1 ID T Flashcards

1
Q

DNA Poly I does what?

A

Pull off RNA primers and replace with DNA

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2
Q

What triggers neoplastic changes in HBV infection?

A

Integration of viral DNA into genome

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3
Q

What do you supplement measles infection with?

A

Vit A as it depletes the stores leading to ocular complications

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4
Q

What percentage of HBV patients completely resolve?

A

95%

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5
Q

Where do herpes viruses acquire membrane?

A

nucleus

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6
Q

Aspiration of oral contents vs oral contents?

A

pneumonia vs pneumonitis

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7
Q

How does IgA exert its protective effects?

A

prevents mucosal adherence

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8
Q

What is the main factor in preventing recurrent influenza infections?

A

antibodies against hemagglutinin

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9
Q

What do trimethoprim, pyrimethamine, and methotrexate all have in common?

A

block dihydrofolate reductase

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10
Q

How does S. aureus gain penicillin resistance?

A

penicilllin binding protein alterations

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11
Q

How are extended spectrum beta lactamases transferred?

A

plasmids

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12
Q

What is ethambutol toxicity include?

A

optic neuropathy

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13
Q

What does pipercillin-tazobactam treat?

A

G- rods i.e. pseudomonas and bacteroides

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14
Q

How does amphotericin B work and what are common side effects?

A

binds ergosterol and acts like a ‘MAC’ and can cause renal toxicity (hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia)

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15
Q

What are some INH toxicities?

A

hepatotoxicity

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16
Q

Describe a candida infection in an HIV patient

A

HIV patients often get oral/skin infections but not hematogenous/disseminated infections as their neutrophils are intact

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17
Q

What is the ssDNA virus?

A

parvo B19

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18
Q

Absolute lymphocytosis indicates?

A

bordetella pertussis

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19
Q

Lacks PG in the cell wall

A

C. trachomatis

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20
Q

LPS is formed with a combination of

A

Lipid A and O antigen

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21
Q

Penicillins inhibit…

A

transpeptidase

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22
Q

Anophales vs Aedes mosquito infections

A

Anophales - Malaria

Aedes - Dengue

23
Q

What cells are activated by TSST?

A

Tcell - TCR - IL-2

Macrophage - MHCII - IL-1/TNFa

24
Q

Actions of oseltamivir

A

block neuraminidase i.e. viral release

25
Q

Grisofulvin vs -azoles

A

P450 Inducers vs inhibitors

26
Q

Use of Rifampin outside of RIPE therapy?

A

meningitis prophylaxis amongst potentially exposed

27
Q

Adenovirus main symptoms?

A

pharyngoconjunctival fever

28
Q

Three vaginal infections

A

bacterial vaginOSIS - gardenella - fishy/offwhite/ALK/clue cells Tx Metro
Trichomoniasis - trichomoniasis vaginalis - yellow-green/ALK/motile/ Tx Metro
Candidia vaginITIS - candidia - cottage cheese/NORMAL PH Tx fluconazole

29
Q

What do -azoles/terbinafine vs caspofungin/echinocandin vs amphoB/nystatin do?

A

ergoersterol vs glucan vs ‘MAC-like’ pores

30
Q

Dangers of Echinococcus (dog tapeworm)

A

forms hydatid cysts and can cause anaphylaxis/death when resected

31
Q

HSV6 vs Measles (Rubeola) vs Rubella (German measles) symptoms

A

HSV6 - 6-36mo abrupt fever subsides then maculopapular rash
Measles - cough corzya conjunctiva Koplik spots rash head to toe
Rubella - sore throat corzya forcheimer spots rash head to toe

32
Q

How to distinguish b/w E. coli and Enterobacter (old women w/ UTI)

A

E. coli is indole positive

both are G- lactose fermenting rods

33
Q

Aminoglycoside resistance

A

methylated ribosomes

34
Q

Why don’t beta lactase resistant penicillins work for MRSA?

A

b/c they have altered penicillin binding proteins

35
Q

What is tazobactam

A

beta-lactamase inhibitor so it helps prolong beta-lactam antibiotics

36
Q

What is pyrrolindonyl arylamidase associated with?

A

GAS

37
Q

Bile soluble vs insoluble bacteria

A

s. pneumo and s. viridans

38
Q

MCC of parotitis

A

S. aureas

39
Q

What can you use instead of albendazole to treat pinworms in pregnant patients?

A

pyrantel pamoate

40
Q

E. coli that causes meningitis has what virulence factor?

A

K-1 capsule

41
Q

Herpes show what histologically?

A

intraNUCLEAR not intraCYTOPLASMIC inclusions (Cowdry bodies)

42
Q

Beta-lactamase inhibitors include:

A

sulbactam, clavulanic acid, and tazobactam

43
Q

Probenicids function

A

decrease renal clearance of penicillins

44
Q

How do you commonly contract Q fever?

A

inhale animal waste

45
Q

What antivirals need phosphorylated?

A

acyclovir, gancyclovir (CMV usually), lamivudine (NRTI)

46
Q

Necrotic keratinocytes indicate what?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome, often after CMV or mycoplasma infection,

47
Q

H2S production and motility in salmonella vs shigella

A

salmonella - H2S and motile

Shigella - no H2S and non-motile

48
Q

How does AZT work?

A

Zidovudine lacks 3’OH so once incorporated, chain elongation stops

49
Q

Toxo vs HSV encephalitis

A

both temporal lobes (aphasia) but Toxo when immunodeficient, HSV sporadic and rapid

50
Q

TMP-SMX mechanism of action

A

folic acid synthesis disruption

51
Q

What causes seal-bark cough in kids?

A

parainfluenza

52
Q

In neonatal meningitis you give what for neisseria and what for listeria?

A

ceftriaxone for N. meningitis and ampicillin for listeria

53
Q

Who should avoid abacavir?

A

HLA-B*57 - allergic reaction