1 DL QUIZLET CARDS

Question 1

FOUR FORCES

Answer 1

Four Forces

Lift, Weight, Thrust, and Drag

Question 2

DIFFERENCES IN TYPES OF FOG

Answer 2

Describe the different types of fog
Radiation Fog: Results when cooling of earth’s surface reduce air near the ground to its dew point on clear, calm nights
Steam Fog: Formed when cold air moves over relatively warm water or ground
Advection Fog: Formed when warm, humid air flows over cool ground water
Upslope Fog: Formed when humid air flows uphill and is adiabatically cooled to its dew point
Ice Fog: Composed of minute suspended particles of ice. Usually occurs at very low temps
Precipitation Fog: Forms when precip falls into cold air

Question 3

TCAS

Answer 3

What is TCAS?
Traffic Collision Avoidance System
TCAS I: Provided advisories only
TCAS II: Provides advisories and altitude resolutions

Question 4

One hour from your destination a warm front passes through. It has begun raining and visibility is barely
above mins. What can you expect the weather to be at your arrival time?

Answer 4

You can expect worse wx (Warm front=decreasing vis/showery precip, Cold front=improving vis)

Question 5

If you are landing behind a heavy jet with minimum spacing on rwy 18 (12000ft long) with winds 090/6, what is the most appropriate action?

Answer 5

Land beyond his touch down point

Question 6

When do engine compressor stalls usually occur?

Answer 6

High AOA and high power settings

Question 7

If the temperature is 58 F and the dew point is 55 F, what could happen?

Answer 7

If the temperature falls fog may form

Question 8

Cruising along you experience a total AC failure but you are able to get one generator back on line. How
do you know how much power the generator is creating?

Answer 8

The kilowatts meter

Question 9

On takeoff, ATC instructs you to turn immediately to a designated heading, when do you turn (AIM 4-4-9)?

Answer 9

The term immediately in a clearance or instruction implies urgency of an imminent situation and expeditious compliance by the pilot is expected and necessary for safety

Question 10

If you are shooting an approach to a narrow runway, what is a common tendency?

Answer 10

Flare late due to image that you are higher than normal

Question 11

What are the differences between Visual and Contact Approach?(AIM 5-4-20)

Answer 11

Visual Approach
Conducted on an IFR clearance
Reported wx at airport must be greater than 1000-3
Must have preceding aircraft or airport in sight
Contact Approach
Pilot must request contact approach
Must be able to operate with 1 mile vis and clear of clouds
Airport must have a standard or special instrument approach

Question 12

With a Pt2 probe iced over, what indications will you get?

Answer 12

A falsely high EPR

Question 13

How is engine oil cooled on most jets?

Answer 13

Fuel heat transfer

Question 14

How does turbulence effect stall speed?

Answer 14

Increases stall speed due to an increase in load factor

Question 15

Describe the difference between a slip and a skid

Answer 15

Slip: Turn without enough rudder
Skid: Turn with too much rudder

Question 16

What are the mins for ILS Cat I, Cat II, and Cat III? (AIM 1-1-9)

Answer 16

Cat I: DH of 200 ft and RVR of 2400 (1800 w/ TDZ lighting and centerline lighting)
Cat II: DH of 100 ft and RVR of 1200
Cat IIIa: No DH or DH less than 100 ft and RVR not less than 700

Question 17

What does a decrease in air density cause?

Answer 17

Decrease in air density yields a decrease in drag and lift due to less air particles in the body of air

Question 18

What is the higher TAS?

(a) 250 KCAS @ FL370 & -40 C
(b) 260 KCAS @ FL300 & -30C
(c) 350 KTAS @ 10000’
(d) 350 KTAS at FL200 & -20C?

Answer 18

(a) 250+(.0237)250= 435 KTAS
(b) 260+(.0230)260=416 KTAS
Therefore 435 KTAS is the highest

Question 19

Your DME is inoperative. You turn 90 degrees to the station and time for 1 min. The needle falls from degrees above to 5 degrees below (10 radials). If you are going 480 KTAS, what is your distance from the
station?

Answer 19

480 KTAS= 8 NM/min so you have traveled 8 NM

8 NM/10 radials* 60= 48 DME from the station

Question 20

You are 90 DME at FL 300 inbound to the VOR. You are requested to cross the station at 3000 ft. If you are at .6 Mach, when do you start down and what is your pitch change?

Answer 20

Gradient = (300-30)/90= 3
VVI= 3(6 NM/min100)= 1800 fpm

Question 21

One aircraft departs ATL at .7 Mach, a second aircraft departs ATL 30 minutes later at .8 Mach. When will the second plane catch the first?

Answer 21

In 30 minutes, the first plane travels 210 NM

If the second plane is flying 1 NM/min faster than the first, it will require 210 minutes to catch it

Question 22

Holding NE of 020R at 40 DME fix, 20 DME legs, at out bound turn, what should the tail of the bearing pointer read (no wind at 6000 ft)?

Answer 22

??

Question 23

If you are at FL 370 descending to FL 200 at 2500 fpm, how long will it take?

Answer 23

(37000-20000)* x min/2500 ft

17000/2500= 6.8 minutes

Question 24

At FL260 and 40 DME you are requested to be at 6000 ft at 20 DME, what pitch change is needed?

Answer 24

Descent Gradient= (260-60)/(40-20)= 200/20= 10 degrees pitch

Question 25

At .6M, what is the VVI for a 1 degree descent?

Answer 25

.6 Mach = 6 NM/min | 1 degree = 6 NM/min*100= 600 fpm

Question 26

Inbound to the VOR heading 180 at 300 KTAS. You want to intercept the 20 DME arc. What is your lead point?

Answer 26

TR= (NM/min)-2 =(300/60)-2= 3 | Lead point = 20 +3= 23 DME

Question 27

What is radius of turn a function of?

Answer 27

Velocity and load factor This would limit maximum turn rate or minimum turn radius, however, the actual performance would still be determined using only airspeed and angle of bank.

Question 28

Established on the 20 DME arc, you want to turn onto the 120R. Your TAS is 300 KTAS, what is your lead point?

Answer 28

``` Lead point = 60/DME * TR TR= (NM/min)-2 (60/20)[(300/60)-2]= (33)= 9 degrees Lead point = 120+9= 129 degrees I DID IT 300/60 = .5MPM - 2 = 3 20DME = 3 RADIALS (60=1 30=2 20=3 REMEMBER) 3 X 3 = 9 120 + 9 = 129 ```

Question 29

On the 10 DME arc you need a 2 NM lead point, how many radials is that?

Answer 29

``` = 12 RADIALS At 10 DME there are 6 radials/NM therefore 12 radials I DID IT REMEMBER 10DME = 6 RADIALS 20DME = 3 RADIAL 60DME = 1 RADIAL SO 6 RADIALS X 2NM LEAD = 12 ```

Question 30

AT 20 DME, how many radial are there per NM? | At 60 DME,

Answer 30

20 DME there is 3 radials/NM 1 radial/NM therefore at

Question 31

At FL270 and .75M and 25 DME, what descent gradient and VVI is needed to be at 12,000 ft over the VOR?

Answer 31

Descent Gradient= (270-120)/25NM= 150/25= 6 .75 Mach= 7.5 NM/min Therefore: VVI= 6(7.5100)= 4500 fpm

Question 32

MOCA

Answer 32

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude: IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 1000' obstacle clearance (2000' in mountains) w/in 4 NM of route segment but navaid reception only w/in 22 NM of VOR

Question 33

MEA

Answer 33

Define MEA, Minimum Enroute Altitude: IFR obstruction clearance altitude that provides 1000' obstacle clearance (2000' in mountains) w/in 4 NM of route segment and navaid reception along the entire route NO COMM GUARANTEED

Question 34

MVA

Answer 34

Minimum Vectoring Altitude: Established for use by ATC when radar is exercised. Provides 1000' obstacle clearance (2000' in mountains) w/in 3 NM of the obstruction in the sector ONLY 3

Question 35

MSA

Answer 35

Define MSA, Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude: Published on IAPs based on primary omnidirectional facility for approach. Expressed in feet above msl and normally have a 25NM radius (may be expanded to 30 NM). May be sectored into as many as four quadrants no less than 90 degrees in spread. MSA provides 1000 ft obstacle clearance over all obstructions but may not assure navaid reception. DOESN'T SAY ANYTHING ABOUT 2,000 IN MTN.

Question 36

VISUAL APPROACH CONTACT APPROACH

Answer 36

What are the differences between Visual and Contact Approach?(AIM 5-4-20) Visual Approach Conducted on an IFR clearance Reported wx at airport must be greater than 1000-3 Must have preceding aircraft or airport in sight Contact Approach Pilot must request contact approach Must be able to operate with 1 mile vis and clear of clouds Airport must have a standard or special instrument approach THAT IS WHY WE DON'T DO THEM

Question 37

CLEARED APPROACH

Answer 37

What does Cleared the Approach mean?(AIM 5-4-7) Indicates that the pilot may execute any one of the authorized IAPs for that airport. This does not constitute approval to execute a contact or visual approach

Question 38

WHEN DO YOU NOT DO A PROCEDURE TURN.

Answer 38

``` When do you not do a Procedure Turn?(AIM 5-4-8) Flying a straight-in (NoPT routing) Radar Vectoring Conducting a timed approach Holding pattern in lieu of PT PT not authorized ```

Question 39

WHEN IS ALTERNATE REQUIRED? DOMESTICE FLAG OPERATIONS

Answer 39

When is an alternate required? (FAR 121.619-121.621) Domestic Operations no alternate is required if: +/- 1 hr eta destination wx is better than 2000ft and 3 miles vis Flag Operations no alternate required (no more than 6 hr flight) if: +/- 1 hr eta destination wx is at least 1500 above circling mda if circling approach is to be used at least 1500 ft above lowest suitable mins or 2000 ft (which ever is greater and at least 2 miles vis above lowest suitable mins or 3 miles vis (which ever is greater)

Question 40

FUEL REQUIREMENTS DOMESTIC FLAG

Answer 40

What are the fuel requirements for Flag and Domestic ops? Domestic: No person may dispatch an airplane unless there is sufficient fuel to fly to Destination Most distant alternate 45 minutes at normal cruise Flag: No person may dispatch an airplane unless there is sufficient fuel to fly to Destination Ten percent of the cruise time Most distant alternate 30 minutes holding at 1500 ft above alternate airport

Question 41

T/O ALTERNATE

Answer 41

What qualifies as a departure alternate?(FAR 121.617) Aircraft having 2 engines: Not more than one hour away with one engine inoperative at normal cruise in still air Aircraft having 3 or more engines: Not more than two hours away with one engine inoperative at normal cruise in still air

Question 42

STANDARD T/O MIN?

Answer 42

What are the standard takeoff minimums? (FAR 91.175) Unless authorized by the administrator, no pilot operating under Parts 121, 125, 127, 129, or 135 may depart an airfield when the wx is less than the IFR departure mins for that airfield as prescribed under Part 97. In the absence of any departure mins then: For aircraft with two engines or less- 1 sm visibility For aircraft with three or more engines- 1/2 sm visibility

Question 43

WHEN CAN YOU DESCEND BELOW MDA/DH

Answer 43

When can you descend below MDA/DH? (FAR 121.651) Visibility equal to or greater than mins for the approach Aircraft continuously in position to land at normal rate of descent within the touchdown zone Runway environment in sight Approach light system (**May not descend below 100 ft above TDZE using ALS unless red terminating bars or red side row bars are visible and identifiable) Threshold, Threshold Markings, Threshold Lights Runway End Identifier Lights (REILs) Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASIs) Touchdown Zone, Touchdown Markings, Touchdown Zone Lights Runway, Runway Markings, Runway Lights

Question 44

What is a mountain wave and where would you encounter it?(AIM 7-5-3)

Answer 44

aks Mountain wave occurs when air is blown over a mountain range or ridge of a sharp bluff. Generally requires winds of 30 knots or greater but may occur with winds as little as 15 knots. Creates strong updrafts/downdrafts on lee side which cause turbulence potentially to 700 miles downrange. May form lenticular clouds over peaks

Question 45

On a 3 degree glide slope with 700 fpm descent, headwinds increase, what would you do?

Answer 45

Reduce rate of descent and add power

Question 46

What would cause an airplane to hydroplane the most?

Answer 46

Underinflated tires (low tire pressure)

Question 47

What factors would you consider in respect to hydroplaning?

Answer 47

Tire pressure, aircraft weight, type of touch down, and depth of standing water

Question 48

Describe the three types of Hydroplaning:

Answer 48

DYNAMIC: Tire rolls through water and creates a bow wave. The tires roll up on the bow wave and loses contact with the runway. This will occur at speeds greater than 9 times the square root of the tire pressure VISCOUS: Thin film develops on top of smooth painted or rubber coated surfaces. This will occur at speed lower than dynamic hydroplaning REVERTED RUBBER: Occurs when a locked wheel skids and heats up the water trapped between it and the runway due to friction. Tire will then ride along on a pocket of steam.

Question 49

What airspeed is flown after flying an approach, missed approach, and climb out?

Answer 49

L/D max or max range

Question 50

What airspeed is maintained during a divert?

Answer 50

Normal cruise speed

Question 51

If you are on an ILS approach, how do you calculate your descent rate? Multiply airspeed by 5: 150 KIAS= 750 VVI

Answer 51

If you are on an ILS approach, how do you calculate your descent rate? Multiply airspeed by 5: 150 KIAS= 750 VVI

Question 52

How do you convert Mach number to TAS?

Answer 52

Mach number is miles per minute. Multiply Mach by 6 to give you TAS. Add/Subtract HW/TW to give you GS Example: Mach .7 with a 50 knot TW, what is you GS? TAS=420 so GS=470

Question 53

How do you compute your descent point given an altitude to start and a DME to complete descent? Apply 3*altitude to lose+DME= DME to start descent

Answer 53

Example: You are at FL 390 and must descend to 20,000 by 45 DME, where do you start descent? (39-20)*3+45= 57+45= 102 DME

Question 54

How do you compute VDP?

Answer 54

Timing: (FAF to MAP)-(HAT*10%) Distance: HAT/300

Question 55

What conditions cause the worse icing?

Answer 55

Temps between 0 and -15 degrees C | Areas of freezing rain

Question 56

At standard sea level conditions, what is pressure and temp?

Answer 56

1013.2 millibars or 29.92 inches of Hg | 15 degrees C or 59 degrees F

Question 57

What shows up better on radar, snow, hail, sleet, or rain?

Answer 57

Rain

Question 58

Radar depiction problems: | 1 degree of radar at 1 NM = 100 ft of elevation

Answer 58

Example: You are flying at 20,000 ft with a thunderstorm 20 NM in front of you. The radar look up angle is 5 degrees, how high is the storm? (510020)+20,000=30,000'

Question 59

What is the best way to determine if you have a frontal passage?

Answer 59

Shift in the winds (cold front passage winds shift from SW to NW and a warm front passage winds shift from SE to SW)

Question 60

What are the dynamics of a Low Pressure System?

Answer 60

Unstable air, cyclonic (counter clockwise) air flow

Question 61

In the event that you encounter wind shear, what do you do?

Answer 61

Apply maximum power, increase pitch angle to the stick shaker, and hold until the wind shear is dissipated

Question 62

You are headed 120 magnetic on a track of 090 and there is a thunderstorm on your nose. Which way do you go? You are crabbing to the right so the winds are out of the south.

Answer 62

You want to pass the | thunderstorm on the upwind side so you deviate to the south

Question 63

How would you attempt to deviate around a thunderstorm?

Answer 63

Pass it by at least 20 NM on the upwind side | You may go over it by 1000' for every 10 knots of wind at the top

Question 64

What is the standard temperature lapse rate?

Answer 64

3.5 degrees F/1000' or 2 degrees C/1000'

Question 65

What is mach tuck?

Answer 65

As an aircraft approaches the speed of sound its wing center of pressure moves aft. As it moves aft, it creates a pitch down moment which there by increases airspeed and worsens situation

Question 66

What is an advantage/disadvantage of a swept wing aircraft?

Answer 66

Advantage: Increased Mcrit Disadvantage: Dutch roll tendency

Question 67

What is the purpose of a vortex generator?

Answer 67

They delay boundary layer separation and prevent shock waves from forming over flight surfaces as airspeeds approach Mcrit

Question 68

What two factors effect lift in a turn? | Airspeed and AOA

Answer 68

What two factors effect lift in a turn? | Airspeed and AOA

Question 69

How is an aircraft effected when loaded to its aft CG?

Answer 69

``` Stalls at a lower IAS Cruises faster Increase in Vmc (due to decreased moment arm from rudder) Increased range Unstable along longitudinal axis ```

Question 70

What effects stall speed?

Answer 70

IAS at which a stall occurs is effected by weight, load factor, and altitude AOA remains the same An increase in altitude (above 20K) will cause an increase in IAS due to compressibility and viscosity but it is negligible TAS at which a stall occurs increase with altitude and temp Accumulation of ice or frost and turbulence will increase stall speed

Question 71

How does density altitude increase takeoff roll? (Compare Denver to Atlanta)

Answer 71

IAS remains the same Increase in density altitude increases TAS which increases GS for takeoff speed Decrease in engine thrust A 1000 foot increase in density altitude increases take off roll by 7%

Question 72

What effects landing distance more, weight or speed?

Answer 72

Aircraft speed has a greater effect on landing distance (a 10% increase in speed causes a 21% increase in landing distance where as a 2% increase in weight increases landing distance by 2%)

Question 73

What is the relationship between AOA and TAS as altitude increases?

Answer 73

As altitude increases, TAS increases for a given IAS and AOA | TAS increases with an increase in altitude and increase in temp

Question 74

What happens when you pull the fire handle?

Answer 74

Cuts off fuel by closing firewall fuel shutoff valve Cuts off hydraulic fluid to any engine driven pumps Closes any bleed air valves Deactivates electrical generator on that engine Arms the fire extinguisher

Question 75

How are batteries effected when connected in series and parallel?

Answer 75

Series: Adds voltage but not amperage Parallel: Adds amperage but not voltage

Question 76

Where does the fire bottle spray the agent in the event of engine fire?

Answer 76

In the engine bay or compartment, not in the combustion section

Question 77

When must you advise ATC when making speed adjustments?

Answer 77

10 KIAS or 5% of TAS whichever is greater

Question 78

What factors effect V1 (Takeoff decision speed)?

Answer 78

Gross weight (increase in GW causes increase in V1) Flap setting Density Altitude (requires higher TAS) Temperature (Hotter temps increases TAS) Contamination (Slush or snow on runway will decrease V1)

Question 79

Define V1, Vr, V2, and Vref: (FAR 1)

Answer 79

V1 Take off Decision Speed: The speed during takeoff which you can accelerate, experience a failure of the critical engine, and either continue the takeoff or come to a stop in the remaining runway and stopway Vr Rotation Speed: Indicated airspeed at which the aircraft is rotated to its takeoff attitude with or without an engine failure V2 Take off Safety Speed: Speed that ensures that the airplane can maintain acceptable climb gradient with the critical engine inop Vref Reference Speed: Normally 1.3 Vso

Question 80

Airspeed True Airspeed: (TAS) TAS=Equivalent Airspeed(EAS) Ground Speed: Aircraft's

Answer 80

actual speed of aircraft through the air. corrected for density altitude TAS +/- headwind/tailwind

Question 81

Mach Number

Answer 81

Ratio of True Air Speed (TAS) to the speed of sound | As temp increases, the speed of sound increases

Question 82

Subsonic:

Answer 82

0.5 Mach

Question 83

Critical Mach: Mcrit

Answer 83

Point in which airflow over the wing first reaches, but does not exceed the speed of sound

Question 84

Two types of Drag

Answer 84

Parasite Drag: Resistance of the air to the aircraft's movement through it. Parasite drag increases with the square of its speed Induced Drag: Byproduct of lift and is proportional to the angle of attack of the wing

Question 85

What is the region of reverse command?

Answer 85

Area to the left of L/D max where a decrease in airspeed requires an increase in power tooffset the large increase in induced drag

Question 86

AOA

Answer 86

Angle of Attack | Angle between relative wind and the chord line