Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MATS Pt 1 > 1:2 Flight Rules > Flashcards

1:2 Flight Rules Flashcards

1
Q

What is the boundary between the FIR and UIR?

A

FL245

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the characteristics of Class A airspace (flight rules, aircraft requirements and ATC service)?

A
  • IFR only
  • ATC clearance to enter, must comply with instructions
  • All aircraft separated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the characteristics of Class C airspace (flight rules, aircraft requirements and ATC service)?

A
  • IFR & VFR
  • ATC clearance to enter, must comply with instructions
  • IFR separated from IFR and VFR
  • VFR separated from IFR
  • Traffic info to VFR on other VFR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the characteristics of Class D airspace (flight rules, aircraft requirements and ATC service)?

A
  • IFR & VFR
  • ATC clearance to enter, must comply with instructions
  • IFR separated from IFR
  • Traffic info to IFR and SVFR on VFR
  • Traffic info to VFR on all other flights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the characteristics of Class E airspace (flight rules, aircraft requirements and ATC service)?

A
  • IFR & VFR
  • IFR: Clearance and must comply with instructions
  • VFR: No clearance required
  • IFR separated from IFR
  • Traffic info to IFR (wherever practicable)
  • Traffic info to VFR in accordance with CAP774 (UK FIS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the characteristics of Class G airspace (flight rules, aircraft requirements and ATC service)?

A
  • IFR & VFR
  • No a/c requirements
  • No ATC service required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a TMZ and what class of airspace may be notified as a TMZ?

A

Transponder Mandatory Zone - Class E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where controlled airspace is vertically joined to Class G airspace, are aircraft operating at the lower/upper limit deemed to be operating inside or outside controlled airspace?

A

Outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What CAP document details UK Flight Information Services?

A

CAP 774

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If Mode C/Mode S indicates aircraft is at or below the lower limit/at or above the upper limit of CAS, is this seen as an infringement and is an MOR required?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Mode C need to indicate below the lower limit/above the upper limit of CAS in order to be an infringement?

A

100ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is TVE?

A

Total Vertical Error (systematic and random errors with the Mode C/S altitude data)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the airspace speed limit below FL100 (with exceptions)?

A

250kts IAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Does the 250kts airspace speed limit apply in Class A airspace?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Does the 250kts airspace speed limit apply in Class C airspace?

A

To VFR flights only (unless exempt according to MATS Pt 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Does the 250kts airspace speed limit apply in Class D airspace?

A

Yes (unless exempt according to MATS Pt 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the speed limit applied to published SID and STAR procedures?

A

250kts IAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Can controllers relax procedure speed limits when providing an ATS surveillance service?

A

Yes - except for instrument approach procedures and with extreme caution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are VMC requirements at and above FL100 in CAS?

A
  • Distance from cloud; 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertical
  • Visibility; 8km
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are VMC requirements below FL100 in CAS?

A
  • Distance from cloud; 1500m horizontal, 1000ft vertical (and maintain continuous sight of the surface at night)
  • Visibility; 5km
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In Class D airspace, for aircraft (not including helicopters) flying at 140kts IAS or less, what are VMC requirements?

A
  • Clear of cloud with surface in sight
  • Visibility; 5km
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In Class D, F and G airspace, for helicopters flying at 140kts IAS or less, what are VMC requirements?

A
  • Clear of cloud with surface in sight
  • Visibility; 1500m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In Class F and G, what are VMC requirements?

A
  • Clear of cloud with surface in sight (maintain continuous sight of the ground at night)
  • Visibility; 5km
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do the IFR require a pilot to do within CAS? (x4)

A

1 - File a flight plan
2 - Conduct the flight in accordance with clearances and instructions from ATC
3 - Maintain a listening watch
4 - Report a/c position according to published procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What classification of airspace is an ATZ?
Takes on the classification in which it is situated
26
Can ATC invite the pilot to change from IFR to VFR?
No
27
How does a pilot change from IFR to VFR (phraseology)?
"Cancelling my IFR flight"
28
What should a controller do in response to pilot cancelling IFR flight?
Acknowledge using the phrase "IFR flight cancelled at (time)" and give any info which indicates that IMC may be encountered along the intended route
29
With exceptions (police, helimed, SAR etc) controllers shall not issue a SVFR clearance under what conditions (aircraft/helicopters, visibility/cloud ceiling)?
Aircraft: Visibility: < 1500m Cloud ceiling: < 600ft Helicopters: Visibility: < 800m Cloud ceiling: < 600ft
30
What separation is to be applied with regards to SVFR flights?
Standard separation between IFR and SVFR. Standard separation between SVFR and SVFR (except where reduction is authorised by CAA)
31
What are the pilot's responsibilities when flying SVFR (x6)?
1. comply with ATC 2. remain clear of cloud, surface in sight and clear of obstructions 3. speed less than 140kts 4. ensure flying within limitations of pilots licence 5. comply with relevant SERA and RoA regulations 6. avoid ATZs unless permission to penetrate
32
Is a full flight plan required for SVFR?
No, but pilot must give brief details of callsign, a/c type and intentions.
33
When is a full flight plan required with regards to SVFR?
When the pilot wishes their destination aerodrome to be notified
34
What is the FIR/UIR boundary?
FL245
35
What is the upper limit of Class C airspace?
FL660
36
What separation should be provided in each class of airspace?
Class A - All flights (IFR only) Class B - All flights (IFR and VFR) Class C - IFR separated from IFR, IFR separated from VFR (VFR vs VFR is traffic info only) Class D - IFR separated from IFR (IFR vs VFR and VFR vs VFR is traffic info only) Class E - IFR separated from IFR (VFR optional ATC service or FIS) Class F - None (Advisory only) Class G - None (FIS only)
37
What are the basic rules for use of Class C airspace (x4)?
1. A flight plan must be filed (abbreviated are permissable for civil a/c) 2. ATC clearance required 3. Radio contact must be maintained 4. Flight must be conducted in accordance with ATC instructions
38
What shall controllers separate in Class C?
IFR vs IFR IFR vs VFR
39
What will a pilot request if there is an unforeseen deterioration in the weather and not IFR equipped or qualified?
An amended clearance to enable the flight to continue in VMC to its destination or alternative aerodrome
40
When are VFR flights permitted above FL195?
1 - In a TRA 2 - Outside of a TRA, when authorised by the responsible ATSU
41
What are the 2x categories of flight plan?
Full and abbreviated
42
What does an abbreviated flight plan consist of?
Limited info required to obtain a clearance for a portion of flight eg. crossing CAS
43
How can an abbreviated flight plan be filed?
Over RT or by telephone prior to take off
44
How far in advance of the boundary of CAS should an airborne flight plan be filed?
10 minutes
45
When is a pilot required to file a flight plan? (x6)
1 - any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an ATC service 2 - any IFR flight in advisory airspace 3 - any flight within areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate provision of FIS, alerting and SAR services 4 - any flight within areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate coordination with military units, or with ATS units in adjacent states (in order to avoid the need for interception) 5 - any flights across international boundaries 6 - any flight operating at night if leaving vicinity of aerodrome
46
When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan? (x2)
1 - if flying over the sea more than 10nm from UK coast or over sparsely populated areas 2 - if the pilot intends to fly into an area in which SAR operations are in progress
47
What procedure should a pilot who has filed a flight plan to a destination without an ATSU follow?
1 - Nominate a responsible person at destination and inform of planned ETA. If no arrival within 30 mins, parent ATSU will be notified 2- If no responsible person can, pilot will contact the parent ATSU
48
What is a repetitive flight plan?
A more convenient method of filing flight plans for flights that operate regularly
49
What is booking-out?
Pilots who do not file a flight plan are required to inform the ATSU at the aerodrome of their departure
50
What is an AIRPROX?
When in the opinion of a pilot or controller, the distance between aircraft as well as their relative positions and speeds have been such that the safety of the aircraft was or may be compromised
51
How should an AIRPROX be filed by a pilot?
Over the RT if possible (if it is not due to controller workload, then it should be filed ASAP after landing)
52
What should and AIRPROX message comprise of? (x7)
1 - "AIRPROX report" 2 - Position at time of incident 3 - Time of incident 4 - Altitude/FL (climbing, descending, level) 5 - Heading 6 - Brief details of incident 7 - Weather conditions
53
What is meant by the term 'search action'?
The senior controller is to establish the identity of an aircraft which has been involved in an incident, infringed legislation, or not known
54
If there is a failure of any navigation light which the ANO requires to be displayed what are the implications before take off and if already in flight?
Before take off - an aircraft shall not depart an aerodrome at night In flight - aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so unless authorised by ATC to continue
55
When an ATSU receives information about a captive balloon breaking free, what information needs to be given to the relevant ACC? (x6)
1 - Type of balloon and whether carrying a person 2 - Position of balloon site 3 - Direction and speed of drift 4 - Last observed height 5 - Length of cable attached to balloon 6 - Operators name and telephone number
56
What is a Radio Mandatory Zone (RMZ)?
Airspace of defined dimensions wherein the carriage and operation of suitable radio equipment is mandatory
57
What shall flights operating in RMZ airspace do before entering?
Establish two-way communication
58
What shall flights do within an RMZ?
Maintain a continuous air-ground voice communication watch, as necessary, on the appropriate channel unless in compliance with alternative provisions prescribed by the ANSP
59
What information is to be provided in order for two-way communication to be considered as achieved? (x6)
1 - callsign 2 - type of aircraft 3 - position 4 - level 5 - flight rules 6 - intentions of flight
60

MATS Pt 1 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions