1: intro Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

what is surgery a combination of

A

art and science

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2
Q

what should a tech have working knowledge of

A

A&P, pathology, diagnostic medicine

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3
Q

what is the primary goal of the surgeon

A

correcting the disease

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4
Q

what is the techs primary goal

A

patients life (surgery prep. and recovery)

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5
Q

what is protazoa

A

one celled organism that creates parasitic diseases

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6
Q

are protazoa a major surgical concern

A

no, more of a problem from a medical standpoint

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7
Q

what are fungi

A

plants that must exist as parasites due to their inability to synthesis their own food

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8
Q

what can improper cleaning of an ET tube or insturments cause

A

skin or organ disease

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9
Q

what is a major concern when cleaning and sterilizing

A

bacteria

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10
Q

what are bacteria classified as

A

opportunists

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11
Q

what do most surgical and post-surgical complications arise from (5)

A

improper care and cleaning of surgical equipment, suites, recovery ares, incomplete prep, and sterile personnel

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12
Q

what is a result of aseptic technique

A

prevention of hospital-aquired infections

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13
Q

what does aseptic technique involve (2)

A

pre and post-surgical asepsis

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14
Q

decubital ulcer aka

A

bed sore

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15
Q

where are bed sores found

A

bony areas from increased pressure and decreased circulation

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16
Q

what is the best treatment for decubital ulcers

A

prevention

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17
Q

how can you eliminate or control the source of disease (3)

A

isolation, quarantine, euthanasia

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18
Q

how can you increase the ability of the hosts resistance to disease (3)

A

adequate diet, therapeutic agents, general hygine

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19
Q

how can you prevent transmission of microbes (3)

A

wash hands, adequate ventilation, physical and chemical control

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20
Q

what are the 2 classifications of sterilization and disinfection

A

physical or chemical

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21
Q

what 3 types of physical sterilization/disinfection exist

A

filtration, radiation, heat

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22
Q

what is filtration commonly used on

A

pharmaceuticals

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23
Q

what is radiation commonly used on

A

production and packaging of surgical products (ex gloves and suture material)

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24
Q

what are the 3 types of radiation

A

ultraviolet, gamma, beta

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25
what are the uses of ultraviolet radiation
surfaces and air
26
what are the diadvantages of ultraviolet radiation
limited use, damages cornea, skin cancer
27
what is the use of gamma radiation
vaccination, biological, gloves
28
what is the use of beta radiation
prepackaged suture material, gloves, rubber tubing
29
what is the most common method of sterilization
heat
30
what kills microbes by coagulating critical cellular proteins
moist heat
31
what kills microbes by protein oxidation
dry heat
32
what is dry heat used to sterilize
materials that cant tolerate moist heat; oils powders, petroleum products
33
does hot water sterilize
no, only sanitizes
34
whet temp. is needed for hot water sanitation
60C or 140F
35
what can be added to hot water to help sanitization
scrubbing with detergent
36
what temp and time must boiling water be at to disinfect
max temp. 212F or 100C for 3 hours
37
what does boiling for 10 min do
destroy vegetative bacteria
38
effective disinfectant set at 212F for 30-45 min used to clean large scale things
free flowing steam
39
when properly used this kills all forms of microbial life including spores and cysts
autoclaves
40
how should packs be placed into an autoclave
verticle
41
what is the ideal time, temp, and psi of an autoclave
250-270F, 30min, 15psi
42
what is the minimum amount of time an item can be sterilized in the autoclave
15 min
43
when can the autoclave door be opened
212F and 0psi
44
how long is an autoclaves dry cycle
1 hr
45
what is the time, temp, and psi for flash sterilization
3-4 min, unwrapped at 270-272F, 32 psi
46
what type of sterilization will not rust or corrode needles or sharp insturments
drying
47
although drying inhibits growth of MO's it may also increase dispersal of what
particles containing viable microbes if not cleaned ASAP
48
what can partially burnt lumps of incinerated items do
contain and protect MO's
49
what are the 3 advantages of hot air ovens
economical, doesn't dull edges, no corrosion
50
what are hot air ovens used for
sterilize oil, gel, powder, wax, glassware, and surgical sharps
51
disadvantages of hot air ovens
takes longer, paper and cloth are scorched, plastic and rubber melt
52
what temp and time is the hot air oven set at
340F, 1-3 hrs depending on material
53
most common chemical classifications
gluteraldehyde and chlorhexidine
54
what sterilizes hard surfaces and instruments by immersion
gluteraldehyde
55
what is carcenogenic to living tissue
gluteraldehyde
56
how often should gluteraldehyde be changed
weekly or by 14 days
57
what chemical can be used on living tissue
chlorhexidine
58
what is used on items that cannot tolerate high temps
gasses
59
what are the 2 most common gas agents
ethylene oxide and hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
60
what is used primarily in industries, institutions, and military
ethylene oxide
61
what inactivates DNA
ethylene oxide
62
what are 3 advantages of ethylene oxide
lower temp, excellent penetration, effective microbicide
63
what is a slow, flammable, poisonous, mutagenic, and carcinogenic gas
ethylene oxide
64
how long does an ethylene oxide cycle take
12-24 hrs
65
what gas is safer for personnel and environment
hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
66
what gas cannot penetrate walls of an insturment
hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
67
what are the 4 types of sterilization indicators
chemical, autoclave tape, biological, and misc.
68
what indicators respond to time and temp by color change
chemical
69
what does a chemical stripe indicate
sterility and processing of an item
70
what does not indicate sterility but only that the pack may have been processed
autoclave tape
71
what are vials or paper strips impregnated with bacillus stearothermophilus
biological indicators
72
where are biological indicators used
in mass production sterilization
73
how long can biological indicators take for results
up to 2 days
74
what does a purple or red biological indicator mean
no growth
75
what refers to soaking objects in a disinfectant solution
cold sterilization
76
is sterility garunted with cold sterilization
no
77
what is cold sterilization used for
"dirty" or minor procedures and items that shouldn't be autoclaved
78
how long should items soak in cold sterilization solution
minimum of 15 min
79
how long must items soak in cold sterilization for to be "sterile"
3 hours (may require 12 hrs)
80
how often should cold sterilization solution be changed
at least every 2 weeks
81
what should be used if allergic to chlorhexadines and iodines
phenols
82
what is quaternary ammonium
disinfectant
83
what should never be mixed with bleach
quaternary ammonium
84
what can cause acute asthmatic attacks and instant death if in a large enough amount
quaternary ammonium
85
what is effective against bacteria but not spores or viruses
quaternary ammonium
86
what is an aldehyde
disenfectant
87
what is commonly used in cold trays
gluteraldehyde
88
what are alcohols
disinfectant or antiseptic
89
what can be painful, cytotoxic and can chill patients
alcohol
90
what % isopropyl should not be used on patients
99%
91
what are halogens
disinfectant or antiseptic
92
what takes a 1/30 dilution to kill viruses including parvo
chloride compounds
93
what should only be used on intact skin that's not common in vet fields
iodines
94
what is iodine combined with
a carrier molecule
95
what are idophors available as
scrubs or soution
96
what is the difference between scrubs and solution
scrub contains detergent solution does not
97
what is a biguanides
disinfectant and antiseptic
98
what is nolvasan solution used on
living tissue
99
when is nolvasan solution often used
during dental to wipe gums and teeth and in cold trays/packs
100
what is nolvasan-s
disenfectant