ A PT or hold-in-lieu-of-PT is mandatory when depicted on the approach chart. However, it is not permitted when: “NoPT” depicted on the chart, when receiving radar vectors to final or when conducting a timed approach from a holding fix.

Answer 71

“SHARP TT” – ■ Straight-in approach clearance. ■ Holding in lieu of a procedure turn. ■ DME Arc. ■ Radar vectors to final. ■ No PT depicted on chart. ■ Timed approach from a hold fix. ■ Teardrop course reversal.

Answer 72

■ Precision: Lateral + vertical guidance to a DA. ▷ ILS - Instrument Landing System ▷ PAR - Precision Approach Radar ▷ GLS - GBAS Landing System ■ Non-Precision: lateral guidance only. Flown to MDA. ▷ VOR ▷ NDB ▷ RNAV / RNP to LNAV or LP Minima ▷ LOC - Localizer ▷ LDA - Localizer-type Directional Aid. Identical to a LOC but not aligned with the runway. ▷ SDF - Simplified Directional Facility. Similar to a LOC with 6º or 12º width. May be aligned or not with the runway. ▷ ASR - Approach Surveillance Radar ■ Approach with Vertical Guidance (APV). A precision-like approach, flown to a DA with lateral + vertical guidance, but does not meet precision approach standards. ▷ RNAV / GNSS (i.e, LNAV/VNAV and LPV minima) ▷ LDA with Glide Slope

Answer 73

■ When can you descend to the next instrument approach segment? ▷ When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route. ■ Contact approach (AIM 5-5-3) ▷ Requested by the pilot in lieu of an instrument approach. (Cannot be initiated by ATC) ▷ Requires at least 1SM ground visibility and remain clear of clouds. ▷ Only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures. ▷ Pilot assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance. ■ Visual approach ▷ Initiated by ATC or the pilot. ▷ Requires at least 1000’ ceiling and 3SM visibility. (IFR in VMC) ▷ Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight. ▷ Pilot is responsible for visual separation from traffic to follow.

Answer 74

■ Execute a missed approach when: ▷ Arrival at MAP or DH with insufficient visual reference to runway environment. ▷ A safe approach is not possible. ▷ Instructed to do so by ATC

Answer 75

1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. 2. The flight visibility (or the enhanced flight visibility, if equipped) is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. 3. At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: i. The approach light system ii. The threshold. iii. The threshold markings. iv. The threshold lights. v. The runway end identifier lights. vi. The visual glideslope indicator. vii. The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. viii. The touchdown zone lights. ix. The runway or runway markings. x. The runway lights.

Answer 76

A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established Calculate VDP, when not published: - DISTANCE: VDP (in NM from threshold) = MDH / 300 - TIME: MDH / 10 = seconds to subtract from time between FAF and MAP

Answer 77

A computed glide path from the FAF to the runway’s TCH published for non-precision approaches. Typically 3º. VDAs are advisory only, pilots must still comply with all published altitudes on the procedure.

Answer 78

Class A ■ Controlled airspace from 18,000' MSL to FL600 within the 48 contiguous states and Alaska. Includes the airspace within 12 NM of the shoreline as well as designated international airspace beyond the 12 NM distance. ■ IFR only unless otherwise authorized.

Answer 79

■ Controlled airspace surrounding the nation's busiest airports. ■ Usually extends from the surface up to 10,000' MSL. ■ The shape of each class B is specifically tailored for its environment (upside-down wedding cake). ■ Requires two-way radio communications. ■ ATC separates both VFR and IFR traffic. ■ Requires ATC clearance to enter. VFR pilots must make sure they hear a clearance to “Enter Class B”. IFR pilots will typically already have this clearance as part of their ATC clearance picked up before or after takeoff. ■ A Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment are required within a 30 NM radius (the "Mode-C Veil").

Answer 80

■ Controlled airspace around towered airports with certain number of IFR operations or passenger volume. ■ Typical inner area is a 5 NM radius surrounding its primary airport, extending up to 4,000' above airport height. ■ A 10 NM radius shelf area typically extends from no lower than 1,200' up to 4,000' above airport height. ■ A non-charted outer area extends up to 20 NM from the primary airport. ■ ATC Provides VFR/ IFR traffic separation in the outer area if two- way radio communication is established and in the Class C airspace itself. ■ Requires two-way radio communication, a Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment.

Answer 81

■ Controlled airspace extending from the surface to 2,500' above airport height. ■ Usually shaped as a cylinder with a 4 NM radius from the primary airport. ■ Requires two-way radio communication

Answer 82

■ Controlled airspace not designated as A, B, C, or D. ■ May or may not be associated with an airport. ■ Requires Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment at and above 10,000' MSL within the 48 contiguous states and D.C, excluding at or below 2,500' AGL. ■ Requires ADS-B Out at and above 3,000' MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the U.S. coast out to 12 NM. ■ Functions of Class E: ▷ Surface area designated for an airport. ▷ Extension to a surface area of Class B, C, or D. ▷ Transition area. Begins at 700' or 1200' AGL used to transition to/from a terminal or en-route environment. ▷ En-route domestic areas ▷ Federal Airways / Low Altitude RNAV Routes ▷ Offshore Airspace Areas

Answer 83

■ Uncontrolled airspace. Class G airspace is generally any airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E.

Answer 84

Prohibited Areas - Flight prohibited unless explicit permission is granted due to national security or welfare. Example: P-56A over the White House. Restricted Areas - Flight subject to restrictions due to hazards (artillery, missiles); requires permission from controlling agency if active. If inactive, ATC may authorize flight without specific clearance. Warning Areas - Extends from 3 NM offshore, containing hazardous activities (domestic/international waters). Purpose is to warn nonparticipating aircraft of potential danger. Military Operating Areas (MOA) - Separate military training (e.g., air combat, aerobatics) from IFR traffic; IFR aircraft may transit if separation can be maintained. VFR pilots should exercise extreme caution, obtain real-time info from nearby FSS, and contact controlling agency for advisories. Alert Areas - Indicate areas with high-density pilot training or unusual aerial activity. Pilots responsible for collision avoidance. Controlled Firing Areas - Activities immediately cease when nonparticipating aircraft approach, thus not charted or requiring special action by pilots. Military Training Routes (MTR) Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR) - Defined in NOTAMs "Flight Restrictions"

Answer 85

■ Mach 1.0 (speed of sound): above 10,000' MSL. (§91.817) ■ 250 kts: below 10,000' MSL. ■ 200 kts: under Class B, or within a VFR corridor through Class B. ■ 200 kts: at or below 2,500' within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or D airspace.

Answer 86

- EFB: foreflight - ADS-B (cockpit display) - ATIS: Automatic Terminal Information Service (continous broadcast every 55min past hour) - Automated Surface Observation System (ASOS) - Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS) - ATC - Center weather advisories are issued by ARTCC to - Onboard weather radar - Flight Service Station (FSS) - https://www.aviationweather.gov/

Answer 87

Standard – Comprehensive briefing covering adverse conditions, current and forecasted weather, winds aloft, NOTAMs, and ATC delays. Abbreviated – Updates to previously obtained briefing or mass disseminated information. Outlook – Provided for departures 6+ hours away; includes forecasts for planned flight time. Inflight – Any briefing provided by Flight Service Station (FSS) while airborne.

Answer 88

AIRMET (WA): - Advisory of significant weather phenomena at lower intensities than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs. - valid for 6 hours. - Types: AIRMET (T) moderate turbulence and surface winds ≥30 knots; AIRMET (Z) moderate icing; AIRMET (S) IFR conditions/mountain obscurations. SIGMET (WS) - Non-scheduled advisory, with a maximum forecast period of 4 hours - Severe non-convective conditions (icing, severe turbulence, dust/sandstorms with visibility <3 miles). Applies to all aircraft. Convective SIGMET (WST) - An inflight advisory of convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft. - Issued hourly, valid for 2 hours - Severe storms, embedded storms, tornadoes, hail ≥¾ inch, and surface winds ≥50 knots.

Answer 89

METAR – Surface weather observation, published every 1h. - Non-scheduled METARS (SPECI) issued when there is a big change since last METAR TAF – Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. Weather forecast for 5SM radius area around the station. Issued every 6h, covers a 24h - 30h forecast period. Surface analysis chart –Generated from surface station reports. Shows pressure systems, isobars, fronts, airmass boundaries and station information (e.g,: wind, temperature/dew point, sky coverage, and precipitation). Issued every 3 hours. Wind & temp aloft forecasts (FB) – Issued 4 times daily for various altitudes and flight levels. (Format: DDff±tt, where DD = wind direction; ff = wind speed; tt = temperature. Light and variable winds: 9900. Winds between 100-199 Kt are coded by adding 5 to the first digit of the wind direction. Convective outlook (AC) – Available in both graphical and textual format. A 3-day forecast of convective activity. Convective areas are classified as marginal (MRGL), slight (SLGT), enhanced (ENH), moderate (MDT), and high (HIGH) risk for severe weather. Issuance: day 1 – 5 times a day, day 2 – twice a day, day 3 – once a day. Next Generation Weather Radar (NEXRAD) products: 1 and 3-hour precipitation, echo tops...

Answer 90

The Three Conditions Required for the formation of Thunderstorms: 1. Sufficient water vapor (moisture). 2. An unstable temperature lapse rate. Stability is the resistance of the atmosphere to upwards or downwards displacement. An unstable lapse rate allows any air mass displacement to further grow vertically. 3. An initial uplifting force (e.g., front passages, orographic lifting by topography, heating from below, etc.). Three Stages in Thunderstorm Lifecycle: 1. Cumulus (3-5 mile height) – The lifting action of the air begins, growth rate may exceed 3000 fpm. 2. Mature (5-10 miles height) – Begins when precipitation starts falling from the cloud base. Updraft at this stage may exceed 6000 fpm. Downdrafts may exceed 2500 fpm. All thunderstorm hazards are at their greatest intensity at the mature stage. 3. Dissipating (5-7 miles height) – Characterized by strong downdrafts and the cell dying rapidly. Thunderstorm Hazards: ■ Limited visibility ■ Wind shear ■ Strong updrafts / downdrafts ■ Icing ■ Hailstones ■ Heavy rain ■ Severe turbulence ■ Lightning strikes and tornadoes.

Answer 91

A cloud that begins within 50 ft of the surface. Fog occurs when: ■ The air temperature near the ground reaches its dew point, or ■ when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air. Types of fog ■ Radiation fog – Occurs at calm, clear nights when the ground cools rapidly due to the release of ground radiation. ■ Advection fog – Warm, moist air moves over a cold surface. Winds are required for advection fog to form. ■ Ice fog – Forms when the temperature is much below freezing and water vapor turns directly into ice crystals. Ice fog is common in the arctic regions, but also occurs in mid-latitudes. ■ Upslope fog – Moist, stable air is forced up a terrain slope and cooled down to its dew point by adiabatic cooling. ■ Steam fog – Cold, dry air moves over warm water. Moisture is added to the airmass and steam fog forms.

Answer 92

■ Structural Ice. Two conditions for formation: 1. Visible moisture (i.e., rain, cloud droplets), and 2. Aircraft surface temperature below freezing. ▷ Clear ice– The most dangerous type. Heavy, hard and difficult to remove. Forms when water drops freeze slowly as a smooth sheet of solid ice. Usually occurs at temperatures close to the freezing point (-10° to 0° C) by large supercooled drops of water ▷ Rime ice – Opaque, white, rough ice formed by small supercooled water drops freezing quickly. Occurs at lower temperatures than clear ice. ▷ Mixed ice – Clear and rime ice formed simultaneously. ■ Instrument ice – Structural ice forming over aircraft instruments and sensors, such as pitot and static. ■ Induction ice – ice reducing the amount of air for the engine intake. ■ Intake ice – Blocks the engine intake. ■ Carburetor ice – May form due to the steep temperature drop in the carburetor Venturi. Typical conditions are outside air temperatures of -7° to 21° C and a high relative humidity (above 80%). ■ Frost – Ice crystals caused by deposition when both the temperature and the dew point are below freezing.

Answer 93

Hypoxia - Insufficient supply of oxygen to the body cells. Hyperventilation – excessive amount of CO2 is eliminated from the body as a result of breathing too rapidly. Symptoms may be similar to those of hypoxia. Breathing into a paper bag or talking aloud helps recovery from hyperventilation Decompression sickness – Inert gasses (mainly nitrogen) are released rapidly from solution in the body tissues and fluids as a result of low barometric pressure. The gasses form bubbles that may harm the body in several ways. The most common result of decompression sickness is joint pain (“the bends”). To help prevent the bends after SCUBA diving: wait at least 12 hours after diving that does not require a controlled ascent (non-decompression stop diving) for flights up to 8000 ft MSL; wait 24 hours for flights above 8000 ft or after any diving that required a controlled ascent (decompression stop diving).

Answer 94

Unpressurized cabins ▷ Cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 to 14,000’ MSL (including) – The required minimum flight crew must be provided with and must use supplemental O2 for periods of flight over 30 minutes at these altitudes. ▷ Cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000’ – The required minimum flight crew must be provided with and must use supplemental O2 the entire flight time at these altitudes. ▷ Cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000’ MSL – Each occupant must be provided with supplemental O2.

Answer 95

VESTIBULAR ILLUSIONS coriolis (prolonged turn false sension of acceleration) VISUAL ILLUSIONS: false horizon, autokinesis (stare at point of light in a dark environment may cause light to appear to be moving) OPTICAL ILLUSIONS: runway width, haze (illusion runway is farther), fog (illusion of nose up motion)

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