1 Flashcards

(250 cards)

1
Q

When was the first fire engine purchased in colonial North America

A

1653

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2
Q

It Department type is determined by how

A

An organization is funded

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3
Q

What type of company is responsible for forcible

A

Truck company

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4
Q

Which of the following positions is trained and operations of Ariel devices according to the requirements of NFPA 1002

A

Fire apparatus driver

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5
Q

Which of the following positions is responsible for monitoring operational safety according to the requirements of NFPA 1521

A

Fire department incident safety officer

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6
Q

Which of the following positions belongs to the fire prevention division

A

Fire and arson investigator

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7
Q

Which of the following fire service organizational principles is described as a formal line of authority

A

Chain of command

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8
Q

Which federal law affects hiring practices and building accessibility

A

Americans with Disability Act

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9
Q

Which of the following organizations may be in the agency of authority having jurisdiction or privately owned

A

Emergency Medical Services

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10
Q

Which of the following duties is the responsibility of the Public Works division

A

Providing sand for containing spills

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11
Q

In 2010 leading cause of fire fatalities were

A

Stress and overexertion

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12
Q

Which of the following NFPA standards establishes the design criteria for protective clothing and equipment

A

NFPA 1977

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13
Q

Which NFL standard defines safe training practices and programs

A

NFPA 1403

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14
Q

Which NFPA standard sets requirements for care and maintenance of personal and respiratory protection equipment

A

NFPA 1851

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15
Q

Which NFPA standard specifies the minimum requirements for Department safety and health programs

A

NFPA 1500

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16
Q

Which of the following is a goal of the fire department safety and health programs

A

Prevent damage to Emergency Response equipment

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17
Q

Any power tool not marked double insulated should

A

Have a 3 prong plug

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18
Q

Which of the following best explains why information is gathered for post incident report

A

Determining Trends in firefighter injuries

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19
Q

What task made telecommunication Center be assigned during a progress report

A

Providing periodic Transmissions

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20
Q

The use of 10 codes in radio Transmissions was replaced when agencies began to adapt which of the following

A

National Incident Management System

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21
Q

Which of the following has a radio frequency that is dedicated to a single function

A

Conventional system

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22
Q

Which of the following methods may be used to confirm a dispatch transmission

A

Kingdom radio microphone

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23
Q

Which of the following best describes the action first taken after an alert to the station

A

Dispatching of Emergency Services responders

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24
Q

Who is the contact person for non-emergency calls

A

Public information officer

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25
Which of the following is a type of public alerting system
Wire Telegraph circuit box
26
Which of the following is a type of communications center equipment
Two-way radios
27
Type 1 building construction
Fire resistive high-rises
28
Type 2 building construction
Non combustible masonry or tilt slab walls roofs are metal
29
Type 3 building construction
Ordinary Wood Walls wood roof
30
Type 4 building construction
Heavy Timber large dimensional lumber for structural members
31
Type 5 building construction
Found in many modern homes wood framed
32
A club zone for a type IV (4) structure should be established when
The structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time
33
When exposed to temperatures above what will unprotected steel expand and twist
1000 degrees Fahrenheit
34
For which type of construction is flying glass the primary collapse Zone hazard
Type 1
35
Which of the following best describes where the clubs on his established
Adjacent to any expose exterior walls
36
When I Collapse is eminent personalities should blank in the collapse Zone
Cautiously place a Staffmaster stream
37
In what fire stage is structural class very likely
Decay
38
Renovation age of the structure weather and loads are all
Structural collapse factors
39
Which of the following best describes a possible construction hazard
The building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in place
40
What type of movable window has a side hinged sash usually installed the swing out word
Casement
41
What type of door may be required by building codes to be constructed of tempered material that resists breakage
Glassdoor
42
What types of stairs typically connects no more than two levels if not required as part of the means of egress
Access stairs
43
What type of stairs uses a ventilation system activated by automatic fire smoke detection
Smoke proof enclosures
44
Doors are classified by the
They operate
45
What type of roof is used to prevent ice damming
Cold roof
46
What roof type is frequently penetrated by chimney shaft and skylight
Flat roof
47
In which roof style does the design depend on exterior walls to support its weight
Arched
48
Manufactured homes built before 1976 have less blank than those of current Construction
Fire resistance
49
The interior elements in what type of construction are made of solid or laminated wood with non concealed space
Type 5 IV
50
Type 3 construction requires exterior walls and in structural members to be constructed of
Non-combustible material
51
Which of the following best describes who determines a structures construction classification type
Architect structural engineer than contractor
52
Which of the following can be the result of rapidly cooling cast iron with water
Make crack or shatter
53
Water is converted to steam at what temperature
212° Fahrenheit
54
What rapid fire development occurs as unburned fuel gases contact an ignition source
Smoke explosion
55
What aspect of fire development is a result of an increase in low-level ventilation prior to upper-level ventilation
Backdraft
56
Which of the following is a heat indicator of a possible flashover
Darken windows
57
What common element of represents the shift from Grosse stage to fully develop
Transition and fire development
58
What type of Rapid Fire development happens when all the combustible materials and gases in a compartment ignite almost simultaneously
Flashover
59
The neutral plane in the growth stage is
Interphase of hot and cool layers at an opening
60
In what stage is fire development largely dependent on the characteristics and configuration of fuel involved
Incipient
61
What thermal property of a compartment contains heat within the compartment causing localized increase in temperature
Insulation
62
What fire development factor is based on considering how the volume of air what impact radiant heat in a fire
Compartment volume and ceiling height
63
Fuel particles become smaller as the ratio of surface
Increases
64
Which of the following best describes what vapor pressure indicates
How easily a substance will evaporate
65
Heat released rate is expressed in what
Kilowatts
66
Which of the following terms is the total amount of energy released when a specific amount of fuel is burned
Heat of combustion
67
Which of the following best describes the influence of exposed surfaces on radiant heat
Dark Materials in and absorb heat more effectively than lighter materials
68
Which of the following best describes kinetic energy transfer
Moves from high temperature to low temperature
69
What source of thermal energy is the most common source of heat in a combustion reaction
Chemical
70
Which of the following sources of energy is a form of oxidation
Self-heating
71
Which of the following best describes what the fire tetrahedron represents
And uninhibited chemical chain reaction
72
What type of reaction absorbs energy as it occurs
Endothermic
73
What type of energy releases energy in the form of heat and sometimes light
Exothermic
74
Any Source used to refill SCBA must provide what type of air quality
Type D
75
What piece of protective breathing apparatus has the frame check weekly for deterioration during cracks
Facepiece
76
Which NFPA standard establishes inspection period for protective breathing apparatus
1852
77
Compartment doors May interfere with what type of SCBA mount
Backup mount
78
which NFPA standard require seat mounts he pays to be held in place by a mechanical latching device
1901
79
Respiratory equipment must be protected from from what during storage
Contamination temperature change ultraviolet light
80
Which of the following limitations of respiratory protection is created by the way in resistance of a harness straps
Decreased Mobility
81
Which of the following types of respiratory protection uses visual Estis only
Air purifying respirator
82
Which of the following best describes when sar are used
Free confined space rescue and Technical rescue incidences
83
What is the minimum overlap between coat and trousers when the where is bend over at 90 degrees
2 inch
84
What type of NFPA Define cleaning may be done in washing machine design for handling heavy Lowe's
Advanced cleaning
85
Which NFPA standard outlines the specification for Wildland personnel
1977
86
What part of Wildland personal protective equipment must meet the requirement of ansi
Goggles
87
Structural firefighting protective clothing must meet what NFPA standard
1971
88
What type of portable fire extinguisher may be applied with either and extinguisher or a scoop
Dry powder
89
What type of weathering is mainly used for rescue application
Tubular webbing
90
What type of weathering is rated for loads up to 600 pounds
Class 2 life safety
91
Which type of knot is used for joining two ropes of unequal diameter
Becket Bend
92
Which of the following are signs of damage in laid natural fiber ropes
Powder between strands
93
What survival actions include steps I can do form before committing a mayday
Seeking Safe Haven
94
Using Air Management procedures during an emergency can help increase
Time for escape
95
Lunar acronym stands for what
Location unit name of Simon and resources
96
Aware stands for what
Air water a radio and extrication
97
How many Rescuers may be needed to safely carry an adult
Two to four
98
When using Federal Emergency Management what does the Mark above X indicate
Time of completion
99
Which of the following is tied to the end of a wide-area search tether
Three-quarters inch steel ring
100
When using the wide-area search method using individual tethers allows firefighters to sweep a blank Ark at the midpoint how many feet
10
101
Which of the following is the best reason firefighters should not move objects during a search
May disorient firefighters
102
Which of the following information should be gathered as a part of situational awareness
Probable structural integrity
103
Which of the following makes Clean Cuts when breaching a floor
Rotary saw
104
Chain link fence should be cut quickly with a
Rotary saw
105
Which of the following types of Windows has double strength glass
Awning
106
When performing forcible entry on casement windows the first step is
Break lowest pane of glass
107
Which of the following prevents glass from shattering and falling out of the frame
Wire glass
108
Most hinges on swinging doors are mounted on blank that permits swinging in one or more
One side
109
Which of the following provides firefighters rapid access to Edward swing latch
Shove knife
110
Which of the following was developed to force entry on locks with collars
A tool
111
Which of the following has a variety of types available including night latch deadbolt and vertical deadbolt
Rim
112
Which of the following are portable or detachable locking
Padlocks
113
Rotary blade spin at what
6000 RPMs
114
Which song comes in a small battery-powered
Circular saw
115
How do you lower a large victim down louder
Large victims are lowered by two Rescuers on ladders play side by side
116
To move a tool to a roux for Upper Floor during an emergency operation of firefighter should
Tear the tools one hand signing the free hand under the ladder beam
117
Healing and tying in are two methods of
Preventing movement of the ladder away from the building
118
Which of the following best describes the way to carry a roof ladder when using an extension ladder to access the roof
Call an extension ladder shoulder the roof ladder three or four runs from the tip and carry the rest of the way to deploy on the roof pitch
119
Where May ladders be mounted on aerial apparatus
Vertically on the left or right side of the apparatus bed
120
NFPA 1932 contains requirements for
Ladder use care Maintenance and Service
121
What characteristic of modern single-family residential construction reduces firefighter access and increases potential exposure risk
Smaller lot sizes
122
Which of the following is a characteristic of older structure Construction
Windows that could be open for ventilation
123
Allowing natural air currents and pressure differences to move smoke and heat out of the building is natural
Horizontal ventilation
124
Use a smoke ejector to expel smoke and draw fresh air into a structure is a use of
Negative pressure ventilation
125
Which of the following is an advantage to using mechanical
Speeds the removal of contaminants
126
NFPA 1901 requires that Mobile water supply apparatus on level ground can be capable dumping or filling a trace of at least What leader per minute
4000 liters per minute
127
Which of the following statements regarding the placement of portable tanks is most accurate
They should be placed so that the drain is located on the downhill side
128
Dry hydrants are designed to supply at least how many liters per minute
4000 permanent
129
Which of the following statements regarding Rural Water Supply operations is most accurate
They require frequent practice
130
Which of the following statements regarding operations of dry Barrel hydrant is most accurate
If not open fully the drain maybe left partially open
131
Knowledge of fire hydrants is necessary in order to
Flow water from hydrant discharge openings to flush sediment
132
Fire hydrant should be inspected and operated at least how many times a year
Twice
133
Fire hydrant tops and discharge cap should be painted as required in
NFPA 291
134
In high-value districts fire hydrant should not be faced more than how many feet apart
300 feet
135
Most fire hydrants are made of
Cast iron
136
The male threads on fire hydrant discharge I love must conform to
Those used by local fire departments
137
Which of the following May limit the use of water treatment facilities for firefighting operations
Natural disasters
138
Suction hose is manufactured in the minimum line specified in NFPA what
1901
139
Which part of the female threaded coupling is the free turning ring on which the threads are cut
Swivel
140
What guidelines should be followed for removing frozen hose
Perform service testing before placing thought hose back in service
141
How should hose be cleaned after chemical exposure
Remove hose periodically and wash with plain water
142
How can organic damage be prevented
Ventilate all areas where fire hose is kept
143
Which of the following are highly resistant to corrosion
Brass couplings
144
When should hose be inspected
Within 90 days before being placed in service for the first time
145
What kind of Hose should be washed with clear water while scrubbed with a stiff brush
Woven jacket
146
How should fire hose couplings be cared for
Inspect gaskets and replace if cracked or creased
147
Which fitting is used to connect a smaller diameter hose to the end of a larger one
Reducer
148
A hose clamp should be applied at least how many feet behind the apparatus
20 feet
149
Which preconnected hose loads to Floyd's from the shoulder as a firefighter advances toward the fire and is particularly well suited for narrow hose beds
Minuteman load
150
Where might booster hose reels be mounted on the apparatus
In the rear compartment
151
Which preconnected hose line deploys by unfolding from the top of the stack carried on the shoulder as a firefighter advances toward the fire
Minuteman load
152
When using blank Neil on the host to Anchor as a driver operator Drive slowly toward the water source
Hose equipped with why applications
153
Which of the following statements about vaporization and steam is most accurate
Steam produced in the upper layer of Hot Smoke and fire gases will cause the upper layer to contract towards the ceiling
154
Which stream is created by apparatus mounted appliances
Master stream
155
Additional Personnel will be required to safely handle Smooth Bore nozzle zap nozzle pressure is greater than
65 PSI
156
Which of the following fire stream pattern is usually produced by a fog nozzle
Straight stream
157
Which of the following stream patterns is used to extinguish fires in attics cock lost basements and other confined spaces
Broken streams
158
Which of the following nozzle categories was established by NFPA 1963 standard for hose connections
Straight tip
159
Which of the following statements about Smooth Bore nozzle is most accurate
Hose lines making a Smooth Bore nozzle use less pressure
160
Which of the following is a characteristic of nozzles designed operator pressure is less than 100 PSI
Produce lower-density fog patterns
161
When used with a Smooth Bore nozzle and nozzle control valve that causes turbulence when partially open which can affect the quality of a fire stream is the
Ball valve
162
Which of the following nozzle control valves also controls the discharge pattern of the fire stream
Rotary control valve
163
Which of the following statements about slide valves is most accurate
Slide valves permit water to flow without creating turbulence
164
Which of the following techniques are the most essential part of any ground cover operation
Communication
165
Which of the following is required for firefighters participating in ground cover firefighting
Protective Footwear
166
Protective clothing used for ground cover fires should meet the requirements of NFPA
1977
167
Add fires involving stacked and piled materials firestream should be directed at the
Extreme edge of the fire burning
168
A master stream device should enter a structure at what angle
Upward angle
169
Which of the following may be used as interior exposure protection
Use of fire rated walls and doors
170
Which of the following should be used to ensure that floor assemblies over the basement fires are safe for personal to work on
Visual inspection of floor joists
171
Which of the following May provide firefighters the best access to a basement fire
Window well
172
Hose line selection should be based on which of the following factors
Potential fire spread
173
Nozzle selection is based upon which of the following factors
Available water supply
174
Which of the following determines the extent that structural members of a building are weekend
Intensity of Fire
175
Which of the following is the main advantages to using spliced water shoot as catch Al's during lost control
As soon as water accumulate it can be drain to the outside
176
In a pre-incident plan which of the following is a means of protecting items in a residential or business occupied structure
Moving items to an unaffected area
177
During Salvage procedures where should the contents of the structure replace once they are removed
Stacked on dry surface not near where firefighters may be collecting the breeze for disposal
178
Protected premises
Provides notification only the building occupants
179
Non- coded alarm
No clue to where alarm was activated for small buildings
180
Zone alarm
Give General zone of where alarm was activated
181
Addressable alarm system
Address is exact device that was initiated
182
Supervising station alarm systems
Remotely monitored for the purpose of reporting a supervisory trouble or alarm
183
Auxiliary alarm system
Connected to municipal fire alarm systems transmitted over public fire telecommunication centers
184
Local Energy System
Has its own power
185
Shunt System
An auxiliary fire alarm system that connects the public fire alarm reporting system to initiating devices within a protected premises
186
Central Station system
Alarm system that functions through a constantly attended location operated by an alarm company
187
Remote receiving system
System in which alarm signals from the protected premises are transmitted over at least telephone line or by radio signal to a remote receiving station
188
Fusible link
Connecting link device that fuses or melt when exposed to heat
189
Continuous line detector
The text heat over linear air parallel to the device consists of a cable with a conductive metal inner core sheath with stainless steel tubing the inner core in the sheets are separated by electrical insulating semiconductor material that keeps away from touching but allows a small amount of current to flow between them
190
Bimetallic detector
Find me talk to uses two metals that have different thermal expansion characteristics then strips of the metals are bonded together and one or both ends of the strip are attached to the alarm circuit when heated one metal expands faster than the other causing the strip to our core band disc brakes contact in the alarm circuit sending a signal to the alarm panel most reset automatically when cooled
191
Rate of Rise heat detector
Temperature sensitive device that sounds an alarm when the temperature changes at a c preset value most of our reliable usually changes 12 degrees Fahrenheit to 15 degrees Fahrenheit in 1 minute will set it off
192
Photoelectric smoke detector
Type of smoke detector that uses a small light source either an incandescent bulb or light emitting diode to detect Smoke by Shining Light through the detectors chamber smoke particles reflect the light on to the light sensitive device called a photocell
193
Ionization smoke detector
Type of smoke detector that uses small amount of radioactive material to make the air within the sensing chamber conduct electricity
194
Outside stem and yoke valve
Has a yolk on the outside with a threaded stem that opens and closes the gate inside the valve housing
195
Post indicator valve
Hollow metal post that houses the valve stem attached to the valve stem is immovable play with the words open or shut
196
Wall post indicator valve
Similar to post indicator valve except that it extends horizontally through the wall with the Target and valve operating nut on the outside of the building
197
Post indicator valve assembly
Does not use a plate with words opener shot as does PIV instead use a circular disc inside a flat plate on top of the valve housing
198
Alarm check valve
Goes off when flow of water is going through a sprinkler system
199
Retard chamber
Slows water before alarm check valve reduces false fire alarms
200
Drain valve
Valve that allows piping to drain when pressure is relieved in the pipe
201
CheckValve
Automatic valve that permits liquid flow in Only One Direction
202
Class 1 standpipe
Primarily used for suppression Personnel trained in hand line large hose two and a half inch hose connections or hose station attached to stand pipe riser
203
Class 2 standpipe
Cost to standby systems primarily designed for easy divide building occupants who are trained in its use or by fire department personnel these systems are equipped with a 1 & a half inch hose line and nozzle stored on a hose rack system
204
Class 3 standpipe system
Class 3 standby systems combines the features of one and two systems provide one and a half inch hose stations to supply water and oxygen to have been trained on a two and a half inch hose connection to supply a large volume of water come by fire departments both hoses you simultaneously
205
Hepatitis A B C D
Hepatitis is from anal Hepatitis B is from bodily fluids hepatitis C from circulation drugs that may go unseen D is very rare
206
Which hepatitis has a vaccine
A&B
207
Diseases more prevalent in high-density living areas
Tuberculosis
208
Spread through contact with infected bodily fluids weakens immune system
HIV and AIDS
209
Communicable disease is a drug-resistant staph
MRSA
210
Which vaccine may be recommended for fire
Tinnitus and diphtheria
211
in what order to check patients
ABC Airway breathing and circulation
212
If someone is unresponsive and not breathing what do you check
Circulation Airway and breathing
213
How many compressions a minute for CPR
100 per minute
214
General hazardous material behavioral model GEBmO
Stress breach release dispersion exposure harm
215
Which lab is the second most common type of lab discovered
Explosive labs
216
Which of the following is an indicator of a chemical lab
Underground cookbooks
217
Which of the following is an indicator of a meth lab
Excessive trash
218
Which is the most common hazards found on a meth lab
Flammability
219
Modern and detection devices
Require special training
220
Which of the following May indicate a chemical attack
Oily film on water or Surface
221
Which of the following is an indication of physical action
Frother build-up near League
222
Which single word indicates moderate hazard
Warning
223
Which marking system is typically used in fixed storage facilities
NFPA 704
224
Un identification numbers are provided in which section of the Emergency Response Guidebook
Yellow
225
Which North American railroad tank car markings are stenciled on all four sides of tank
Initials and numbers
226
Which of the following is a bull capacity fixed so he container
Above-ground storage tanks
227
Which disposal pattern is dome-shaped
Hemispheric
228
Which part of the reactivity triangle is a fuel source for reactions
Reducing agent
229
In which state are hazardous materials primarily a contact hazard
Liquid
230
Fission reaction
Neutron
231
ERG ID number index list materials in numerical order based on their 4-Digit
Yellow Pages
232
ERG material name index list hazardous materials by name each entry includes the materials four-digit ID
Blue pages
233
incident levels for NFPA Hazmat 472
There are three levels one being the lowest that firefighters can handle two firefighters can't handle three you need Federal help
234
U.s. Nims incident types
There are five types one being the most severe 5 being the least severe
235
Level A epa
Highest level of protection against vapours gases and mists
236
Level b
Splashes and scba
237
Level c
Apr not scba splash protection
238
Level d
Coveralls gloves and boots
239
Nfpa 1500
Health and safety
240
Nfpa 1971
Structural firefighting a ensemble
241
NFPA 1404
Respiratory
242
NFPA 1981
Standard for open circuit SCBA
243
NFPA 1851
Care and maintenance of structural firefighting PPE
244
NFPA 1031
Fire prevention
245
NFPA 1002
Apparatus operator
246
NFPA 1901
Apparatus equipment
247
NFPA 1962
Fire hose
248
MC
Motor Carrier
249
DOT
Department of Transportation
250
NFPA 1991
Vapor protection suit