1- Anatomy/Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the types of glial cells and their functions?

A

Astrocytes - contribute to BBB, participate in neuronal metabolism, scaffolding for growing axons and neurons during development, maintain extracellular ion concentration
Oligodendrocytes - for the myelin sheath around CNS axons
Microglia - phagocytic cell of the CNS
Ependymal cells - line the fluid filled cavities of the brain and cord

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2
Q

Describe the types of integration of synaptic imputs.

A

Temporal summation - consecutive EPSPs at the same site add together to depolarize the membrane
Spatial summation - simultaneous EPSPs at different synapses on the same neuron sum to depolarize the membrane
** due to decay of the voltage as it travels along dendrites, the axon hillock is an important point of integration and regulation –> it is here that the EPSPs transition to Action Potentials

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3
Q

Define:

1) presynaptic facilitation
2) presynaptic inhibition
3) feed forward processes
4) disinhibition

A

1) presynaptic facilitation -> neutransmitter (NT) released at the axoaxonic synapse increases Ca at the terminal
2) presynaptic inhibition -> NT released at the azoaxonic synapse decreases Ca at the terminal
3) feed forward processes -> unidirectional flow of signal through a series of neurons causes either excitation or inhibition
4) disinhibition -> 4 neurons in series; 1 & 4 excitatory, 2 & 3 inhibitory => 1 excites 2, which inhibits 3, releasing 4 from inhibition –> excitatory signal

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4
Q

Describe the stages of the neuronal response to PNS injury.

A
  • > Retrograde reaction: occurs proximal to the axonal injury; 1)swelling of cell body/nucleus, 2) nuclear displacement from center of cell, 3)chromatolysis - dispersion of Nissl bodies, 4) RER replaced by polyribosomes
  • > Aterograde reaction(Wallerian degeneration): occurs distal to the injury; 1) Schwann cells dedifferentiate and divide, 2) Schwann cells and macrophages phagocytose the debris
  • > Regeneration: 1) growth cone develops at site of injury, 2) sprouts from growth cone must grow across site of injury to enter the schwann cell guidance tunnels, 3) schwann cell proliferation (2nd wave) stimulated by contact with growth cone, 4) tunnel and axon extend along previous nerve path to reinnervate original tissue
  • *CRUSH injury has better prognosis than TRANSECTION
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5
Q

What are the 5 divisions of the brain?

A
Forebrain:
1) Telencephalon -> cerebral cortex, subcortical white matter, basal ganglia, etc.
2) Diencephalon -> Thalamus, hypothalamus
Midbrain:
3) Mesencephalon -> Midbrain
Hindbrain:
4) Metencephalon -> Pons, Cerebellum
5) Myelencephalon -> Medulla
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6
Q

Describe the function of the Precentral Gyrus.

A

Primary Motor Cortex: contains “upper motor neurons” that travel to the brainstem and spinal cord to control “lower motor neurons” which innervate skeletal muscles of the body
-Somatotropic organization: (from lateral fissure) face, hand, arm and trunk (at longitudinal fissure); Paracentral Lobule controls the motor and sensory innervation of the lower extremeties

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7
Q

Describe the Postcentral Gyrus.

A

Primary Sensory Cortex: receives and processes somatic sensory information from the opposite side of the body
Somatotropic organization: (from the lateral fissure) face, hand, arm, trunk (at longitudinal fissure)

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8
Q

What is contralateral hemineglect?

A

Lesion to the non-dominant inferior parietal lobule causes the patient to “ignore” the contralateral half of the external world/body.
ex: not eating food on left side of plate, not drawing left half of clock, not dressing left side of body

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9
Q

What are Brosmann’s Areas?

A

Schema of organizing the brain based on cytology. Areas frequently correlate with functional region (primary motor cortex, primary auditory cortex)

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10
Q

Describe the flow path of CSF.

A

Produced by the choroid plexus and emptied into the ventricles (lateral, 3rd and 4th).
Flows through the Intraventricular Forarmen (of Munro) into the 3rd ventricle and then through the Cerebral Aqueduct into the 4th.
Exits the 4th ventricle through the foramina of Lushcka (laterally) and Magendie (medial) into the Subarachnoid Space.
Specific portions of the SAS are the major cisterns: cerebellomedullary (magna), pontine, superior(ambines), interpeduncular, and chiasmatic. These then “drain” into the superior sagital sinus via the arachnoid villi.

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11
Q

How is CSF formed?

A

75% Formed by the Choroid Plexus in the body of the lateral ventricles, the roofs of the 3rd and 4th ventricles and in the foramina of Luschka and Munro.
The choroid plexus is composed of a capillary network of fenestrated endothelia surrounded by cuboidal, choroid epithelium.
During production of CSF, metabolites are actively transported out of the ventricles into the blood.
25% of CSF is formed from extrachoroidal sources, mostly cerebral capillary walls.

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12
Q

What are the primary functions of the CSF?

A

1) Maintenance of external environment for neurons and glia
2) Removal of harmful brain metabolites
3) Protection of the brain from trauma by buoyancy effect

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13
Q

What is the composition of normal CSF?

A

Filtrate of the blood with different concentrations of key components. Compared to serum levels:

  • LOW protein (200:1)
  • low glucose, Ca++, K+ (2:1)
  • low ph (7.33)
  • less cells
  • SAME Na and Osmolarity
  • MORE water (99% v 93%), Cl-, Mg++
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14
Q

Describe Hydocephalus.

A

Hydrocephalus is an expansion of the ventricle and, frequently, increased intracranial pressure. Due to:
1) over secretion of CSF (tumor of choroid plexus/papillomas)
2) impaired reabsorption of CSF (tumors, malformations, scarring)
3) obstruction of CSF circulation (tumor as channels/foramina)
#3 is Non-Communicating, while #1&2 are Communicating
**Hydrocephalus ex vacuo is enlargement of the ventricles without increase in pressure. Due to CENTRAL ATROPHY allowing expansion, not due to CSF build up.

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15
Q

What are the barriers between the vascular, CSF and extracellular compartments of the CNS?

A

1) Blood-CSF Barrier: tight junctions of choroid epithelial cells controls the transfer of nutrients that are needed in the brain in small amounts over a long period of time (Vit C, folates)
2) CSF-Blood Barrier: molecules move freely between ventricles and intracellular space of CNS
3) Blood-Brain Barrier: regulates diffusion from blood to preserve CNS environment; actively transports nutrients consumed rapidly (glucose, amino acids, lactate, ribonucloesides); formed by:
a) endothelial cells of capillaries w tight junctions,
b) low vesicular transport of endothelial cells,
c) continuous basement membrane,
d) perivascular foot processes of Astrocytes cover the outer surface of cells

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16
Q

What are circumventricular organs?

A
  • Areas of the CNS that lack a BBB.
  • Located in close proximity to ventricles to allow for rapid response to changes in systemic chemical changes
  • EX: pineal body, subcommissural organ, subfornical organ, organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis, median eminence, neurohypophysis, area postrema
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17
Q

What are the layers of the scalp?

A

Skin - hair bearing with sweat and sebaceous glands
Connective Tissue (dense) - subcutaneous layer of collagen and fat, with vessels and nerves
Aponeurotic Layer - fibro-muscular sheet; epicranial aponeurosis, occipitalis and frontalis
Loose Connective Tissue - mobility of the scalp
Pericranium - periosteum on external surface of the skull; attached loosely except at surtures

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18
Q

Where is the pterion? What is its clinical significance?

A

On the lateral surface of the skull, it is the intersection of the frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid bones. This is a particularly weak area of the skull and it overlies the anterior branch of the Middle Meningeal Artery. A fracture here can result in a life-threatening epidural hematoma.

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19
Q

What are the meninges?

A
  • Dura mater:
    1) Periosteal dura is attached to the inner surface of the skull bones
    2) Meningeal dura is typically attached to the periosteal layer, but separates from it to form the dural venous sinuses and dural partitions
  • Arachnoid mater is attached loosely to the surface of the brain, not entering the sulci; the subarachnoid space is filled with the arachnoid trabeculae
  • Pia mater is closely attached to the brain surface and DOES enter the sulci
    • the meningeal arteries supply the layers and sensory innervation is provided by the trigeminal nerve(V1-3), C2 and C3
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20
Q

What are the classes of intracranial hemorrhage? What is their typical clinical presentation?

A

Epidural: between the periosteum of the skull and the periosteal dura, commonly from the meningeal arteries (middle)
-> Clinical: trauma w/ temporary loss of consciousness, followed by a period of “recovery,” which is then succeeded by acute onset of symptoms-> headache, confusion, contralateral motor paralysis, COMA
Subdural: between the meningeal dura and the arachnoid mater; due to a rupture of a branching vein as it travels from a sinus back to the subarachnoid space
-> Clinical: low pressure bleed results in a slowly-expanding hematoma which may present in days to weeks
Subarachnoid: between the arachnoid and pia mater; much more acute due to the number of larger vessels that pass in this true space
-> Clinical: frequently associated with aneurysms or HPTN, hemorrhage presents as acute onset of “worst headache of my life”; lumbar puncture will show blood in the CSF

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21
Q

What are the types of brain herniations? What is their typical clinical presentation?

A

1) Subfalcine: cingulate gyrus is displaced under the falx cerebri; typically due to a unilateral mass and can present as compression of the cingulate gyrus
2) Tentorial: increased supratentorial pressure can push the uncus/temporal lobe segments under the tentorial membrane; also called an Uncal hernuiation, can compress the ventral surface of the midbrain and the CNII causing a “blown pupil”
3) Tonsillar: increased intracranial pressure can push the cerebellum through the foramen magnum, resulting in compression of the respiratory control centers and respiratory arrest; can be congenital in Anrold-Chiari -> foramen usually adapts in development so symptoms are mild, absent or delayed
3) Tonsillar

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22
Q

Describe the venous drainage of the cranium.

A

CSF is resorbed into the venous system via arachnoid villi in the subarachnoid space. They act as one-way-valves from the SAS into the venous sinuses. These villi frequently group together in “arachnoid granulations.”
The remaining portions of the cranium are drained by 4 types of veins:
1) Cerebral veins - cerebral hemispheres
2) Meningeal veins - meninges
3) Diploic veins - cranial bones
4) Emissary veins - connect the veins of the face and scalp to the dural venous sinuses via openings in the bones
Once in the sinuses, the flow is via the dural sinus system which will eventually drain into the IJV.

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23
Q

What important structures are located in the cavernous sinus?

A

Vessels -> internal carotid artery travels through and back in the sinus
Nerves -> CN III, CN IV, CN V1, CN V2, CN VI
** since the superior opthalmic artery drains into the sinus, infections can make it into the sinus and present with symptoms related to any one or combination of the nerves that travel through it

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24
Q

What autonomic sensory structures are at the bifurcation of the Common Carotid and Internal Carotid Artieries?

A

Carotid Sinus -> at the bifurcation, it is a dilation of the proximal ICA wall that contains baroreceptors sensitive to changes in blood pressure -> innervated by CN IX, X and sympathetics -> activation causes reflexive DECREASE in blood pressure
Carotid Body -> body in the cleft between the arteries that are sensitive to changes in PO2, PCO2, and pH -> innervated by CN IX, X and sympathetics -> activation causes reflexive INCREASE in HR, BP and respiration

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25
Q

What is the Thyroid IMA Artery?

A

This is an occasional supplemental artery that branches from the brachiocephalic trunk, arch of the aorta, or left CCA and travels anteriorly to the trachea to the isthmus of the thyroid.
Can cause excess bleeding in a Tracheotomy or Chrychiotomy.

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26
Q

What are the four parts of the ICA?

A

1) Cervical: prior to entering skull
2) Petrous: within petrous portion of temporal bone
3) Cavernous (sigmoid): s-shaped area within the cavernous sinus
4) supraclinoid: above the anterior clinoid processes

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27
Q

What is a watershed area? How do CVAs differ in these areas?

A

A watershed area is tissue that is between the tributaries of more than one cerebral artery. In the event of a infarct in one of the arteries, the other will compensate for the loss of flow and preserve the tissue from injury/death. However, in the event of a systemic hypoperfusion, it is the most distal point of blood supply, so it will likely be the first and most severely affected.

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28
Q

What are the characteristics of primary afferent neurons?

A
  • psuedounipolar
  • cell body in Dorsal Root Ganglion
  • peripheral process from DRG to receptor, central process from DRG to synapse
  • peripheral region innervated by sensory fibers for a a single dermatome
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29
Q

Describe the path of the Posterior Column/Medial Lemniscal tracts.

A
  • Sensory fibers (Grp I/II) provide two-point touch, vibration and conscious proprioception.
  • Travel through DRG and enter medial to Zone of Lissauer.
  • Arrange from Medial to Lateral as you ascend the cord
  • T6 = F. Gracilis medial and F. Cuneatus lateral within the posterior column
  • SYNAPSE in lower medulla at the Nucleus gacilis and cuneatus (respectively) with Internal Arcuate Fibers (IAF)
  • IAF CROSS via the Anterior White Commisure to the Medial Meniscus with the somatopic arrangement altered (lower limb ventral, upper limb dorsal)
  • Basilar Pons: somatopic arrangement shifts (lower limb lateral, upper limb medial)
  • SYNAPSE in Ventral Posterior Nucleus in Thalamus
  • tertiary neurons travel to Primary Sensory Cortex
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30
Q

Describe the path of the Anterolateral Spinothalamic System (ALSTS).

A
  • Sensory fibers (Grp III/IV) provide pain and temperature.
  • Travel through DRG and enter through the Zone of Lissauer.
  • Arrange from Medial to Lateral as you ascend the cord
  • SYNAPSE in Dorsal Horn (Laminae I/II/V)
  • CROSS via the Anterior White Commissure to the Anterolateral tract
  • travel up cord maintaining somatotopic arrangement (lower=lateral; upper=medial)
  • SYNAPSE in Ventral Posterior Nucleus in Thalamus
  • tertiary neurons travel to Primary Sensory Cortex
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31
Q

Describe the path of the Spinocerebellar Tracts.

A
  • Sensory fibers (Grp Ia/Ib) provide unconscious proprioception; muscle feedback via spindle fibers and golgi tendon organs.
  • Anterior SCT -> gross coordination and posture of lower limbs
  • Posterior SCT -> fine coordination of poster of lower limbs
  • Travel via DRG and enter cord medial to the Zone of Lissauer
  • Some fibers SYNAPSE in the Dorsal Horn and CROSS via the Anterior White Commissure to the ASCT in the Lateral Fascicle
  • The ASCT continues up to the Cerebellum
  • The remaining fibers travel up the ipsilateral Fasciculus Gracilis
  • SYNAPSE in the Dorsal Nucleus of Clark at the C8-L2
  • They then travel up the IPSILATERAL PSCT in the Lateral Fasciculus to the cerebellum
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32
Q

What are the types of Nociceptors?

A

Thermal: low (45C) temps -> Group III fibers
Mechanical: intense pressure -> Group III fibers
Polymodal: high intensity mechanical, thermal and/or chemical stimuli; can be associated with chemical changes from tissue damage -> Group IV fibers

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33
Q

What is the gate theory of pain?

A

-Gate theory states that the sensation of pain is the result of the interaction of four cells within the dorsal horn (laminae II). If the net result is excitatory, pain is felt. If not, pain is suppressed.
-1) Group IV pain fiber from nociceptor, 2) Group I/II pressure fiber, 3) spontaneous firing inhibitory cell within dorsal horn, 4) secondary neuron that will travel up the ALSTS
-The spontaneous inhibitory neuron continually suppresses the ALSTS from firing when no other stimuli are present. With the addition of a noxious stimuli, the Group IV fibers excite the ALSTS neuron and inhibit the spontaneous inhibitory neuron. As a result, there is maximal transmission of stimuli and PAIN is felt.
-If the Group I/II pressure fibers of the area are also stimulated by the noxious stimuli, they excite the spontaneously inhibitory neuron and block or weaken the transmission of the PAIN to the ALSTS.
CLINICAL: basis for why rubbing an area makes it hurt less; basis of implantable, subcutaneous stimulators to relieve chronic pain

34
Q

What is the mechanism of CNS mediated pain supression?

A
  • When stimulated by a noxious stimuli, some fibers from the ALSTS synapse in the Periaquaductal Gray (PAG) area and the Reticular Formation (RF) in the medulla and pons.
  • Fibers from the PAG the descend to synapse with Serotonergic and Noradrenergic neurons in the medullary RF
  • These RF neurons then travel to synapse with Enkephalinergic Inhibitory Neurons in the LAM II of the Dorsal Horn
  • These neurons inhibit the Group IV pain fibers Pre-Synaptically and the projection neuron of ALSTS Post-Synaptically
  • This inhibition can result in dulling or blocking of PAIN
35
Q

What is the mechanism of hyperalgesia?

A
  • Hyperalgesia: increased sensitivity of nociceptor at site of injury and/or the immediately surrounding area
  • Tissue injury releases several neuroactive peptides which sensitize the nociceptor: bradykinin, 5HT, Prostaglandin, Histamine
  • In addition, CNS fibers in the vicinity release Substance P, which stimulates additional release of Histamine and vasodilation -> both of these actions cause edema and the subsequent increased release of bradykinin
  • ALSO, the projection neuron of the ALSTS in the dorsal horn (LAM II) becomes sensitized due to repeated firing and adds to the hyperalgesic state
36
Q

What is the mechanism of referred pain?

A

Both visceral and cutaneous nociceptors bind in LAM II of a given spinal cord level. Some of these visceral fibers stimulate the ALSTS projection neurons of the cutaneous pain fibers. This Convergence-projection produces a sensation of cutaneous pain.

37
Q

What is the mechanism of thermal sensation?

A
  • Four types of fibers interact to produce the sensation of temperature.
  • 1)Warm: Group IV fibers increase firing >35C; 2) Cold: Group III/IV fibers increase firing 45C; 4) Cold nociceptor: Group IV fibers increase <5C
  • These fibers produce the sensation of peripheral temperature and fibers (1) and (2) synapse in the Hypothalamus to aid in central regulation of body temperature
38
Q

What are the primary higher-order motor control areas of the brain?

A

1) Primary Motor Cortex -> precentral gyrus
2) Supplementary Motor Area -> medial surface of frontal lobe, forward of paracentral lobule
3) Lateral Premotor Area -> lateral surface of the frontal lobe, anterior to the primary motor cortex

39
Q

What is the somatotopic arrangement of Lower Motor Neurons?

A
Ventral Horn:
Lateral -> Distal
Medial -> proximal
Dorsal -> ~flexors
Ventral -> ~extensors
40
Q

What is the path of the Lateral Corticospinal Tract?

A
  • Control fine, skilled motor actions of distal limb INDIVIDUAL muscles
  • Originate in motor control from higher-control centers: primary motor cortex, premotor and supplemental motor cortex, and somatosensory cortex.
  • Travel through the corona radiata, posterior limb of the internal capsule, crus cerebri of midbrain, basilar pons and medullary pyramids
  • At the spinomedullay junction ~90% cross to the Lateral Fasciculus (LCST) while the remaining ~10% remain in the ipsilateral anterior fasciculus (ACST)
  • The LCST neurons then synapse at LMN or interneurons in the lateral portion of the ventral horn
41
Q

What is the function and path of the Anterior Corticospinal Tract?

A
  • Same as the Lateral Corticospinal Tract until the Pyrimidal Decussation at the spinomedullary junction where the ANTERIOR fibers stay in the IPSILATERAL Anterior Fasciculus.
  • These fibers synapse on LMN and interneurons in the Medial Ventral Horn to control axial and proximal muscle groups
  • ACST control bilateral muscle groups, meaning that individual lesions typically do NOT result in functional impairments
42
Q

What is the function and path of the Rubrospinal Tract?

A
  • control motor function of upper limb flexors
  • Originates in the Red Nucleus of the Midbrain
  • CROSS to the Contralateral Lateral Fasciculus (medial of the LCST) at the LEVEL OF ORGIN
  • Synapse on LMN in the lateral/dorsal ventral horn
  • only travel within the Cervical Spine
  • Functional losses are usually compensated for by the LCST => lesions not clinically significant
43
Q

What is the path and function of the Vestibulospinal Tract?

A

-Contain two tracts that originate in the Vestibular Nucleus(VN) of the Pons
1) Lateral VST-> originates in the lateral portion of the VN and travel down the IPSILATERAL Anterior Faniculus
-controls extensors of the upper and lower limbs -> Righting Reflex
2) Medial VST-> originates in the medial protion of the VN and travel down both ipsi and contralateral sides of the Anterior faniculus of the Cervical Spine
-controls eye and head movement coordination as when changing gaze
CLINICAL: if there is a transection of the brainstem near the pons/midbrain junction, higher-brain control of movements can be lost, causing unopposed control by the VST -> DECEREBRATE RIGIDITY

44
Q

What is the function and path of the Reticulospinal Tract?

A
  • Two tract originate in the Reticular Formation of the Pons (1) and Medulla(2) and travel down through the ipsilateral Anterior Funiculus to synapse in the medial/dorsal Ventral Horn
    1) Pontine: controls axial and proximal muscles for posture and tone
    2) Medullary: INHIBITORY affect on axial and proximal limb muscles -> assist in ATONIA during sleep
45
Q

What is the typical clinical presentation of a lesion affecting a LMN vs a UMN?

A

Both LMN and UMN lesions produce weakness/paralysis

  • LMN lesions: this causes cell death -> flaccid paralysis
  • reduced tone/atonia
  • reduced or absent reflex
  • rapid atrophy
  • UMN lesions: this does not cause immediate death, just loss of control -> spastic paralysis
  • increased resting tone(hypertonia)
  • increased resisting to passive movement
  • increased myotatic reflexes (hyperreflexia)
  • return of primitive reflexes (Babinski)
46
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of Polio and ALS.

A

Motor Syndromes

1) Poliomyelitis: neurotropic virus can cause paralysis ( asymmetric weakness/paralysis, reduced tone, reduced reflexes with maintained sensory innervation
- if affects cranial or phrenic nerves, severe symptoms can progress
2) Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis: systemic, bilateral, progressive degeneration of UMN and LMNs
- weakness with BOTH UMN and LMN neurological signs
- sensory and mental status is usually unaffected

47
Q

What are extrafusal and intrafusal fibers?

A

Extrafusal fibers refer to those muscle fibers not associated with a muscle spindle. These are the force generating fibers. They contain ONLY efferent (motor) innervation.
Intrafusal fibers are those within the muscle spindle. These are fewer and do not generate significant amount of force. Contain BOTH efferent (motor) and afferent (sensory) innervation.

48
Q

Describe the form and function of a muscle spindle.

A
  • These are stretch receptors located within a CT capsule in parallel with the rest of the muscle, anchored by to extrafusal muscles.
  • Consist of bag and chain fibers: Bag = clustered in the center of the capsule and sense BOTH length and velocity; Chain = string of nuclei in the capsule that sense ONLY length
  • Sensory innervation: Group Ia fibers detect BOTH length and velocity in BOTH bag and chain cells; Group II fibers detect ONLY length in MOSTLY chain cells (not significant in reflex)
  • Motor innervation: Gamma Motor Neurons travel from the ventral horn w/ a-motors to innervate the contractile portion of the spindle to Regulate the spindle Sensitivity
  • Function: firing rate of Group Ia fibers correlates with a change in length and rate of change; gamma motor neurons are co-activated w/ a-motor neurons to maintain tension/sensitivity of the spindle (gamma bias)
49
Q

Describe the form and function of the Golgi Tendon Organ.

A
  • Stretch receptors located within the muscle-tendon junction in Series with extrafusal muscle
  • consists of an encapsulated network of collagen fibers which are intertwined with a Group Ib sensory fiber
  • when the muscle is stretched (active>passive) firing is stimulated by opening of mechanical ion channels within the branches of the Group Ib fiber
50
Q

What is the mechanism of a myotatic reflex?

A
  • a Monosynaptic Pathway of one afferent neuron and one a-motor neuron synapsing in the ventral horn of the cord
  • contraction is elicited in response to stretch of the muscle
  • Fast: 15-25msec
51
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

A

This is a process by which a collateral from the afferent fiber of a muscle spindle stimulates an inhibitory interneuron for the ipsilateral antagonist muscle. This relaxes the antagonist muscle to allow the agonist to contract in response to the reflex.

52
Q

Describe the mechanism of a Golgi Tendon Organ Reflex.

A
  • Golgi Tendon Organ Reflex: 1) regulation of muscle tension, 2) equalize tension among muscle groups, 3) coordination of voluntary and reflexive mvmts
  • a Group Ib inhibitory interneuron receives input from several sources: Golgi organ (Group Ib), cutaneous afferents (Group III/IV), muscle spindle (Group Ia), descending pathways (Group Ia/Ib)
  • The net result of these inputs act to excite/inhibit the a-motor neuron for the affected muscle
  • There is also an interaction with the antagonist muscles to coordinate movements (grasping)
  • this allows for controlled balance of tension of muscle groups
53
Q

Describe the Flexor Withdrawal Reflex.

A
  • This is a coordination of multiple muscle groups bilaterally in response to a single stimuli (stepping on a tack, etc).
  • the reflex is Polysynaptic: the afferent fiber (Group III/IV) synapses with multiple interneurons on the multiple spinal cord levels
  • Through both excitatory and inhibitory interneurons the agonist muscles are contracted and the reciprocal antagonist muscles relaxed to provide a FAST, coordinated movement (Reciprocal Inhibition)
54
Q

Describe the Crossed Extensor Reflex.

A
  • consists of multilevel (intersegmental) interneuron connections that provide for coordination of multiple, bilateral muscle groups
  • when lifting one leg while standing, the contralateral extensor (antigravity) muscles flex and the contralateral flexors relax (Reciprocal Inhibition)
  • this is accomplished through both inhibitory and excitatory interneurons
55
Q

Describe the arrangement of the Sympathetic Nervous System.

A
  • Part of the autonomic system responsible for the Flight/Flight Response
  • TWO neuron chains: pre and post-ganglionic neurons
  • Preganglionic Cell Bodies: located within IML of T1-L3
  • Postganglionic Cell Bodies -> sympathetic ganglions: superior cervical (sympathetic chain), inferior cervical (sympathetic chain), celiac, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric
  • Preganglionic course through WHITE fibers
  • Postganglionic course through GRAY fibers
56
Q

Describe the arrangement of the Parasympathetic Nervous System.

A
  • parasympathetic system is part of the Rest/Digest innervations
  • Preganglionic Cell Bodies: split between cranial nerve nuclei (CN III, VII, IX, and X) and sacral parasympathetic nuclei (S2-4)
  • Postganglionic Cell Bodies: Cranial-> within 4 ganglia (Ciliary, Optic, Pterygopalatine, Sumandibular - COPS); Sacral -> within the lining of the viscera they are innervating
  • all of the postganglionic nerves are short compared to sympathetic nerves, but the parasympathetic postganglionic nerves of the thorax and abdomen are markedly shorter than those in the head/neck
57
Q

What is the path of the descending autonomic pathway?

A
  • originating in the hypothalamus and the brainstem nuclei
  • descend Ipsiliaterally in the medial part of the lateral funiculus
  • synapse with Sympathetics (IML of T1-L3) and Parasympathetics (S2-S4)
  • Function: control sympathetics, control parasympathetics of S2-S4
58
Q

What are the layers of the pharyngeal wall?

A

1) Mucousal membrane: continuous with mucosa of other communicating cavities
2) Pharyngobasilar fascia: attaches to the skull; defines upper limit of pharynx
3) Muscular layer: inner longitudinal and external transverse/oblique muscles
4) Buccopharyngeal Fascia: lines the anterior face of the retropharyngeal space

59
Q

What significant structures penetrate through the intervals between the pharyngeal constrictor muscles?

A

1) Auditory Tube: between the upper anterior attachment of the superior constrictor muscle and the lower border of the pterygoid hamulus
2) Sylopharyngeal muscle and Glassopharyngeal Nerve(CN IX): between the superior and middle constrictor muscles
3) Internal Laryngeal Nerve (from CN X):l between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles
4) Recurrent(inferior) Laryngeal Nerve (from CN X): deep and inferior to the inferior constrictor muscle

60
Q

What are the salivary glands of the mouth?

A

1) Parotid Glands: largest glands located opposite the upper
second molar
2) Submandibular Glands: located deep within the oral cavity; the submandibular duct arises from the deep part of the gland and opens into the sublingual caruncle
3) Sublingual Glands: numerous small glands (10-12 per side); located on the floor of the cavity on the myohyoid muscle and the two (bilateral) glands unite in the middle to form a “horseshoe” around the frenulum of the tongue
4) numerous glands are also distributed throughout the oral mucosa that aid in mastication, digestion, and deglutition of food

61
Q

What is the origin, course and function of CN XII?

A
  • Hypoglossal Nerve originates in the Hypoglossal Nucleus in the upper medulla (just lateral to the Dorsal Sulcus).
  • It provides all of the Motor innervation to the tongue (except the palatoglossus->CN X).
  • It travels out the preolivary sulcus as rootlets and merge before exiting the skull via the Hypoglossal Foramen.
  • It enters the carotid sheath posterior to the IJV and ICA.
  • It then wraps around the ECA, diving under the occipital artery and turning medially toward the jaw. It passes over the “bend” of the lingual artery, then travels between the hyoglossus and myoglossus
  • It then branches to innervate the muscles of the toungue(intrinsic of the tongue, styloglossus, myoglossus, hyoglossus, genioglossus, geniohyiod)
62
Q

What is the origin, course and function of CN XI?

A
  • Spinal Accessory Nerve originates within the Accessory Nucleus and Supraspinal Nucleus (medulla) which is the ventral horn of C1-C5.
  • Provide Motor innervation to the Trapesius and Sternocleidomastoid.
  • Rootlets exit the cord between the dorsal and ventral roots and travel parallel to the cord up through the foramen magnum.
  • They then turn and travel back out the jugular foramen, posterior to the IJV and innervate Trapesius and Sternocleidomastoid
63
Q

What are the nucleus that serve CN X? What are their functions?

A

Vagus has 5 components:

1) SVE-> Nucleus Ambiguus -> MOTOR: muscles of the palate and larynx via External and Recurrent Laryngeal Nerves
2) GVE-> DMX (Dorsal Motor Nucleus of CN X)-> MOTOR: preganglionic parasympathetics for heart, lung and GI
3) SVA-> Solitary Nucleus -> SENSORY: taste for epiglottis (upper part of nucleus)
4) GVA-> Solitary Nucleus -> SENSORY: visceral sensation for cardio/pulmonary control (baro/chemoreceptors)
5) GSA -> Spinal V Nucleus -> SENSORY: general sensation for external ear and meninges

64
Q

What is the course of CN X?

A
  • Vagus originates in 4 nuclei within the medulla (n. ambiguus, DMX, solitary n., spinal V n.) and exit via the postolivary sulcus.
  • travel through the foramen magnum (superior and inferior ganglia on either side of opening) to enter the carotid sheath
  • Gives off pharyngeal branch to muscles of pharynx which innervates muscles of pharynx (except stylopharyngues-CNX) and palate (except tensor veli palatine-CNV); Taste also travels w/ branch
  • Gives off superior laryngeal branch to, which becomes the internal and external laryngeal branches: INT-sensory to the mucosa of larynx ABOVE vocal fold {cough reflex}; EXT-motor to cricothyroid
  • At level of subclavia/aorta, gives off recurrent laryngeal branch which travels btwn trachea and esophagus, under inferior constrictor to provide motor to ALL intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except cricothyroid) and sensory larynx mucosa BELOW vocal fold
  • remainder of nerve continues to provide parasympathetic innervation to cardio, pulmonary and GI plexi
65
Q

What are the components of CN IX?

A

Glassopharyngeal Nerve has 5 components:

1) SVE-> N. Ambiguus-> MOTOR to sylopharyngeus
2) GVE-> Inferior Salivary N.-> MOTOR: preganglionic parasympathetic innervation of parotid glands
3) SVA-> Solitary N.-> SENSORY (taste) for posterior 1/3 of tongue
4) GVA-> Solitary N. -> SENSORY of mucosa of pharynx, carotid bodies and sinus
5) GSA -> Spinal V N. -> SENSORY for external ear

66
Q

What is the course of CN IX?

A

-Glossopharyngeal components exit medulla at postolivary sulcus, merge then exit the skull via the jugular foramen
-Superior and inferior ganglia exist one either side of the jugular foramen containing cell bodies for GSA(ext. ear) and SVA(taste)/GVA(parasym), respectively
-wraps around Stylopharyngeus (innervating it) and giving of branches:
1) tympanic branch->parotid gland
2) carotid bodies/sinus
3) pharyngeal branch-> pharyngeal plexus
Terminates) posterior 1/3 tongue and mucosa

67
Q

Describe the Taste Pathway.

A
  • Sensory input from tongue travels to Solitary N. via CN V (anterior 1/3), CN IX (posterior 1/3) and CN X (epiglottis)
  • 2nd neurons travel up the Central Tegmental Tract to the Ventral Posterior Medial Nucleus in Thalamus (IPSILATERAL)
  • from the VPM, neurons project to the Taste Cortex which exists in the insula and parietal operculum
68
Q

Explain the role of CN IX and X in the Cardiorespiratory reflex.

A
  • General Visceral Afferent fibers from carotid bodies (IX) and cardiopulmonary receptors (X) synapse in the lower portion of the Solitary N.
  • From here neurons project up to the Reticular Formation, where numerous inputs are integrated to affect a reflexive change in BP, RR and HR
69
Q

Explain the role of CN IX and X in the vomiting.

A
  • General Visceral Afferent fibers from the stomach and small intestine are Serotonergic fibers sensitive to emetic agents
  • They synapse int he lower portion of the Solitary N
  • from here neurons travel to the Area Postrema -> a major emetic center in the medulla-> causing nausea/vomiting
70
Q

Explain the role of CN IX and X in the Gag reflex.

A
  • The gag reflex is elicited by touching the pharyngeal mucosa, which results in bilateral elevation of the soft palate
  • This is a useful test of both CN IX and X
  • SVA fibers of CN IX from the pharyngeal mucosa transmit to the Solitary N.
  • Neurons from Solitary N. synapse at the N. Ambiguus
  • This stimulates GSE fibers of CN X, resulting in contraction of palate muscles (gag)
71
Q

What is the clinical presentation of unilateral damage to:

1) hypoglossus (XII)
2) spinal accessory (XI)
3) vagus (X)
4) glossopharyngeal (IX)

A

1) Hypoglossus-> ipsilateral weakness of the tongue muscles; tongue deviates to the injured side
2) Spinal Accessory-> ipsilateral weakness of trap and sternocleidomastoid; can’t shrug ipsilateral shoulder, can’t turn head to CONTRAlateral side
3) Vagus-> ipsilateral weakness of palate, pharynx, and larynx (except stylopharyngeaus), autonomic reflex issues; hoarsness, dysarthria, dysphagia, ipsilateral soft palate droop, unilateral(or none) gag reflex
4) Glossopharyngeal-> irritation/damage to sensory path to throat, posterior tongue, ear, tonsils; intense episodes of pain in affected areas, frequently caused by swallowing, coughing, or speaking

72
Q

List four major regions of the Reticulate Formation. What are their functions?

A

1) Ascending Reticular Activating System (ARAS): modulates arousal and consciousness; plays important role in sleep/wake and cortical activity during sleep
2) Descending Medial Pathway of Pain Modulation: modulate pain in flight/flight situations; through stimulation of enkaphalin pathways
3) Reticulospinal Motor Pathway: Pontine-> facilitates muscle tone and mediates phasic motor activity in axial and proximal muscles; Medullary-> inhibits muscle tone, as in atonia during REM sleep
4) Autonomic Control of Circulation and Respiration: control BP and HR

73
Q

Describe the location, inputs, outputs, and function of the Ascending Reticular Activating System.

A

1) located medially through all levels of RF (most in upper pons and midbrain); composed of large cells with multiple, long dendrites and a long axon
2) synapse with sensory tracts: spinothalamic, spinal V and acoustic collaterals
3) send axon up Central Tegmental Tract to the Intralaminal Thalamic Nuclei; axons then project diffusely across cortex
4) essential for maintenance of consciousness and arousal (ie: sleep)

74
Q

Describe the location, inputs, outputs, and function of the Descending Medial Pathway of Pain Modulation.

A

1) also called raphe magnus: located midline and contains large, serotonergic neurons
2) inputs from pain suppression areas such as PAG area of midbrain
3) sends signals bilaterally to dorsal horns (LAM I/II) to suppress pain (opioid receptors/enkaphalins)
4) modulate pain sensation in emergency situations

75
Q

Describe the location, inputs, outputs, and function of the Reticulospinal Motor Pathways.

A

1) originate in giant cell neurons in medial RF in pons and medulla
2) receive input from multiple higher motor centers
3) Pontine: travels bilaterally down the MLF to all levels of the cord; Medullary: travels bilaterally down the anterior fasiculus to all levels of the cord
4) Pontine: facilitates muscle tone in axial and proximal muscles; Medullary: inhibits muscle tone in axial and proximal muscles, as in REM sleep atonia

76
Q

Describe the location, inputs, outputs, and function of the Autonomic Control of Circulation and Respiration.

A

1) located in multiple groups of catecholnergic cell groups throughout the intermediate RF of pons and medulla
2) inputs from numerous autonomic centers (hypothalamus)
3) travels down lateral fasiculus to IML of sympathetic system; also travels up to hypothalamus
4) controls BP and HR

77
Q

What is the location and function of the Serotonergic Pathway?

A
  • originating in the Raphe Magnus of the midbrain/RF
  • sends multiple ascending branches to regions of the forebrain and cerebellum; and descending branches to all levels of the spinal cord
  • Ascending pathways participate in arousal/sleep mechanisms
  • Descending pathways participate in pain suppresion
  • some also innervate the blood vessels of the pia, causing vasocontriction (important for migrain Tx)
78
Q

What is the location and function of the Noradrenergic Pathway?

A
  • originating in dorsolateral region of pons -> locus ceruleus
  • sends multiple branches throughout CNS: diencephalon, cortex and spinal cord
  • plays an important role in arousal and attention
79
Q

What is the location and function of the Dopamine Pathway?

A
  • originates in the substantia nigra, pars compacta and ventral tegmental region (not in RF)
  • receives inputs from the RF (raphe magnus) and send projections throughout brain
  • participate in motor response activation and behavior sequencing
  • damage to substantia nigra can result in Parkinson’s
80
Q

What is the location and function of the Histamine Pathway?

A
  • originating in the tuberomammilary nucleus, lateral to mammillary bodies, NOT in RF
  • project to all regions of the CNS
  • mediate arousal, sleep/wake cycle