1,2,3 Flashcards
(222 cards)
1
Q
This drug used to treat triglycerides causes cutaneous flushing
a. thymine
b. niacin
c. riboflavin
d. gemifibrozil
A
b. niacin
2
Q
The actions of the pans and sans are antagonistic to eachother
A
true
3
Q
neurotransmitters are released in response to nerve action potentials.
A
true
4
Q
curare blocks the action of ACH at the post ganglionic endings
A
false
5
Q
anticholinergic agents do not prevent the release of ACH but competitively block the receptor site
A
true
6
Q
nicotine when placed on the skin will lead to rash
A
false
7
Q
the major neurotransmitters affecting the SANS are norepinephrine and epinephrine
A
true
8
Q
adrenergic agents generally decreasee blood pressure
A
false
9
Q
beta blocking drugs generic names in olol
A
true
10
Q
amides are metabolized in the blood plasma
A
false
11
Q
esters are metabolized in the liver
A
false
12
Q
the rate of absorption of an anesthetic depends on the vascularity of the adjacent tissues
A
true
13
Q
both amides and esters are excreted by the liver
A
false
14
Q
children and the elderly are more susceptible to adverse reactions to local anesthethic use
A
true
15
Q
a usual dose of local anesthetic given to nursing mothers will not harm the infant
A
true
16
Q
the faster the rate of injection the greater chance the local anesthisa will occur
A
false
17
Q
an increase in saliva is termed?
a. sialism
b. sialycism
c. sialoth
d. sianosis
A
b. sialism
18
Q
this term is known as dry socket
A
alveolar osteititis
19
Q
the most commonly used systemic steroid is
a. hydrocortisone
b. triamcinolone
c. prednisone
d. clobetasol
A
c.prednisone
20
Q
which of the following drugs is used to decrease salivary flow?
a. atropine
b. pilocarpine
c. chlorine
d. fluorine
A
a.atropine
21
Q
which of the following is not an ultra short acting barbituate
a. penthothal
b. brevital
c. surital
d. versed
A
d. versed
22
Q
all of the following are cardiovascular diseases except
a. angina
b. CHF
c. hypotension
d. stroke
A
hypotension
23
Q
the most commonly used drug for the treatment of CHF is
a. losartan
b. digoxin
c. cardura
d. lopid
A
b. digoxin
24
Q
mydriasis
A
dialation of the pupil
25
lidocane
xylocaine
26
mepivacane
carbocaine
27
prilocaine
citanest
28
bupivicaine
marcaine
29
benzocaine
sunburn
30
chloral hydrate
pre op sedation of children
31
diazepam
status epilepticus
32
fioricet
migraines
33
miosis
constriction of the pupil
34
b adrenergic blockers
suffix olol
35
CCB's
suffix dipine
36
ace inhibitors
suffix pril
37
HMG Coa reductase
statins
38
name 3 categories of flaggs anesthesia
induction
maintence
recovery
39
3 drugs that can cause gingival enlargement
CCB
Dilantin
Cyclosporine
40
name 4 properties of an ideal anesthetic
long shelf life
satisfactory duration
easy metablized
rapid onset
41
this is the dose of a drug required to produce a specific effect in 50 percent of the subjects taking it
a. LD50
b. ED50
c. half life
ed50
42
This is a function of the amount of drug required to produce an effect.
a. potency
b. effiacy
c. half life
a. potency
43
which of the following antagonists bind to receptor site that is different from the binding site for the agonist?
a. competitive antagonist
b. non comp antagonist
c. physiologic antagonist
non comp ant.
44
which of the following is not an advantage of a parenteral route of administration
a. cheap
b. fast
c. rapid on set
d. predictable response
cheap
45
which layer of a transdermal patch is the closest to the skin
a. impenetrable membrane
b. drug reservoir
c. adhesive
d. membrane
adhesive
46
```
which route is the most rapid absorption of a drug into the systemic circulation
a. IH
b. SQ
C. topical
d. SL
```
Sublingual
47
which type of drug easily penetrates the blood brain barrier
a. a low lipid soluble ionized drug
b. highly lip soluble non ionized drug
c. a drug with a short half life
d. a drug with a long half life
b. highly lipid soluble non ionized drug
48
name three types of adrenergic receptors in the SANS
a, b1, b2
49
name 3 advantages of the use of nitrous oxide
rapid onset
patient acceptance (children)
easy to use
50
name 3 uses for vasoconstrictor in a local anesthetic
bleeding
system toxicity
increase bp
51
name 3 benzodiazpeines that are classified as minor tranquilizers
diazepam
midazolam
triazolam
52
HCTZ
diruetic and anti hypertensive
53
dilantin
anticonvulsant
54
calan
CCB
55
vasotec
anti hypertinsive
56
procardia
CCB
57
zestril
antihypertensive
58
lipitor
anti hyerlipidemic
59
cardizem
CCB
60
niacin
anti herlipedemic
61
lasix
diuretic
62
synase of preganglionic nerves in the pans have this as the neurotransmitter
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. acetycholine
acetycholine
63
between the postganglionic nerves and the effector tissues of the pans is a location termed
a. nicotinc cholingeric
b. muscarinic cholingeric
muscarnic
64
the drug group mimics the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system
a. cholingeric
b. antichloingergic
c. adrengeric
d. adregeric blocking agents
cholingeric
65
```
this drug group blocks the effects of the sympathetic nervous system
a. cholinergic
b anticholinergic
c. adrenergic
d. adrenergic blocking agents
```
adrenergic blocking agents
66
this component of local anesthtic is used to prolong its shelf life
a. vasoconstrictor
b. sodium hydroxide
c. antioxidant
d. methy paraben
antioxidant
67
this anesthetic provides 60-90 minutes of pupil anesthesia and 3-5 hours of soft tissue anesthesia
a. benzocaine
b. bupivicane
c. ponticaine
d. lidocaine
lidocaine
68
the most common antiviral used to treat herpes simplex is
a. peniclovir
b. acyclovir
c. ritonavir
d. saquinavir
acyclovir
69
the most common drug used to treat aids is
a. azt
b. zdv
c. arc
d. inh
azt
70
this is the most common agent used to treat hep c and MS
a. chloramphenicol
b. isoniazid
c. amantadine
d. interferron
d. interferron
71
this term means that two ABCS have been combined to produce more effect than if there individual effects were added together
a. suprainfection
b. antagonism
c. syngerism
d. spectrum
syngergism
72
the means by which the body is made urgently aware of the presence of tissue damage
pain
73
is an inert substance made to look like a study medicine that has no pharmacologic effects upon the body only psychological
placebo
74
what is another name for acetyisalicylic acid
aspirin
75
this is an inheritied disease in men that affects the big toe or knee and can be treated with colchicine
gout
76
this medicine is used to manage dental pain in patient whom nsaids are contraindicted
opoid
77
people going from md to dmd looking for pain medicine are
shoppers
78
the microorganism that primarily causes caries is
a. steptococcus pyogenes
b. streptococcus viridans
c. streptococcus mutans
d. steptococcus aureus
streptococcus mutans
79
this term describes a substance that destroys or supresses the growth or multiplication of bacteria
a. antibacterial
b. antimicrobial
c. bactericidal
d. anti infective
a. antibacterial
80
this term means to have the ability to kill bacteria and is irrerverisble
a. bacteriostatic
b. antibacterial
c. bactericidal
d. antibiotic
bacteriacidal
81
which of the following allergic reactions is most common to penicillin
a. anaphylactic shock
b. rash
c. delayed serum thickness
d. pruritis
rash
82
which antibiotic is used for the treatment of gonoccal infections
a. pen vk
b. amoxicillin
c. erythromycin
d. ampicilin
ampicillin
83
what antibiotic is created with amoxicillin and clavulanic acid are mixed
a. flagyl
b. augmentin
c. biaxin
d. keflex
augmentin
84
non opoids include all of the following except
a. salicylates
b. nsaids
c. codeine
d. acetaminophen
codeine
85
this term means to reduce fever
a. synergism
b. salicylism
c. pruritis
d. antipyretic
antipyretic
86
what is the LD50 of aspirin for children
a. 10-30
b. 4
c. 12
d. 325
in grams
4 gms
87
which drug is contraindicted with aspirin because it causes excess bleeding
a. zomax
b. probencid
c. warfarin
d. methotrexate
warfarin
88
which drug is the most useful drug for treatment of dental pain
a. acetominphen
b. aspirin
c. codeine
d. nsaid
nsaid
89
which of the following drugs require the least amount of dosing for pain
(amount of time between doses)
a. ibuprofen (advil)
b.naproxen/naproxen sodium (naprosyn/anaprox)
c. codiene with tyenol #3
d. bromfenac (duracet)
Naproxen
90
with stereoisomerism a polarizing light turns the mixture right and left. this is called _______ when turned to the right and ______ when turned to the left
dexorotomery
leverotomery
91
bid means
twice a day
92
prn means
as needed
93
po means
by mouth
94
tid means
3 times per day
95
q means
every
96
quid means
4 times per day
97
disp means
dispense
98
h means
hours
99
valium is a
schedule four drug
100
tyenol # 3 is a
schedule three drug
101
heroin is a
schedule one drug
102
morphine is a
schedule two drug
103
inscription is the
name of the drug, dose form, amount
104
subscription is the
directions to the pharmacist
105
transcription is
directions to the patient
106
on childrens dosing, weight (lb) times adult dose / 150 is which formula
a. frieds rule
b. youngs rule
c. clarks rule
d. cowlings rule
clarks rule
107
this type of hypersensitivity reaction is considered a delayed type and is mediated by t lympocytes
type 4
108
```
most drugs are excreted from the body via
a. glomerular filtration
b. active tubular secretion
c passive tubular secretion
d billary excretion
```
billary excretion
109
```
which of the following is not associated with phase one metabolism
a. oxidation
b. reduction
c hydrolysis
d. depolarization
```
depolarization
110
```
which chemical bond is the most effective force in attracting a drug molecule to a receptor
a. covalent bond
b. van del waals forces
c. ionic bonds
d hydrogen bonds
```
ionic bonds
111
this second messenger is involved in conduction of smell and sight
a. cGMP
b. cAMPP
c. fast 5 ion channel
d. slow 7g protein
cAMP
112
this is the study of drugs
a. hyptology
b. toxicology
c. pharmacokinetics
d. pharmacology
pharmacology
113
the maximum safe does of epinephrine for a cardiac patient is
a. 2 mg
b. .2 mg
c. 4 mg
d. .04
.04
114
the maximum safe dose of epinephrine for a healthy patient is
a. .2 mg
b. 2mg
c. .04 m
d. 4 mg
.2
115
a patient presents to the office to have her third molars removed. it took 8 carpules of 2 percent lidocaine with 1:100,000 epi to anestheize her. How much of each did she recieve?
a. 72 mg lido with .036 mg epi
b. 288 mg lido with .144 mg epi
c. 360 mg lido with .180 epi
d. 216 mg lido w/ .108 mg epi
b. 288
116
sedative hypnotics are also known as
a. antianxiety agents
b. anticonvulsant agents
c. anesthetic agents
d. antiarryhymatic agents
antianxiety agents
117
the term is used to describe the twitching of the eye
a. miosis
b. nystagumus
c. mydrasis
d. niosis
nystagumus
118
this is the strongest centrally acting muscle relaxant
a. methocarbamon (robaxin)
b. carisprodol (soma)
c. cyclobenzapine (flexeril)
d. busiprone (BuSpar)
cyclobenzapine (flexeril)
119
```
in which guedel's stage or plane of anesthesia causes a patient to lose control of their bodily functions
a. stage 1
b stage 2
c stage 3
d. stage 4
```
stage 2
120
all of the following are used to treat gout except
a. codiene
b. colchicine
c. allopurinol
d. probencid
codiene
121
all of the following are opoid receptors except
a. mu
b. kappa
c. beta
d. delta
beta
122
which of the following opoids is the strongest?
a. hyrocodone
b. morphine
c. oxycodone
d. codiene
morphine
123
what is another term for pin point pupils which indicates and addict?
a. myositis
b. myosis
c. mydraisis
d. photosis
myosis
124
which opioid is recommened for the majority of dental patients?
a. meperdine (demerol)
b. codeiene with APAP (tylenol #3)
c. oxycodone with APAP (perocect)
d. hydrocodone with APAP (vicodin)
hydrocodone with apap vicodin
125
which of the following is the drug of choice for abuse by medical personnal?
a. methadone (dolophine)
b. meperdine (demerol)
c. hydromorphone (dilaudid)
d. propoxyphene (darvocet)
meperdine (demerol)
126
which drug is the drug of choice for treating opiod overdose
a. naloxone (narcan)
b. tramadol (ultram)
c. naproxene (naprosyn)
d. pentazocine (talwin)
naloxone (narcan)
127
substances that act against or destroy infection are known as
antiinfective
128
is the natural or acquired ability of an organism to be immune to or to resist the effects of an antiinfective agent
resistance
129
is the range of activity of drug
broad spectrum
130
is the agent of choice for the prophylaxis of infective endocarditis
amoxicillian
131
a combo of metronidazole (flagyl) and amoxicillian is known as
ppi
132
the combo of INH, rifamipin , and pyrazinamideis used to treat
tb
133
aspirin is more effective against stabbing pain than trobbing pain
false
134
asthmatic are more like to have hypersensitivy reaction to ASA
true
135
ibuprofien is the drug of choice for treating a nursing woman
true
136
nsaids can be shown to be statisticaly better than codiene alone or aspirin or acetaminophen
true
137
opoids are referred to as non narcotics
false
138
it is safe to use opiods in patients who have head injurries
false
139
morphine is the prototype opoid that all others are measured against
true
140
abc prophylaxis is required for a history of functional heart murmer
false
141
```
this antibotic is commonly used for the treatment of acne, travelers diarahea and anug
a. clindmycin
b. amoxicillin
c tetra
d. penicillin
```
tetra
142
keflex is a _______ cephalosporin
a. first generation
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
first
143
stage 3 dental infection is predominately
a. aerobic
b. anerobic
c. mixed aerobic/anerobic
anerobic
144
which group of antimicrobials is toxic to cranial nerve 8 leading to a loss of equillibrium
a. sulfonamides
b. quinolones
c. aminoglycosides
d. interferons
aminoglycosides
145
which of the following is a sulfa drug
a. pen vk
b. amoxicillin
c. bactrim
d. neosporin
bactrim
146
neosporins consists of
a. isonizaid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide
b. neomycin polymixin and bactracin
c. amoxxicilan and metorndiazole
d. indianvir, amphotercin b and neomycin
neomycin polymixin and bactracin
147
the following antifungal is used in shampoo to treat dandruff
a. fuconazole (difucan)
b. ketocanzole (nizoral)
c. itraconazole (sporaox)
d. clotrimazole (myceiex)
ketoconazole (nizoral)
148
the maximum intensity of effect or responce produced from a drug
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. lethal dose
d. duration
efficacy
149
all of the following can write a rx for a controlled substance except
a. md
b. dmd
c. dvm
d. fnp
e. all the above
fnp
150
which category of adverse drug reactions is the extension of the pharmacologic effecs results from a drug effect on the target organ
a. drug allergy
b. side effect
c. idosynatric reaction
d. toxic reaction
toxic
151
which of the following factors influence the moement of a drug is the bodies way of changing a drug so that it can be better used and removed by the kidneys
a. absorption
b. distribution
c. metabolism
d. excretion
metabolism
152
the assymetric carbon in a racemic mixtureis called a
chiral center
153
```
which of the following is not one of the most important neurotranmitters
a. endotoxin
b. histamine
c non epin/epin
d. camp
```
camp
154
on a dose effected curve a drug that is more potent will be
closer to y axis
155
name three groups of endogenous substances that have opioid like action
enkephalins, endorphins, and dynorphins
156
name two conditions that most definitely requires ABC pre med
ventricular hydra stunts
| renal stunts
157
name three things caused by tinea infections
tinea capitus
tinea corporus
tinea pedis
158
name 2 contraindictions for the use of opoids
risk of addiction and lack of efficancy
159
aspirin
reyes syndrome
160
cipro
sunburn
161
perococet
oxycodone and aceaminophen
162
vicoden
hydrocodone and apap
163
fioricet
codiene and apap and caffiene and butilbiliti
164
chloramephenicol
bacteriostatic
165
penicillin
bactericidal
166
sporanox
toenail fungus
167
tyenol number 3
codeine and apap
168
fentanyl
used for iv sedation
169
what causes thrombophetitis?
a. ketalar
b. proplene glycol
c. methyl paraben
d. thiamyl sodium
propylene glycol
170
which general anesthetic is chemically related to pcp
a. valium
b. ketamine
c. brevital
d. morphine
ketamine
171
which of the following halogeneated hydrocarbon is safe for asthmatics?
a. enflurane
b. halothane
c. isoflurane
d. desflurane
halothane
172
upon complete of n20-02 use failure to use all recovery period could produce
a. malignant hyperthemia
b. neuropathy
c. diffusion hyposis
d. dissociative anesthia
diffusion hyposis
173
the following are components of halogenated hydro carbon except
a. flurine
b. bromine
c. chlorine
d. salame
salame
174
in which guedls stage of anestheisa can nitrous oxide maintain?
a. stage 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
stage 1
175
```
in which guedels stage of anesthia can regulatory paralysis occur
a stage one
b 2
c 3
d 4
```
4
176
benzodapines are classified as minor tranquilizers
true
177
chronic long term use of barbituates can lead to dependence
true
178
volatile liquid inhalation anesthethics evaporate easily at room temp
true
179
nitrous oxide tanks are greenand oxygen blue
false
180
the max amount of n20a patient recieveswith the fail safe system is 70 percent
true
181
n20 is safely used on all resp patients including copd and asthma patients
false
182
the 2 most common used benzodapines used with conscious sedation are valium and versed
true
183
piolcarpin is used to increase saliva flow
true
184
rophryl is the date rape drug
true
185
benzodapines are safe to given to nursing mothers
false
186
cardivascular disease is the leading causing of death in us
true
187
when the left side of the heart fails you get pulmonary edema
true
188
when the right side of the heart fails you get peripheal edema
true
189
nitroglycmia is a vengus dilator
true
190
nitroglycerin is degraded by heat moisture and light
false
191
hypertension is known as a silent killer
true
192
loop diruetics act on the descending limbs of the loop of henle
false
193
this condition occurs when the coronal arteries do not carry a sufficent amout of 02 to the myocardium for its current work
angina
194
the most frequent drug used for actue angina
nitroglycerin
195
hypertension is defined as bp greater than
140/90
196
the most commonly used thiazide for treatment of hypertensions is
a. hctz
b. laxis
c. diazide
d. zetril
hctz
197
this means to have a loss of potassium in the body
hypokalecima
198
this CCB is used to treat trigeminal neuralgia
a. lasix
b. tegretol
c. diazide
d. hctz
tegreto
199
this means altered sense of taste
a. dygeuia
b. tic dolouroux
c. glossitis
d. tasbunditis
dygeuia
200
a chologineric receptor found in skeletal muscle is an example of
ligand ion channel receptors
201
if drug a has a half life of 2 hours how long i it before its out of the system
8-10 hours
202
a therapuetically useful drug is one with 11 of
10.0
203
name four stages of absorption of an orally administered drug
disruption
disintegration
dispersion
dissoloution
204
pregnancy categories
ABCD X
a list risky
x most risky
205
name 3 of 4 drug contraindicted in pregnancy
tetra
nsaids
birth control
benzoapines
206
one tablespoon is equal to
15mg
207
this agency regulate the manufacture and distrubtion of substances
DEA
208
this is the production of a compound by the combo of two like molecules
demerilization
209
have a effect on fetus
tetraogenic
210
which scheduled drug can be purchased over the counter
5
211
caution federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription
dirhum humprey law
212
a schedule one drug can be purchase otc
false
213
schedule four drugs can be refilled up to five times in 6 months
true
214
the lupic used for measurement of weight is the miligrams
false
215
the therapeutic indiex is figured by dividing the ed50 by the id50
false
216
most drugs are eliminated via feces
false
217
iv route is the most rapid drug reponce
true
218
this type of drug placement occurs when the drug is placed directly into the oral or rectal routes
enteral
219
drugs placed by im route must be placed in the
glutes or deltoid
220
administration of topical steroids over a large portion can result into
cushings
221
dosage of aspirin
adult is 650mg
arthritis is 3-6
myocardial infection-less than 300 mg a day
222
dosage for actemipnophen for
adult 400 mg per 6 hours
| max dose in 24 hours 4 grams
