-1 Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

What are the 5 parts of section I or the 1H-65E-1?

A

System descriptions
Part A- Airframe, Power plant and systems
Part B- avionics architecture/nav
Part C- Communication systems
Part D- sensor systems
Part E- mission equipment

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2
Q

What are the 3 parts of section II or the 1H-65E-1?

A

Normal procedures
Part A- operating procedures
Part B- Operational procedures
Part C- special procedures

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3
Q

What is section III of the 1H-65E-1?

A

Emergency operating procedures

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4
Q

What is section IV of the 1H-65E-1?

A

Crew duties

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5
Q

What is section V of the 1H-65E-1?

A

Operating limitations

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6
Q

What is section VI of the 1H-65E-1?

A

Flight characteristics

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7
Q

What is section VII of the 1H-65E-1?

A

Adverse weather operations

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8
Q

What is section VIII of the 1H-65E-1?

A

Performance data

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9
Q

What is the maximum unrestricted gross weight of the MH-65?

A

8,900 lbs

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10
Q

What is the maximum estricted gross weight of the MH-65?

A

9,480 lbs

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11
Q

What is the maximum ramp gross weight of the MH-65?

A

9,590lbs

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12
Q

Aircraft dimensions of the Rotor diameter?

A

39ft 2inches

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13
Q

Aircraft dimensions of the tail rotor diameter?

A

3ft 6in

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14
Q

What is the height to the top of the tail?

A

13ft 5inches

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15
Q

What is the height to the top of the rotor head?

A

11ft 8 inches

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16
Q

What is the height of the aircraft with the rotor head and landing gear removed?

A

8 ft 4 inches

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17
Q

What is the overall length of MH-65

A

44ft 10 inches

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18
Q

What is the length of the aircraft with blades folded?

A

39 ft 5 inches

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19
Q

What is the length of the Mh-65 disassembled for shipment?

A

21 ft 5 inches

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20
Q

What is the width of the MH-65 at the stabilizer?

A

10 ft 6 inches

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21
Q

What is the width of the MH-65 with the stabilizer removed?

A

6 ft 8 inches

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22
Q

What is the length of the wheel base?

A

11ft 10 inches

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23
Q

Dimensions of the main landing gear track?

A

6 ft 8 inches

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24
Q

What is the minimum static ground clearance?

A

8 ft 2 inch

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25
What is the minimum ground clearance with cyclic displaced to forward limit light illumination?
7 ft 7.2 inches
26
What is the ground clearance of the MH-65
6 inches
27
How large is the cargo area of an MH-65
It can accommodate two pallets 32 by 42 inches
28
How many cabin floor toe downs are on the MH-65
24
29
How many tiedowns are in the baggage compartment
4
30
How many doors are on the MH-65
4 personnel access doors, a baggage compartment door, and an overhead hatch
31
How do the cockpit doors work?
They are opened by rotating downward. A gas filled strut holds each door open.
32
How do the personnel doors be locked?
By raising the door handles to a horizontal position. A metal colored flag projects from the rear of each door frame to indicate that the door is not locked. The flags are visible from either cockpit position and disappear from view when the respective door is locked.
33
How are the cockpit emergency release handles activated?
The doors are jettisoned by raising and pulling aft on the jettison handle and pushing downward.
34
What is the minimum door opening on the baggage compartment door?
19 inches by 28 inches
35
How does the helicopters emergency flotation system work?
The emergency flotation gear consist of two cylindrical floats, each partitioned into two independent airbags stored in a compartment on each side of the fuselage, and two spherical floats, one mounted in a compartment on each side of the after fuselage. Two helium filled gas cylinders located in the aft float compartments provide inflation for all floats. The emergency flotation care is powered directly from the number one main DC and number two main DC buses through two fuses located in the master electrical box in the nose compartment and is protected by eight circuit breakers in the baggage compartment overhead.
36
How long does it take to inflate the emergency floats?
2.5 seconds and the cylinders completely discharge in less than 4 seconds.
37
Where is the portable fire extinguisher located and what are the specifications of the extinguisher?
Hand operated portable fire extinguisher is installed on the back of the pilot seat and held in place by a bracket with a tight fitting quick release spring. The capacity is 2.5 pounds of halon liquefied gas pressurized with nitrogen to 125 psi duration of operation is approximately 10 seconds with a horizontal range of about 9 to 15 feet.
38
How many first aid kids are on the MH-65?
Two first aid kits are installed. One is mounted on the front of the 9° bulkhead and the other is stowed in a bag attached to the inside of the baggage compartment door.
39
How many people can the emergency water ditching life raft hold?
The dual-tube raft with a self-erecting canopy that can normally hold 6 people but can overload and hold 9.
40
How many crash axes and where are they located?
2, one on the backside of the copilot seat, a second wheel n the baggage compartment door.
41
What is the UAB? What are its characteristics?
The underwater acoustic beacon is mounted to the VFDT in the avionics rack in a water tight case. It can with stand 20000 feet of water immersion. Water activated and transmits on 37.5kHz. Can operate for 30 days after activation and is detectable 2000-4000 yards.
42
What frequencies does the ELT transmit on
121.5 and 406 MHz
43
How long are ELT good for?
They have a life of 5 years if unused
44
Battery life of an ELT on 406 MHz
24 hours (5 Watts)
45
Battery life of an ELT on 121.5 or 243.0 MHz
48 hours (.1 watts)
46
How many G’s of force does it take to activate the ELT
Approximately 2.6 G’s
47
What type of engines are on the MH-65
Two turbomeca Ariel 2C2-CG engines
48
Minimum standard day ratings of the MH-65
1005 SHP for single engine 712 for dual engine operation
49
What does 100 percent MGB torque represent
1294 SHP
50
What are the five sections of the Ariel 2C2-CG
Accessory gear box and transmission shaft Axial compressor Gas generator free power turbine (N2) Reduction Gear box
51
How does the Arriel 2C2-CG work
Pressurized fuel sprayed into the combustion chamber by two fuel nozzles and is combined with compressed air. The fuel air mixture is ignited by two igniters for starting only once the start is self sustained at approximately 45% N1 igniter and fuel nozzles are no longer operable and fuel is delivered by centrifugal fuel wheel rotating inside the combustion chamber expanding gases are discharged from the left end of the combustion chamber towards the gas turbine assembly the single stage. Gas turbine turns the compressor assembly and direct gases to the single stage free power, turbine, inlet free power turbine, which is mechanically independent of the gas generator extract energy from the hot gases and transmitit to the power shaft via the reduction gearbox the gases exit through the exhaust pipe at the rear of the engine.
52
How many RPM does the reduction gearbox reduce free power turbine speed?
6000 rpm engine output shaft speed
53
What components make up the gas generator section?
Axial compressor, centrifugal, compressor, a combustion chamber, and a gas generator turbine (N1)
54
At 100% N1 the gas generator turbine shaft turns out approximately how many RPM?
52,000 RPM
55
How is the rotational speed measured of the gas generator turbine shaft?
Is measured by an electromagnetic sensor, mounted on the FADEC alternator driveshaft
56
What does the gas generator drive?
The starter generator, oil pump, fuel pump, and the FADEC alternator
57
At 100% N2 how many RPM does the free power turbine shaft turn?
Approximately 39,000 RMP
58
How was the speed of the free power turbine shaft determined?
By three sensors (N2A,N2B, and N2C) located on the reduction, gearbox, casing, and power turbine case
59
Where is N2A transmitted directly to?
To the CDU for indication on the MFD
60
Where are N2B and N2C transmitted to?
They are transmitted to the FADEC and EICAS for N2 speed control, and over speed protection
61
What accessories are driven by the power turbine?
The output shaft and the engine compartment cooling fan
62
When does the free power turbine over speed on N2 activate?
When the N2 reaches a speed of 429+/- 4 RPM
63
How does the free power turbine over speed work?
Once the maximum RPM is reached on N2 the DECU will operate the stop electro valve via the BIM and shut down the engine
64
How does fuel flow for engine operation work?
It is provided by a dual stage engine driven fuel pump, which suction lift the fuel from the helicopter fuel supply system. Additionally, two boost pumps located in the fuel supply system. Feed tanks are incorporated into each fuel system to pressurize the fuel lines and aid in the delivery of fuel.
65
What type of pump is in the fuel metering assembly?
A low pressure pump
66
Where does fuel travel to after the fuel metering assembly?
It travels through a fuel-oil heat exchanger to heat the engine fuel and aid in the cooling of the engine oil
67
After the fuel-oil heat exchanger where does fuel go?
After the fuel-oil heat exchanger. The fuel passes through the filter itself which incorporates a blockage indicator and filter pre-blockage switch for indication in the cockpit.
68
What two caution displays will illuminate if the pressure difference across the filter increases to approximately 10 psi
FUEL FILT 1 or FUEL FILT 2
69
Actual bypass of the filter occurs at what psi?
17 PSI
70
After the filter, where is fuel flow?
Through a high-pressure pump which always provides more fuel than the engine needs and excessive fuel is routed to the outlet side of the low pressure pump.
71
What controls the fuel metering unit
The FADEC
72
What does the fuel meter assembly do?
It controls the fuel flow in normal operating modes in response to signals from the FADEC
73
When the FADEC send a fuel demand what happens?
The unit activates a dual stepper motor that controls the fuel flow and returns a signal to the FADEC. This return signal tells the FADEC the fuel adjustment was made whether or not the stepper motor is working properly.
74
What components make up the engine oil system?
An oil tank, oil cooler, various pressure pump and three scavenge pumps, filter/heat, exchanger, magnetic plugs, and electrical chip detector
75
What drives the oil pump?
Engine accessory gearbox
76
After lubercation where does oil go?
Oil collects in the bottom of the dumps and the oil is the immediately drawn out by three scavage pumps and is returned to the oil tank after passing through the oil cooler.
77
What temperature does the ENG 1 OIL TEMP or ENG 2 OIL TEMP warning pop up?
115°C
78
What is the maximum capacity in each oil tank?
Approximately two gallons
79
During preflight, the oil level should be between what?
Between the bottom of the site glass and the MIN line.
80
How many engine oil coolers are there?
2
81
Where are the mounted engine oil coolers?
Forward of the MGB in series with the MGB oil cooler
82
If insufficient ram air, what provides airflow to the main gearbox?
A fan driven by the MGB
83
What does the color green yellow and red mean in relation to the engine data display?
Green means all the parameters associated with the engine or normal Yellow is when one or more of the parameters associated with that engine are in the caution range and no parameters are in the warning range Red is when one or more of the parameters associated with that engine are in the warning range
84
How is an engine out indicated?
A red square around the entire engine data display with a red X through it
85
How many fire warning circuits are located on each engine?
There are three fire warning circuits two are located on the accessory/reduction gearbox section(200°c) and one is located on the gas generator(400°c)
86
What are the three components of the fire extinguisher system?
Two spiracle bottles, a distribution system, and an electrical control system
87
How do the spherical bottles work in fire, protect protection?
Each is equipped with a dual discharge head activated by explosive squibs, a pressure, relief valve, and a pressure switch. Each bottle contains halon.
88
How many push button switches are there for each electrical control system of the fire extinguishing system?
4 push button switches
89
At what psi does the L EXT or R EXT causation illuminate
Below 230 psi
90
What are the components of the main rotor system?
A semi rigid, main rotor, head, shaft, and four main rotor blades
91
Which was does the rotor rotate
Clockwise as viewed from above
92
How are the rotor blades connected to the center hub
By means of Rigid attachment bars that permit flapping drag and pitch change functions through the use of laminated spherical, thrust bearings and sheer deformable frequency adapters
93
An anticone stop for each blade facilitate starting in what?
High winds
94
What causes anticone stops to retract?
Centrifugal force. When rotor speed decreases, the stops are extended to their initial position by return spring.
95
At what RPM do the anticone spring return the stops to their normal position
181-202rpm
96
What components make up the rotor shaft assembly?
The rotor shaft, swashplates, a conical housing, pitch change rods, and a blade droop restrainer ring.
97
Where is the main rotor shaft splined and what does it connect to?
It is splined at the lower end and mated with the MGB.
98
Where is the main rotorhead bolted to?
The upper end of the main rotor shaft
99
Describe the main rotor blade construction
Each rotor blade has a stainless leading edge strip for protection against erosion and abrasion. Integral brass weight is installed to counteract natural flapping frequencies. The outer skin is made of carbon fiber cloth a fiberglass main spar is located between the foam core and stainless steel leading edge. Six trim tabs are installed on the outer trailing edge for dynamic tracking and balancing.
100
How does the rotor brake control leaver work?
In the released position, the rotor brake control is fully forward. In the applied position the rotor brake is fully aft.
101
What is the purpose of the rotor brake
It is used to prevent the rotor from turning while the aircraft is parked, and is also used to reduce the coast down time of the rotors after engine shutdown.
102
What positions should the rotor brake be in?
Either applied fully or not at all
103
How many blades make up the tail rotor?
10
104
How is the Tail rotor driven
Tail gear box by a segmented drive tube extending aft from the main gear box along the top of the tail boom.
105
What makes up the tail rotor head?
A rotor hub, central plate, pitch change spider, and a fairing.
106
Each tail rotor blade is made of how many individual tension stainless steel layers ?
38
107
How are the blades arranged on the tail rotor section?
In an uneven pattern to reduce the noise signature.
108
What makes up the transmission system?
Two gearboxes (main and tail), a tail rotor drive shaft, and two engine to MGB coupling units.
109
What permits the MGB to operate at higher RPM than either engine input during single engine operations or auto rotations?
Free wheeling unit.
110
What type of reduction gear system is on the MH-65
Three stage reduction gear which reduces engine input RPM by a ration of 17 to 1 to drive the main rotor and 1.5 to 1 to drive the tail rotor.
111
What does the left accessory gear box drive/control?
The secondary hydraulic pump and the No. 1 alternator
112
What does the right accessory gear box drive/control?
The primary hydraulic pump and the No. 2 alternator.
113
What does the main gear box oil supply do vs the auxiliary?
The main system provides oil flow through external lines and the oil cooler, the auxiliary system provides internal oil flow only.
114
During normal operation how does oil flow?
The main pump circulates oil through the oil cooler, filter, and to the MGB jets. During normal operations, the auxiliary operates, but its output is blocked by a shuttle valve which is held closed by higher pressure from the primary system, causing auxiliary system oil flow to return to the MGB dump via the auxiliary relief valve.
115
How is the MGB system cooled?
A radiator mounted forward of the MGB.
116
Above what speed does ram air provide sufficient cooling alone?
120 KIAS
117
Stopped at 1-a-42